Class 10 Biology
CHAPTER THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
A.MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE
1.Pancreas
2.Thyroid
3.Diabetes insipidus
B.Very short answer type
1. Name the following
(a) Adrenaline
(b) insulin shock
(c) insulin
(d) Isthmus
(e)Anti diuretic hormone (ADH)
(f) Adrenaline
2.Cretinism
3.Choose the odd one out from each series:
(a) Prostate, Exocrine gland others are endocrine glands.
(b)Scurvy,due to the deficiency of Vitamin C but others are
diseases due to hypothyroidism.
(c)Cretinism, it is due to hypothyroidism in children but
others are hormones
(d)Cortisone, It it is itself a hormone others are sources
of hormone.
5. Matching
Columns 1.
Column 2
1 beta cells of islets. 1. Insulin
2. Thyroid.
2. Thyroxine
3. Cretinism.
3. Under secretion
of thyroxine
4. Addison's disease. 4. Under secretion
of glucocorticoids
5 hyperthyroidism. 5.
Exophthalmic
goitre
6. Myxoedema.
6.Condition due to
under secretion of
thyroxine in adults
7. Adrenaline.
7. Increases heart
beat
8. Cortisone.
8. Adrenal cortex
6. Match the conditions in column A with the cause in column
B
A(condition).
B(cause)
(a) dwarfism and.
Hypothyroidism Mental retardation
in a child
(b) diabetes mellitus. 2. Excess of
glucose in blood
(c) shortage of glucose 3. Insulin shock
In blood
(d) Gigantism.
4. Oversecretion
of growth hormone (e)enlargement of.
5. Oversecretion
breast in adult
of cortical
males.
hormones
(f) exophthalmic
6. Over secretion of
goitre.
Thyroxine
6. Identify the odd one in each of the following and mention
what the rest are:
(a) larynx and others are hormones.
(b) penicillin and others are hormones
(c) adrenaline and other organs of digestive system.
(d) insulin and others are hormones secreted by pituitary
gland.
(e) iodine and rest are are disorders caused due to
hypothyroidism.
7. Suggest a suitable word for the fourth place
1. Glucagon
2. Myxodema
3. Gignantism
4. ADH
SHORT ANSWER TYPE:
1(a) diabetes mellitus
(b) simple goitre
(c) cretinism
(d) exophthalmic goitre
(e) Acromegaly
2. Write the exact location of each of the following glands:
(a) Thyroid:- it is situated in front of the neck just below
the larynx.
(b)Adrenal:- it is situated above the kidneys.
(c) pancreas:-it is located behind the stomach in the upper
left abdomen.
(d) pituitary gland:-it hangs from the base of the midbrain
below hypothalamus.
3. Name the following
(a) insulin ,glucagon and somatostatin
(b) mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
(c) growth hormone ,prolactin ,adrenocorticotropic hormone,
thyroid stimulating hormone, follicle stimulating hormone
and luteinising hormone.
(d) vasopressin and oxytocin.
(e) adrenaline
4. Write the main function of each of the following
hormones:-
(a). Thyroxine:-it promotes tissue metabolism, growth and
differentiation.
(b). Adrenaline:-it prepares the body to meet any emergency
situation for fight and for flight.
(c)Insulin:- it promotes glucose uptake by body cells and
stimulates deposition of extra glucose in liver as glycogen.
(d) Glucagon:- it stimulates liver to convert glycogen into
glucose.
(e) Vasopressin:- it increases reabsorption of water from
kidney tubules.
5 name the hormones responsible for the given functions:-
a. Oxytocin
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Oxytocin
d.Testosterone
e. Adrenaline
6. This happens under the effect of adrenaline
secreted from adrenal medulla.
7. Filling the blanks in the table from 1 to 13
1. Thyroid
2. Regulates basal metabolism
3. Exophthalmic goitre
4. Simple goitre,cretinism or myxodema
5. Insulin
6 insulin shock
7 hyperglycemia or diabetes mellitus
8. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
9. Regulate the growth of whole body
10. Gigantism
11. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
12.high blood pressure and excretion of concentrated urine
13. Diabetes insipidus.
8. Filling the blanks number 1 to 7
1. Thyroid
2. Thyroxine
3. Insulin
4. Adrenal
5. Adrenaline
6. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
7. Promote secretion of thyroxine
9. Complete the following table by filling the blanks number
1 to 8
1 ovary
2.maintains the development of Graafian follicle and
ovulation
3. Glucagon
4. Converts glycogen to glucose
5. Thyroid gland
6. Thyroxine
7. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
8. Increase secretion of growth hormone
D. DESCRIPTIVE TYPE
1. Define the following terms:
(a) Endocrine system:-Endocrine system consists of several
glands which bring about the overall common function of
chemical coordination in the body.
(b) Hormones:-hormones are secretions from specific cells or
glands in the body and are carried to all parts through
blood.
(c) Myxodema:-it is a condition that affects an adult if his
thyroid doesn't function properly .In this condition the
person become sluggish with swelling of the face and hands.
2.Distinguish between the following pairs:-
(a)endocrine glands pour their secretions directly into the
blood while exocrineglands pour their secretions through
ducts.
(b) hormones are chemical regulators while enzymes are
proteins.
Hormones affects different organs while enzymes act
only on one kind of substance.
(c)Nervous control:-transmitted electrochemically through
the nerve fibres and chemically across synapses.
Effect is only short lived.
Hormonal control:-transmitted chemically through blood and
effect is short term or long lasting.
(d) Diabetes mellitus:-insufficient secretion of insulin
causes diabetes mellitus.
Symptoms:-high concentration of sugar in blood and the
person feels thirsty and there is loss of weight.
DIABETES INSIPIDUS:-deficiency of antidiuretic hormone
causes diabetes insipidus in which urination is frequent and
copiois and resulting in loss of water from the body and the
person becomes thirsty. There is no sugar in urine.
(e) ADDISON'S DISEASE:-hypo secretion from adrenal cortex
causes addison's disease.
There is low level of sugar in the blood.
CUSHING SYNDROME:-hyper secretion from adrenal cortex causes
cushing's syndrome.
There is a high level of sugar in the blood.
Q3 GIVE REASON
(a) Adrenaline is a hormone which prepares the body to meet
any emergency situation for fight or for flight so
extra energy and strength is provided to the body in that
situation.
(b) Pituitary is called the master gland because it controls
The functioning of all other endocrine glands.
(c)People living in low Himalayan Hilly areas often suffer
from goitre because iodine is deficient in soil of hilly
areas and hence in the food grown there.
(d)Simple goitre can be prevented by using iodized salt in
food because it is due to insufficient quantity of iodine in
food.
4.Yes, we agree with the statement that all hormones are
chemical signals because chemically some hormones are
peptides which are water soluble some are amines again water
soluble and some are steroids derived from cholesterol
whitch are lipid soluble.
E. STRUCTURED /APPLICATION /SKILL TYPE
Q1(a) 1. Alpha cells
2. Beta cells
(b) Glucagon stimulates liver to convert glycogen into
glucose.
Insulin stimulates deposition of extra glucose as glycogen
in liver and muscles.
(c) Pancreas is referred to as an exo endocrine gland
because as a duct gland its secretion is poured into the
duodenum for digestion and as a ductless gland it has
special groups of hormone secreting cells called
islets of langerhans.
(d) Because insulin is a chemically proteinaceous hormone
.it gets digested by protein digestive enzymes. so it is
injected into blood to increase its effect.
(e) Islets of langerhans
(f) The pancreas is located in the abdomen behind the
stomach.
Q2(a) In front of the neck just below larynx.
(b) 1_larynx
2-thyroid gland
3-trachea
(c). 1- helps in production of voice
2- thyroid gland produces thyroxine to control basal
metabolic rate of body.
3- it is a passage for Air in respiratory tract.
(d) No
Q3(a) 1-pituitary gland
2-thyroid gland
3-adrenal gland
4- pancreas
(b) All are endocrine glands.
(c) iodine
Q4(a) B
(b) Hormone is secreted directly into the blood.
THINK AND CONNECT
Note:-Do it yourself.
Chapter The Excretory
A.MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE
1.Removal of nitrogenous
waste 2.Proximal
convoluted tubule
3.Sweating 4.Liver
B.VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1.Name the following
(a)Cortex
(b)Glomerulus
(c)Distal convoluted tubule
(d)Kidneys
(e)Kidneys
(f)Urochrome
2.TERMS IN CORRECT LOGICAL
SEQUENCE
(a)Afferent arteriole,Glomerulus,Efferent
arteriole,Secondary cappilary network,Renal vein
(b)Renal
artery,kidney,ureter,urinry bladder,urethera
3.PICK OUT THE ONE ITEM
WHICH OVERALL INCLUDES THE REMAINING FOUR
(a)Ultrafiltration
(b)Excretion
(c)Osmoregulation
(d)Excretion
4.NAME
THE DISEASES DUE TO ABNORMAL CONSTIUENTS IN URINE
(a)Blood---------------Haematuria
(b)Glucose-------------Glycosuria
(c)Albumin-------------High
blood pressure
(d)Bile pigments--------Anaemia,Hepatitis,Liver cirrhosis
C.SHORT ANSWER TYPE
1.WRITE DOOWN THE FUNCTIONAL
ACTIVITY
(a)Ultrafiltration
(b) Pours urine in the
pelvis of kidney
(c)Transports urine to urinary bladder
(d)Pass blood into the renal
vein (e)Helps in
micturition
2.MATCH THE ITEMS
COLUMN I
COLUMN II
(a)Bowman’s capsule
Glomerulus
(b)Contains more CO2 and less urea
Renal vein
(c)Antiduretic hormone
Regulates amount of water excreted
(d)Contains more urea
Renal artery
3.FILL IN THE BLANKS
Blood,Glomerulus,Efferent
Arteriole,Afferent Arteriole,Liquid,Glomerulus,Bowman’s
Capsule
4.NAME
THE FOLLOWING
(a)Ammonia,urea and Uric
Acid
(b)Urea,Creatinine,Uric Acid
(c)Sodium chloride,Potassium
Chloride,Ammonia
(d)Kidney,Ureter,Urinary bladder,Urethera
(e)Afferent
Arteriole,Glomerulus,Efferent arteriole,PCT,Loop of
henle,DCT,Collecting duct
(f)Ultrafiltration,Reabsorption,Tubular Secreation
(g)Blood,Ultrafiltrate,Urine
5.CHOOSE THE ODD ONE
OUT
(a)Neuron is the
odd one out and remaining others are the parts of human
urinary system
(b) Excess
sodium chloride is the odd one out and others are
nitrogenous wastes.
(c)Loop of henle is the odd
one out and others are the parts of the kidney
(d) Pappila is the odd one
out and others are the parts of the renal tubule.
6.WRITE FULL FORMS
(a)PCT;Proximal
convulated tubule
(b)DCT;Distal convuated tubule
(c)ADH;Antidiueretichormone
(d)ORS;Oral Rehydration
Solution
7.WRITE THE EXACT LOCATION
(a)Kidney;It is located on
either side of the backbone.
(b)Urineferous tubule;In the
kidneys
(c)Malphigian capsule;In the cortex region of kidney
(d)Loop of henle; In the
medulla region of kidney
D.DESCRPTIVE TYPE
1.DEFINE THE FOLLOWING TERMS
(a)Excretion;The process of
removal of chemical wastes from the body.
(b)Kidney;They are the
primary excretory organs eliminating nitrogenous wastes from
the blood and throwing it out in the form of urine.
(c)Micturion;The process of
expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder through urethera
is called micturition.
(d)Osmoregulation;The kidney
while removing wastes like urea from the blood also
regulates its composition that is the percentage of water
and salts.This function is called osmoregulation.
2.DIIFERENTIATE BETWEEN
THE FOLLOWING PAIRS
(a)Bowmans capsule is a thin
walled cup while bowmans capsule and the glomerulus together
are called malpighianan capsule.
(b)Diueresis;Cause of
Diuresis is reduced secreation of ADH and problem caused by
diuresis is increased production of urine.
Uremia;Cause of uremia is
accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the body and problem
is that person may lead to death.
(c)RENAL CORTEX—It is the
outer dark region of the kidney and gives a dotted
appearance. RENAL
MEDULLA—It is the inner lighter region of the kidney.It
gives a striped appearance.
(d) RENAL PELVIS—The front
end of the ureter is somewhat expanded into the kidney and
is called renal pelvis
RENAL PAPILLA—The apex of
each pyramid projects into the kidney and is called renal
papilla.
(e)
UREA—It is the chief excretory product which is excreted in
the form of urine
URINE—The filtrate left after reabsorption and tubular
secretion is called urine.
(f)EXCRETION—It has no
utility in the body as it is the passing out of the
substances thar are hrmful for the body.
SECRETION—It is giving out
by a cell or a gland some substance thst has some utility
for the body.
3.GIVE REASONS
(a)Excretion is the process
of removing waste products from the body of living
organisms.When these toxic materials are not removed from
the body they get mixed with the blood and can cause death
of the person.That is why excretion is a necessary process
in our body.
(b)Because if we donate one kidney to a needy
patient then the other kidney alone is sufficient for
excretory needs and a person can lead a normal life.
(c)The reason is that in
summers we loose a considerable part of water through
perspiration and the kidneys have to absorb more water from
the urine making it more concentrated.
4.Uriniferous tubule is the
structural and functional unit of kidney.These are small
minute tubules present in the kidneys.
It contains the Bowmans
capsule,proximal convulated tubule,loop of henle,distal
convulated tubule and collecting duct in it.Their function
is to take in impure blood from the renal artery and removes
wastes in the form of urine.It also provides a large surface
area for reabsorbtion of salts and water.
5.The kidney while removing
wastes like urea from the blood also regulates its
composition that is percentage of water and salts.This
function is called osmoregulation.It implies the regulation
of osmotic pressure of the blood.
6.ULTRAFILTRATION;The blood
flows through the glomerulus under great pressure which is
much greater than in the capilaries else where.The reason
for his greater pressure is that efferent arteriole is
narrower than the afferent arteriole.This high pressure
causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the
glomerulus into the renal tubule.This filtration under extra
ordinary force is called ultrafiltration.
SELECTIVE ABSORPTION;The
glomerular filtrate entering the renal tubule is not
urine.It is an extremely dilute solution containing a lot of
usefulmaterials including glucose and some salts such as
those of sodium.As the filtrate passes down the tubule much
of the water is reabsorbed together with the useful
substances but their reabsorption is only to the extent that
normal concentration of the blood is not disturbed.This is
called selective absorption.
7.Artificial kidney is
dialysis machine,The patient blood is led from the radial
artery in his arm through the machine where the urea and
excess salts are removed and the purified blood is returned
to the vein in the same arm.
In case of permanent damage
to the kidneys,dialysis is to be carried out.
E.STRUCTURED/APPLICATION/SKILL TYPE
1.(a)Longitudinal section
(b)1—Renal artery
2—Renal vein
3—Ureter
4—Renal cortex
5—Pelvis
(c)Renal cortex contains
malpighian capsule.
Renal medulla contains
pyramids Pelvis
contains freshly collected urine
2(a)urinary system and
excretory system.
(b)1-Kidneys
2-Aorta 3.Ureter
4.Urinary bladder
(c)Nephron
(d)Urea and uric acid
(e)Ultrafiltration and
selective absorption
3.(a)Glomerulus
(b)Efferent arteriole
(cAfferent arteriole
(d)Collecting tubule
(e)PCT
(f)Efferent arteriole is
narrower than afferent arteriole
(g) Loop of henle
4.(a)EXCRETION;It is the
removal of harmful and unwanted nitrogenous waste products
from the body.
(b)Because both bowmans capsule and proximal convulated part
lies in the cortex giving it a dotted appearance.
(c)Because medulla of the
kidney is composed of a finely striped ubstance arranged in
several conial pyramids.
(d)The blood vessel A(renal
vein) contains deoxygenated blood and blood vessel B(renal
artery)contains oxygenated blood
5.(a)Bowmans capsule
(b)1-Afferent arteriole
2-Glomerulus
3-Bowmans capsule
4-Efferent arteriole
(c)Ultrafiltration and
selective absorption
(d)Ultrafiltration(definition already done)jf
History class 10 chapter 3
Structured questions
1.The period from 1885 to 1905 was dominated by the
Early Nationalists. In this context answer the following
questions:
(a) To which segment of society they belonged?
(b) What were their demands?
(c) What methods did they adopt?
Ans- (a) In its initial years the Congress was led by a
group of leaders known as the Early Nationalists. The
members of this group were drawn from the educated
middle class consisting of professionals like lawyers,
barristers, teachers and officials, who drew inspiration
from Western Liberal and redical thought.
(b) (i) Abolition of India Council,
(ii) Expansion of the Legislative Council and
Legislative Assemblics-both at the Centre and in the
Provinces.
(iii) Adequate representation of Indians in the
Exccutive Council of the Viceroy and those of the
Governors.
(c) First Set of Methods: Their first objective was to
educate people in India in modern politics, to arouse
national political consciousness.
For this purpose, they relied on the following methods:
(i) They held meetings where speeches were made and
resolutions for popular demands were passed. (ii) They
made use of the press to criticise government policies.
(iii) They sent memorandums and petitions to government
officials and the British Parliament.
Second Set of Methods: The second objective of the Early
Nationalists was to influence the British government.To
achieve this objective, they followed the following
methods: (i) They made use of three P's i.c. Petitions,
Prayers and Protests. (ii) A British Committee of the
Indian National Congress was set up in London in 1889.
(iii) Deputations of Indian leaders were sent to
Britain.
2. The Early Nationalists were practical and wanted to
win freedom by a gradual process. Critically examine the
contribution of the Early Nationalists using the
following
(a) Exposing the true nature of British rule.
(b) Arousing political consciousness among the people.
(c) Laying the foundation of the national movement.
Ans- (a) under the heading " achievements of the early
nationalists" it's 3rd point page 38.
(b) same Heading it's 1st point. Page 38.
(c) i. The Early Nationalists created national awakening
among people that they belonged to one common
country-India.
ii. The Early Nationalists trained people in politics by
popularising the ideas of democracy, civil liberties,
secularism and nationalism.
iii. They made people realise the economic content and
character of British imperialism. By doing so, they
weakened the foundations of the British rule in India.
iv. Their political and economic programmes established
the truth that India must be ruled in the interest of
the Indians.
3. The Early Nationalists initially believed that the
British wanted to be just to India but were unaware of
the real state of affairs. In this context, answer the
following questions:
(a) What was the attitude of these leaders towards the
British?
(b) Why did they develop such an attitude?
(c) How did they expose the true nature of British rule
in India?
Ans- a. They asked for constitutional and other reforms
within the framework of the British rule as they had
faith in the British sense of justice and fair play.
They believed that continuation of the British
connection with India was in the interest of both
England and India. They concerned themselves with the
demand for reforms.
(b). i. The Early Nationalists had faith in the sense
of justice, fair play, honesty and integrity of the
British,
ii. It was their hope that the British would grant Home
Rule' to Indians.
iii. They believed that the British rule had many
benefits. For example, it aided in cleansing social ills
like sati, untouchability and child marriage.
c. Same as 2nd question it's (a) part
4.The methods of the Early Nationalists were criticised
as inadequate and half-hearted. In this context, briefly
describe the following:
(a) Nature of their methods.
(b) Reasons for the partial failure of their methods.
(c). The final outcome of their efforts.
Ans- (a) under the heading "criticism of the early
nationalists" it's 1st point full.
(b) i.They failed to realise that British and Indian
interests clashed with each other. Britain was using
India's resources to increase its wealth.
ii. The Early Nationalists failed to draw the masses
into the mainstream of the national movement. Their area
of influence was limited to the urban educated Indians.
(c) same as 2nd question (c) part.
5. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, the political mentor of
Gandhiji, was one of the most popular Early Nationalist
leaders. In this context, answer the following:
(a) State two of the policies of the imperial regime
which were opposed by Gokhale.
(b) What role did he play as a member of Imperial
Legislative Council?
(c) How did he try to arouse national awakening?
Ans- (a) i) incurring huge expenditure on the British
army.
(ii) adopting the policy of racial discrimination in
appointments to high posts.
(b) page 40. Under the heading "his contribution" , it's
3rd point "roal as member of imperial legislative
council" it's any three points.
(c) He made strong plea for the reform of the
idauisislative Councils and separation of judiciary from
the executive.
• He played an important role in the passage of
Minto-Morley Reforms. • He also served as a member of
the Indian Public Service Commission and urged it to
increase the share of Indians in higher services.
During his visit to England he tried to persuade the
British statesmen not to give effect to the Partition of
Bengal.
6. Surendranath Banerjee is popularly known as the
Father of the Indian Nationalism'. this context, answer
the following:
(a) What was India's political goal according to
Banerjee?
(b) What were the methods he advocated to attain it?
(c) What was his contribution to India's freedom
struggle?
Ans- (a) Banerjee edited a newspaper, Bengalee, which
served as a powerful medium for mobilising public
opinion. His book, Nation in the Making, gives_an
account. his political concern and his views about
self-government. (b) He advocated use of
constitutional methods for the attainment of India's
goals. His famous saying was, "Opposition where
necessary, co-operation where possible.'
(c) Banerjee started agitation against the Licence Act,
Arms Act, Vernacular Press Act and against lowering the
age from 21 to 19 years to appearin the I.C.S.
Examination. He opposed the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909
which introduced separate electorates for the Hindus and
the Muslims. He also opposed thedivision of Bengal by
Lord Curzon in 1905.
III. Picture Study Identify the person in the picture
and mention his contribution to India's freedom struggle
under the following heads: (a) His views about the
nature of British imperialism.
(b) His achievement in strengthening Indian nationalism.
(c) His views on the cause of poverty in India.
Ans- (a) Dadabhai
Naoroji was initially the first Person in India to
describe British rule in the prospect of the Drain of
Wealth theory.
(b) Banerjee started agitation against the Licence Act,
Arms Act, Vernacular Press Act and against lowering the
age from 21 to 19 years to appearin the I.C.S.
Examination. He opposed the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909
which introduced separate electorates for the Hindus and
the Muslims. He also opposed the division of Bengal by
Lord Curzon in 1905.
(c) As an economic thinker, he came to the conclusion
that the root cause for the economic ills of India was
the exploitation of India by the British. Dadabhai's
views on Indian economy are given in his work entitled
'Poverty and Un- British Rule in India'. His famous
Drain Theory'. explained how India's wealth was being
'drained' to England through various ways.
CHAPTER 4
Structured Questions
1. One of Lord Curzon's administrative measures that
resulted in a strong resentment from the masses was the
Partition of Bengal in 1905. In this context, answer the
following questions:
(a) What was Lord Curzon's argument in favour of the
Partition of Bengal? How did the nationalists interpret
Lord Curzon's motives?
(b) How did the people react to the Partition of
Bengal?
Ans- (a) The main motive for the Partition of Bengal,
according to the British rulers, was administrative
necessity. They said that the province of Bengal was too
big to be efficiently administered by a single
provincial government.
(b) The Indian nationalists clearly saw the design
behind the Partition and condemned it. They saw that it
was a deliberate attempt to divide the Bengalis on
religious and territorial grounds and thereby, disrupt
and weaken nationalism in Bengal. They felt that
administrative efficiency could have been better secured
by separating Hindi-speaking Bihar and the
Odiya-speaking Odisha from the Bengali-speaking part of
the province. Moreover, the manner in which the
announcement of partition was made without any regard
for the public opinion, hurt the sentiments of sensitive
Bengalis.
2 With reference to the Surat Split of 1907, answer the
following questions:
(a) What were the issues on which the two wings of the
Congress had differences of opinion?
(b) How did the British exploit the differences between
the Early Nationalists and the Assertive Nationalists?
(c) What was the effect of the split between the two
wings of the Congress on the National Movement?
Ans-(a) i. The Assertive Nationalists wanted to extend
the Swadeshi and boycott to the rest of India.The Early
Nationalists, however, did not approve it.
ii. There was also a disagreement over the candidature
of the next President. Finally, Dadabhai Naoroji, who
was respected by both the groups, became the President
in 1906.
iii. in the next session in 1907 at Surat. The Assertive
Nationalists proposed the name of Lala Lajpat Rai as
President of the Surat Session. The Early Nationalists
proposed the name of Rashbehari Ghosh
(b) The split in the Congress was unfortunate because it
gave an opportunity to the British to exploit the
situation to their advantage. They adopted a policy of
'concession and repression- concession for the Early
Nationalists as well as- the Muslims and repression to
the Assertive Nationalists.
(c) The Surat Split also weakened the national movement.
The Early Nationalists, however, were largely able to
capture the Congress organisation and in the Allahabad
convention, held in April 1908, the split was
formalised.
3. In the second phase of the national movement, there
emerged a new younger group of leaders within the
Congress who did not agree with the old leadership. In
this context, answer the following questions:
(a) Differentiate between the Early Nationalists and the
Assertive Nationalists in their objectives and
achievements, stating one objective and two achievements
of each wing of the Congress.
(b) Name the Assertive leader known as the forerunner of
Gandhiji. Why is the person known as the forerunner of
Gandhiji?
(c) Explain how the repressive policies of Lord Curzon
and influence of International events led to the
Assertive nationalism.
Ans- (a) Early Nationalists
Objectives
i . The Early Nationalists wanted to achieve
self-government and they strove for autonomy within the
Empire and not for absolute independence.
Assertive Nationalists
The Assertive Nationalists aimed at nothing short of
Swaraj as it existed in the United Kingdom.
Achievements
Early nationalists:-
Repeal of the Arms Act and Licence Act.
Spread of primary education among the masses.
Assertive Nationalists:-
They gave new slogans to the Indian nationalist
movement like 'non-cooperation, passive resistance, mass
agitation, and self-reliance'.
They spoke, wrote and edited newspapers in vernacular
languages and thus, succeeded in conveying their message
to a large number of people.
(b) Tilak was the forerunner of Mahatma_Gandhi in a
number of ways. First, Tilak's idea of Swaraj was akin
to Mahatma Gandhi's idea of complete independence.
Second, Tilak sought close contact with the masses as
Mahatma Gandhi did. Third, Tilak preached the idea of
Swadeshi, Boycott and Prohibition. These ideas were
preached and followed by Mahatma Gandhi later on.
Fourth, Tilak had to suffer several terms of
imprisonment for the sake of the country, an example
followed by Mahatma Gandhi and other nationalist
leaders.
(c) -(i) the Act of 1898 which made it an offence to
provoke people against the British; (ii) The Calcutta
Corporation Act (1899) which reduced the strength of
elected members from India, thereby giving the British a
majority; (iii) the Official Secrets Act; (iv) The
Indian Universities Act of 1904.
Assertive nationalism was inspired by the examples of
international events. For the first time, Japan, an
Asian country, defeated Russia. Italian forces were
defeated by the Abyssinians in Ethiopia.
4. With reference to the causes for the rise of
Assertive Nationalism in the Congre describe briefly:
(a) The true nature of the British rule.
(b) International events.
(c) Ill-treatment of Indians.
Ans- (a) The efforts made by the Early Nationalist
leaders through their writings, agitation and petitions
to the British government, exposed the true character of
the British rule in India. It was felt that the British
rule was responsible for the economic ruin of India and
her growing poverty.
(b) Assertive nationalism was inspired by the
examples of international events. For the first
time, Japan, an Asian country, defeated Russia.
Italian forces were defeated by the Abyssinians in
Ethiopia.
(c) Indians helped the British to develop their
colonies in other parts of the world. But
everywhere, especially in South Africa, Indians were
subjected to racial discrimination. They were denied
the right to vote and could not enter the hotels,
clubs, buses or railway coaches reserved for the
Whites. The discriminatory treatment meted out to
the Indians in British colonies was resented by the
Indians and led to the rise of Assertive
Nationalism.
5. Tilak said Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have
it'. In this context, describe:
(a) His political beliefs.
(b) Means he employed to arouse nationalistic passions.
(c) Ways in which he was the forerunner of Gandhi.
Ans- (a) i. Tilak was Ithe first to openly declare the
demand for Swaraj. "Swaraj is my birth right," he said,
"and I shall have it".
ii. He started two newspapers-Mahratia (English) and
Kesari (Marathi.
iii. Tilak set up a Home Rule League at Pune in 1916 to
attain self-government within the British Empire by
constitutional means.
(b) In 1893, Tilak started using the traditional
religious Ganapati festival to propagate nationalist
ideas through songs and speeches. In 1895 he glorified
Shivaji and started the Shivaji festival to encourage
young Maharashtrians. He started two newspapers-Mahratia
(English) and Kesari (Marathi).
(c) same as 3rd question part (b).
6. Bipin Chandra Pal was said to be "One of the
mightiest prophets of nationalism In this context:
(a) Mention his political aims.
(b) State his ideas on National Education.
(c) What remedies did he propose to cradicate India's
poverty and unemployment?
Ans- (a) He stressed the need to develop indigenous
industries in the country; he preached the use of
Swadeshi and the Boycott of foreign goods to eradicate
poverty and unemployment.
As a journalist he worked for Bengal Public Opinion, The
Tribune and New India to propagate his brand of
nationalism.
(b) Bipin Chandra wanted National Education to be the
basis of the freedom movement. It would arouse
nationalistic passions and become an effective
instrument of social progress.
(c) (i) To establish equality in society, he wanted to
tax the rich more heavily than the poor; (ii) He
demanded forty-eight hours of work in a week and an
increase in the wages. Bipin Chandra Pal died in 1932.
I. Picture Study
(A) (B)
(a) Identify the persons 'A' and B' given above. To
which section of the Congress did each belong and what
were their ultimate objectives?
(b) Highlight three different methods of struggle
adopted by cach section of the Congress.
(c) State the contribution of the person 'B' in the
freedom struggle.
Ans- (a) A.Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
A. Belonged to Early Nationalists
B. Belonged to Assertive Nationalists
Objectives
i . The Early Nationalists wanted to achieve
self-government and they strove for autonomy within
the Empire and not for absolute independence.
Assertive Nationalists
The Assertive Nationalists aimed at nothing short of
Swaraj as it existed in the United Kingdom.
(b) Methods of Early Nationalists
The Early Nationalists
relied on constitutional and peaceful methods and
avoided violence and confrontation. They made use of
three P's i.e., Petitions, Prayers and Protests to
achievo their objectives.
Methods of Assertive
Nationalists
iv) Passive Resistance (i)
Swadeshi; (ii) Boycott; (iii) National Education.
(c) He joined the Congress
in 1888 and remained its worker till the end of his
life. He joined the Assertive Nationalists in 1907.
He carried on agitation against the agrarian policy
of the British government. He was arrested and
deported along with Sardar Ajit Singh to Mandalay.
Lalaji supported workers' movements and in 1920
became the first president of the All India Trade
Union Congress.
In 1928 while leading a
procession at Lahore against the Simon Commission he
was injured in a lathi charge.
Class X HISTORY
Structured questions ( based on previous years book)
Ch-2
Structured questions
1. Various factors led to the rise
and growth of nationalism in India
in the 19th century In this context,
explain the role of each of the
following
(a) Socio-religious reform
movements.
(b) Repressive Colonial Policies.
(c) The Press.
Ans-(a) The socio-religious
reform movements of the 19th
century were great pioneers of
Indian nationalism. In the
social sphere, these movements
worked for the abolition of
caste system, child marriage,
dowry system, purdah system,
sati and infanticide. They
launched a crusade against
social and legal inequalities.
In the religious sphere these
reform movements combated
religious superstitions,
attacked idolatry, polytheism
and hereditary priesthood. These
movements fought for individual
liberty and social equality.
(b) (i) Lord Lytton introduced
the Vermacular Press Act (1878).
The Vernacular Press Act forbade
vernacular papers to publish any
material that might. excite
feelings of dissatisfaction
against the British Government.
This Act was not applicable to
English newspapers.
(ii) The Indian Arms Act of 1878
made it a criminal offence for
Indians to carry arms without
licence. This Act was not
applicable to the British.
(iii) The maximum age limit for
the Indian Civil Service
examination was reduced from 21
to 19 years, thus, making it
difficult for the Indians to
compete for it.
These repressive policies of the
British provided a stimulus to
political agitation and
quickened the pace of Indian
nationalism.
(c) (i) It was through the press
that the message of patriotism
and modern liberal ideals of
liberty, freedom, equality, home
rule and independence, spread
among the people.
(ii) The press carried on daily
criticism of the unjust policies
of the British Government in
India and exposed the true
nature of British rule in India.
(iii) It made possible the
exchange of views among
different social groups from
different parts of the country.
(iv) It made Indians aware of
what was happening in the world.
This awareness helped them to
understand the political and
social development of the
outside world.
2.With reference to Nationalism and
the birth of the Indian National
Congress, expla each of the
following
(a) Vernacular Press Act, 1878.
(b) State any two immediate
objectives of the Indian National
Congress.
(c) Role of Dadabhai Naoroji.
Ans- (a) Lord
Lytton introduced the Vermacular
Press Act (1878). The Vernacular
Press Act forbade vernacular papers
to publish any material that might.
excite feelings of dissatisfaction
against the British Government. This
Act was not applicable to English
newspapers.
(b) any two aims of the Indian
national Congress ( page 30)
(c) Dadabhai
Naoroji, the Grand Old Man of India,
was of the opinion that the British
were basically just and good. He
wanted to place the true state of
affairs the problems of the Indians
may be resolved. The association had
its branches in Mumbai, in India
before the people of England so that
Kolkata and Chennai.
3. The establishment of the Indian
National Congress was a significant
event in the development of national
movement in India. In this context:
(a) Mention the year when it was
established and its founder.
(b) Why did Lord Dufferin favour the
formation of the Indian National
Congress?
(c) Name any two associations which
acted as the forerunners of the
Indian National Congress.
(a) 1885 A.O. Hume
(b) The Viceroy, Lord Dufferin,
favoured the formation of the
Congress because he wanted it to act
as a 'safety-valve' for popular
discontent, thereby, safeguarding
the British interest in India.
(c) East India Association
The East India Aaaociation wan
founded in London in 1866 by
Dadabhai Naoroji.
The Indian Association was meant to
be an All-India Movement. It was
headed by Surendranath Banerjee.
III. Picture Study
(a) Identify the person in the given
picture name the organisation formed
by him.
(b) Mention his contribution to the
growth of Indian National movement.
(c) How did the socio-religious
reform movements of the 19th century
act as pioneers of Indian
Nationalism?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
Brahmo Samaj 1828.
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy inaugurated
the modern age in India. He was the
father of Indian Renaissance and the
prophet of Indian Nationalism.
Rammohan Roy was against the
rigidity of the caste system. He
started a campaign for the abolition
of sati and purdah system, condemned
polygamy, discouraged child
marriages and advocated the right of
widows to remarry. It was because of
the efforts made by Rammohan Roy
that, William Bentinck, the
Governor-General of India, passed a
law in 1829 making the practice of
Sati illegal and punishable by law.
(c) same as 1. Question it's (a)
part.
Ch-1
1.There were many causes for the uprising of 1857 In this
context, state the following
a) Policy of economic exploitation
b) Racial discrimination
(c) Social Causes
Ans- (a) Agricultural India was made an economic colony to serve the
interests of industrial England. India was forced to export,
at cheaper rates, raw materials like raw cotton and raw silk
that the British industries needed urgently; plantation
products (like indigo and tea); and food grains which were
in short supply in Britain.
(b) The British officers were rude and arrogant towards the Indians. They
believed that they were superior to Indians and followed a
policy of contempt towards the Indians. They dubbed the
Muslims as cruel and unfaithful. Some European officers
ill-treated and insulted Indians. Such acts of unjust
discrimination alienated the British from the Indian masses.
(c) 1.Interference with Social Customs:- reforms like the abolition of
Sati (1829), the introduction of the Widow Remarriage Act
(1856)-and the opening of Western education to girls were
not welcomed by the masses.
2. Apprehensions about Modern Innovations:- People were suspicious of
introduction of modern innovations like railways and
telegraphs. There were rumours that telegraph poles were
erected to hang those who were against the British
3. corruption in Administration:-The police and petty officials were
corrupt. The rich got away with crime but the common man was
looted, oppressed and tortured.
2. Economic exploitation of the country produced discontent, resentment
and resistance among the people that culminated in the Great
Uprising of 1857 Examine this factor with reference to the
following
(a) The ruin of trade and handicrafts
(b) Impoverishment of the cultivators
(c) Subordination of Indian economy to Britiah interests (Making India an
Agricultural Colony of British capitalism)
Ans- (a) Heavy duties on Indian silk and cotton teztiles in Britain
destroyed Indian industries. the other hand, British goods
were imported into India at a nominal duty. By the middle of
the 19th century, export of cotton and silk goods from India
practically ceased The art of spinning and weaving, which
for ages had given employment to thousands of artisans,
became extinct.
(b) it was the peasantry that bore the heavy burden of taxes to provide
money for the trade of the Company, for the cost of
administration and the wars of British expansion in India.
For example, in Bengal, the land revenue was double the
amount collected under the Mughals. Not even a part of this
revenue was spent on the development of agriculture or on
the welfare of the cultivator.
(c) the British deprived the artisans of their income and reduced the
avenues of employment for labour. On the other hand, export
raw materials and food grains deprived India of agricultural
surplus and raised the prices of raw materials. Thus,
the change in the nature of India's trade became an
instrument for exploiting India's resources.
3. The Great Outbreak of 1857 brought about important changes in the
character of Indian administration and the future
development of the country In this context discuss:
a. The changes introduced in the administrative set-up of the British
territories in India.
(b) The changes in the Army
Ans- (a) 1. End of the Company's Rule:
The most significant result of the uprising of 1857 was the end of the
rule of the East India Company and assumption of the
Government of India directly by the Crown/ This was done by
the Government of India Act of 1858 which had the following
provisions:
(i) It transferred the power govern India from the East India Company to
the British Crown.
ii) Now the power was to be exercised by the Secretary of State for
India, aided by a Council.
(iii) Secretary of State's salary and allowances were to be paid out of
the revenues of India.
(iv) Actual governance was to be carried on, as before, by the
Governor-General who was also given the title of Viceroy or
Crown's personal representative. Lord Canning was the first
Viceroy under this Act.
(v) Appointments to the civil service were to be made by open competition
under rules made by the Secretary of State.
(b) (i) The strength of European troops in India was increased The ratio
of European to Indian troops was fixed at 1:2 (Bengal army)
and 2:5 (Madras and Bombay armies).
(ii) European troops were kept in key geographical and military
positions.
(iii) The earlier policy of excluding Indians from the officer corps was
strictly maintained.
(iv) In order to discourage nationalism measures such as introduction of
caste and community in most regiments were taken
(v) Discrimination on the basis of caste, region and religion was
practised in the recruitment to the army.
4. Although the First War of Independence of 1857 failed it had important
consequences for India. In this context, answer the
following questions
(a) How did the uprising give rise to nationalism in India?
b) How did the end of the East India Company's rule bring in grave
economic perils in India?
(C) State how the British Government tried to pacify the feelings of
Indians with regard to:
i) their religious practices; (ii) the Princely States.
Ans- (a) The uprising of 1857 was the first struggle of the Indian people
for freedom from British imperialism. It paved the way for
the rise of the national movement. The sacrifices made by
revolutionaries like Rani Laxmi Bai, Nana Saheb and Mangal
Pandey served as a source of inspiration for the future
freedom fighters.
(b) (i) India was turned into a typical colonial economy, exporting raw
material and importing finished goods. (ii) The salary and
allowances of the Secretary of State and members of the
India Council, the civil servants and military officers were
a large drain on the country's resources.
(iii) Rural artisan industries such as handicrafts, spinning and weaving
collapsed.
(c) i. The proclamation promised -that the Government of India would– A
follow a policy of non-intervention in social of and
religious matters of Indians, treat all subjects-Indians and
Europeans- as equals.
ii. Some of the Indian princes had remained loyal to the British and had
helped them in suppressing the uprising. Their loyalty was
rewarded with the announcement that their right to adopt
heirs would be respected and the integrity of their
territories guaranteed against future annexation.
III. Picture Study the picture and answer the following questions
(a) Identify the person the picture and, name the proclamation
( b) Where and by whom was this proclamation made public?
(c) To whom was the control of governance of India transferred State any
three features of this proclamation.
(a) queen Victoria
It was the Queen Victoria' s proclamation.
(b) It was made public at Allahabad, on November 1, 1858, by Lord
Canning, the first Viceroy of India.
(c) the control of governance of India was transferred to the British
crown
Features:- (i) A follow a policy of non-intervention social and religious
matters of Indians;
(ii) treat all subjects-Indians and Europeans- as equals (education and
ability would be the basis of all appointments);
(iii) do its best to advance the industries in India.
Class
X Physics Chapter 7
Sound Exercise 7 (A) Sound
Q1. What are mechanical waves? Ans:- The waves which
require medium to transfer energy are called mechanical
waves.
Q2. Define the following terms in relation to
a wave:
Ans:- (a) Amplitude :The maximum displacement
of the particle of medium on either side of its mean
position is called the amplitude (a) of the wave. (b)
Frequency:The number of vibrations made by the particle of
the medium in one second is called the frequency (f)of
the waves. (c) Wavelength:The distance travelled by a
wave in one time period of vibration of the particle of
the medium is called wavelength. (d) Wavevelocity:The
distance travelled by the wave in one second is called the
wave velocity (V). Q3. Ans:- (1) Wavelength (2)
Frequency
Q4. Ans:- (1) Elasticity (2) Density
Q5. ns:- Lightwaves: Sound waves (1) They can
travel in vacuum. They cannot travel in vacuum. (2) These
are the electromagnetic waves. These are the mechanical
waves. Q6. Ans:- The return of a sound wave on
striking a surface such as wall, metal sheet etc.Back in the
same medium is called reflection of sound.The condition for
reflection of a sound wave is that the size of the
reflecting surface must be bigger than the wavelength of the
soundwave. Megaphone(or speaking tube) is the device in
which reflection of sound wave is used. Q7. Ans:- The
sound heard after reflection from a distant obstacle ( such
as a cliff,a hillside,wall of a building,edge of a
forest,etc.) after the original sound has ceased,is called
an echo. Conditions for echo are: (1) The minimum
distance between the source of sound and the reflector in
air must be 17 m. (2) The size of the reflector must be
large as compared to the wavelength of the sound wave.
Q8. Ans:- No,the man will not hear the echo as the
sensation of a sound persists in our ears for about 0.1
second after the exciting stimulus ceases to act. As t=2
d/v =2x12/340=24/340=0.07<0.1 second. Q9. Ans:- The
applications of the echo are : (1) In medical field,echo
method of ultrasonic waves is used for imaging the human
organs (such as liver,gall bladder,uterus,womb,etc.)This is
called ultrasonography. Similarly echo cardiography is
used to obtain the image of human heart. (2) Dolphins
detect their enemy and obstacle by emitting the ultrasonic
waves and hearing their echo. They use ultrasonic waves
for hunting their prey.
Q10. Ans:- The sound has
to travel from the source of sound to the reflector and back
from the reflector to the source of sound to hear an
echo.If d is the distance between the source and
reflector,then the total distance travelled is 2d and the
time taken can be taken as t. The speed of sound can be
calculated by using the relation speed= total distance
travelled/time taken. V=2 d/t Q11. Ans:- Bats
produce sound which get reflected back from an obstacle.By
hearing the echo,they come to know the location of the
obstacle and fly safely without colliding with it. By
hearing their echo and emitting the ultrasonic waves
dolphins detect their enemy and obstacle. They hunt
their prey by using ultrasonic waves. A fisher man sends
an ultrasonic pulse from a source and receive the pulse from
the fish. Hence fisherman use echoes to catch fishes.
Q12. Ans:- Bats are able to produce and detect the sound
of very high frequency upto about hundred KHz. While
flying the sound produced by bats gets reflected back from
an obstacle in front of it. They come to know even in the
dark where the obstacle are by hearing the echoes.Hence
without colliding with the obstacles,bats can fly safely.
Q13. Ans:- Sound ranging is the process of detecting
obstacles with the help of echoes.Animals like
bats,dolphin use sound ranging to detect their enemies.
Q14. Ans:- Ultrasonic waves are used for sound ranging.
These ultrasonic waves have a frequency more than 20,000
Hz.While the range of audibility of human ear is 20 Hz to
20,000 Hz. Q15. Ans:- SONAR stands for sound
navigation and ranging. From the ship,ultrasonic waves
are sent in sea water in all directions.After reflections
these waves are received back from an obstacle such as
iceberg,enemy submarine,sunken ship etc.This process is
called echo depth sounding. Q16. Ans:- In medical
field, echo method of ultrasonic waves is used for imaging
the human organs(such as liver,gall
bladder,uterus,womb,etc.)This is called
ultrasonography.Similarly,echo cardiography is used to
obtain the image of human heart.
Exercise 7 (B) Sound
Q1
Ans The periodic vibrations of a body in the
absence of any external force on it, are called the natural
vibrations. Example :When we strike the keys of a piano,
various strings are set in vibration each at its own natural
frequency because they are of different thickness and under
different tensions. Q2 Ans The natural frequency of
vibrations of a body occurs when a body capable of vibrating
with free vibrations. The natural frequency of a body
depends on the shape and size of the body. Q3 Ans fig
7.6 at page no. 157 A body can execute the natural
vibrations in vacuum. Q4 Ans The natural vibrations
of a body actually occur in vacuum because the presence of
medium around the body offers some resistance due to
which amplitude of vibrations continuously decreases. Q9
Ans By varying tension, we can get a note of desired
frequency. Q11 Ans In order to produce notes of
different frequencies, strings of different thickness are
provided on a stringed instrument. because natural
frequency of vibration of a stretched string is inversely
proportional to the radius of string. Q13 Ans The
surrounding medium offers resistance to the motion, so the
energy of vibrating body continuously decreases due to which
the amplitude of motion gradually decreases. Q14 Ans
The periodic vibrations of a body of decreasing amplitude in
presence of a resistive force are called the damped
vibrations. When a body is made to vibrate in a medium., the
amplitude of the vibrating body continuously decrease with
time and ultimately the body stops vibrating. Example:
When a slim branch of a tree is pulled and then released, it
makes the damped vibrations.
Q15 Ans (1) Damped
vibrations (2) A tuning fork when stroked on a rubber
pad, executes the damped vibrations in air. (3) The
amplitude of vibrations decreases due to the frictional
force. The energy of the vibrating body continuously
dissipates in doing work against the force of friction.
(4) After some time, when it has lost all its energy, it
stops vibrating. Q17 Ans fig. 7.7 at page no. 157
Q18 Ans The vibrations of a body which take place under
the influence of an external periodic force acting on it,
are called the forced vibrations. Example:In a guitar,
when an artist plays on its strings by his fingers, the
vibrations in them caused the forced vibrations in the
air enclosed in its hollow box. Q20 Ans Natural
vibrations 1.The frequency of vibrations remain
constant. 2.The amplitude of vibrations remain constant
with time. Forced vibrations 1.The frequency of
vibrations change with change in the frequency of the
applied force. 2.The amplitude of vibrations depend on
the frequency of the applied force Q21 Ans Resonance
is a special case of forced vibrations. When the frequency
of the externally applied periodic force on a body is
equal to its natural frequency , the body readily begins to
vibrate with an increased amplitude. This phenomenon is
known as resonance. Experiment:Mount two identical
tuning forks A and B of same frequency on two separate sound
boxes such that their open ends face each other as shown
in figure 7.8(from book). When the prong of one of the
tuning fork say A is stuck on a rubber pad, it starts
vibrating. On putting the tuning fork A on its sound box
, we find that the other tuning fork B also starts vibrating
and a loud sound is heard. This is due to
resonance,vibrations are produced in tuning fork B. Q22
Ans Resonance occurs only when the applied force causes
vibrations in the body and frequency of applied forces
is exactly equal to the natural frequency of the vibrating
body. Q24 Ans Forced vibrations 1.The amplitude
of vibration is small. 2.These vibrations last for a
very small time after the periodic force has ceased to act.
Resonant vibrations 1.The amplitude of vibration is
very large. 2.These vibrations last for a long time
after the periodic force has ceased to act. Q26 Ans
The vibrating tuning fork A produces the forced vibrations
in the air column of its sound box. These vibrations are
of large amplitude because of large surface area of air in
the sound box. They are communicated to the sound box of
the fork B. The air column of B starts vibrating with the
frequency of fork A. Since the frequency of these vibrations
same as the natural frequency of the fork B, fork B
picks up these vibrations and starts vibrating under
resonance. Q27 Ans The pendulum A is set into
vibration by displacing its Bob to one side, normal to the
length of the string xy. (1) The pendulum D also
starts vibrating initially with small amplitude and
ultimately it acquire the amplitude same as the pendulum
A initially had. When the amplitude of pendulum D becomes
maximum, the amplitude of pendulum A becomes minimum
(2) because of sharing of energy by them. There after
the amplitude of D decreases and that of A increases. The
vibrations of pendulum D are in phase with those of A.
The pendulums B and C also vibrate, but each of them vibrate
with a very small amplitude. (3) The pendulums B and
C remain in the state of forced vibrations while the
pendulum D comes in the state of resonance. Q28
Ans The phenomenon is resonance. The vibrating tuning fork
held just above the mouth of the tube A, produces forced
vibrations in the air column of tube A. A loud sound is
heard at a certain level of water. This happens when the
natural frequency of the air column becomes equal to the
frequency of the fork. Q30 Ans When soldiers march
in steps, each soldier exert a periodic force in the same
phase and therefore the bridge executes the forced
vibrations of frequency equal to the frequency of their
steps. Now if the frequency of the steps becomes equal to
the natural frequency of the bridge, the bridge will
vibrate with a large amplitude due to resonance and the
suspension bridge may collapse. Q31 Ans In guitar,
the sound box is so constructed that the column of air
inside it, has a natural frequency which is same as that
of string stretched on it, so that when the string is
made to vibrate, the air column inside the box is set into
forced vibrations, the frequency of which is same as
that of the string. Since sound box has large area, it
sets a large volume of air into vibrations, so due to
resonance, a loud sound is produced. Q32 Ans To tune
a radio receiver, we merely adjust the values of the
electronic components to produce vibrations of frequency
equal to that of radio waves which we want to receive. When
both the frequencies match, resonance occurs and only
the energy of signal of that particular frequency is
received from the waves present in the space, leaving the
signals of other frequencies which do not match with the
frequency of the receiver circuit.
Exercise 7 (c)
Q1 Ans The three characteristics of sound are:
(1) Loudness (2) Pitch (or Shrillness) (3) quality
(or timbre). Q5 Ans Diagram at page no. 166 (figure
7.18)
Q7 Ans This is because, sound board
provides a large area and forces a large volume of air to
vibrate and increases the sound energy reaching our
ears. Q8 Ans The intensity of a sound wave at a
point of the medium is the amount of sound energy
passing per second normally through an unit area at that
point. Its unit is watt per square metre (W m-2) .
Q9 Ans L=K log I 10 Where K is constant of
proportionality. Q10 Ans The loudness of a sound
depends on(1) the intensity I. e. the energy conveyed by the
sound wave near the eardrum of the listener and (2) the
sensitivity of the ears of the listener. Thus loudness
of sound of given intensity may differ from listener to
listener. Further two sounds of same intensity, but of
different frequencies may differ in loudness even to the
same listener because the sensitivity of ears of a person is
different for different frequencies. Thus for a sound wave
loudness has a subjective nature, I. e. It depends on the
listener, while intensity being a measurable quantity has an
objective nature.
Q11 Ans The three factors are:
(1)Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
(2)Loudness is inversely proportional to the square of
distance from the source. (3)Loudness depends on the
surface area of the vibrating body. Q12 Ans A large
vibrating area sends forth a greater amount of energy.
Hence, larger the surface area of the vibrating body,
louder is the sound heard For this reason, the bells of
a temple are big in size. Q15 Ans The disturbance
produced in the environment due to undesirable loud and
harsh sound of level above 120dB from various sources
such as loud speaker, siren, moving vehicles etc is called
noise pollution.
Q16 Ans Pitch of a note depends
on its frequency. Two notes sounded on the same instrument
with same amplitude, will differ in pitch when their
vibrations are of different frequencies. Q18 Ans The
characteristic by which two sounds of same loudness but of
different frequencies given by the same instrument is
distinguish by Pitch. Q19 Ans figure 7.19 at page
no. 169. Q20 Ans As water level in a bottle kept
under a water tap rises, the length of air column decreases,
so frequency of sound produced increases. Thus by hearing
the sound from distance, one can get the idea of water
level in a bottle. Q25 Ans Two sounds of same
loudness and same pitch produced by different instruments
differ because of their different wave forms. diagram
at page no. 170,fig.7.20 Q26 Ans As the guitars are
identical, they will have a similar Wave form and hence,the
similar quality. Q27 Ans Different instruments
produce different subsidiary notes. A note played on a piano
has a large number of subsidiary notes, while the same
note when played on a violin contains only a few
subsidiary notes. Thus two sounds produced by different
instruments can be distinguish by their wave forms.
Q28 Ans The quality or timbre is the characteristic of
sound which make it possible to recognise a person by his
voice without seeing him. Q34 Ans The wave form of
music is regular and wave form of noise is irregular.
Diagram at page no. 171,figure 7.22 Q35 Ans Musical
note 1.It is regular, smooth and pleasant to the ears.
Noise 1.It is harsh, discordant and unpleasant to
the ears. (Please learn and write on your copy).
STD
X CHAPTER CLIMATE
ANSWER KEY:
Ans 1: The Himalayas are called perfect climatic divide as
they divide both sides into two different climatic zones.
The two-fold functions of the Himalayas are:
[1] Himalayas act as shield to protect the subcontinent from
the bitter cold winds of central asia.
[2] They also act as a barrier from the rain-bearing winds.
Ans 2:The hill station in the south are closer towards the
equator, hence the temperature even if they 0 degree Celsius
do not experience snowfall.
Ans 3: [1] Because Tamil nadu lies in the rain shadow area
of western ghats receiving very little rainfall
[2]Northern plains of India are away from the moderating
influence of sea.
[3]because central Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow area
of western ghats.
[4]Because of vast latitudinal extent and varied topography.
[5]Because temperature decreases with increases in altitude
and air becomes thin.
[6]Because they blow from land to sea.
Ans 4:The important features of Indian monsoon are [any
three]
a-The rain is unevenly distributed.
b-It is erratic and unpredictable.
c- It is orographic in nature
d- It is seasonal mostly coming in rainy season
Ans 5: The main features of advancing monsoon are:
[1]DURATION- These prevail during the month of june, july,
august and September.
[2] PRESSURE CONDITION-The low pressure prevails over the
north- western plains . The ocean,on the other hand has high
pressure.
[3]PREVAILING WINDS- The southeast trade winds prevail
during ths season.
[4]RAINFALL- North-eastern states receives heavy rainfall.
Ans 6: The main features of cold season are:
DURATION- December, January and February
PRESSURE CONDITION – High pressure prevails over northern
plains
PREVAILING WINDS-During this season northeast trade winds
prevails
RAINFALL- The rainfall mainly occurs in south eastern coast
and north- western part of the country.
Ans7 :Rain shadow area is an area sheltered by the hill from
the prevailing winds and having a lighter rainfall than the
windward side of the hills
Example bangaluru and shillong
Ans 8: Loo, landbreeze, seabreeze and kal baisakhi are the
name of four local winds
Ans 9[1]The range of temperature of station A is 5.6
Because the station is near the sea.
[2]Station A because of high altitude
[3]The annual rainfall of stationB is 31.8cm
[4]The station A
wettest-August and Driest station –January and Febraury
Station B
Wettest-August And Driest –Feb ,March Dec
[5] The Hottest month of station B is May.
[6] The annual rainfall is 131. 5 cm and the average
rainfall is 10.95 cm.
[7]Station A have
maritime climate.
[8]The station A lies in the southern hemisphere.
[10] These occur
in the south india during april and may. They bring little
rain which is important for mango, tea,and coffee plant
.Hence the name called mango shower.The two features are ;
1 The range of temperature is very high in the interior .
2 Thunderstorm accompanied by dusty winds
are common
[11].In the north –west part of india winter rainfall is
bought by’ western disturbance’which originate in the
Mediterranean sea . The coastal area of eastern india get
rainfall from trade winds which picks moisture from the bay
of Bengal
[12] [1]
Punjab and jammu Kashmir .
[2]western disturbances originating over the Mediterranean
sea.
[13] [1] The
major portion of Indian sub continent gets its rainfall from
the south west
monsoon
[2] June ,july
[14].Rajasthan has a very high temperature due to features
like sandy soil and lack of cloud cover whereas panjim is in
coastal region ,and due to moderating influence of the sea,
has lower temperature.
[15] cherrapunji lies on the football of khalsi hills in
Meghalaya .These are funnel shaped hills.When the moisture
laiden monsoon winds enter into these hills they
are trapped in these hills ,causing heay rainfall
Shillong on the other hand,lies in rain shadow area of the
khasi hills and gets less rainfall.
History&Civics Class X The Muslim League
EXERCISES l. Short Answer Questions
I.
Name the founder of the M.A.O. College at Aligarh.
Ans. Sir Sayyid Ahmad
Khan was the founder of the M.A.O. College atAligarh.
2. Name the Viceroy who
was responsible in 1909 for granting separate electorates on
the basis of communal representation.
Ans. Lord Minto, the
Viceroy, was responsible for granting separate
representation to the Muslims in 1909.
3. Why did the British
treat the Muslims harshly immediately after the uprising of
1857?
Ans . The British
treated the Muslims harshly and immediately after the
uprising of 1857 because they held them guilty of Revolt of
1857.
4. Why did
the British attitude towards the Muslims change in the later
part of the 19th century?
Ans. The
Congress, which started as an All-India Organisation to
create a broad based freedom struggle, twined into a major
force in the struggle for independence. Thus, the British
tried to appease Muslims in order to counter Congress. They
began to follow the policy of Divide and Rule to sustain
their rule in India.
5. How did
the Hindi-Urdu controversy become an important factor in the
formation of the Muslim League ?
Ans. The
Hindi-Urdu Controversy : The controversy relating to use of
Hindi as a court language in the United Provinces also
widened the gap between the Hindus and the Muslims.
6. How did the relative
economic backwardness of the Muslims foster communal
feelings in India?
Ans.
General economic backwardness of the country led to
intense competition for jobs. While, far-sighted Indians
knew that only independence could liberate them from
economic ailments.
However, others talked
of reservation of jobs for various communities or castes,
creed or religion. The British used this Opportunity to push
further their policy of divide and rule.
question 7 : what is
meant by separate( communal ) electorates?
Answer: the system of
election to legislatures which divides voters on the basis
of caste, religion and occupation. Under morley minto
reforms 1909 mnuslims were given separate electorate and
whereby seats were reserved for the muslims could vote for
the muslim candidate.
Question 8.what was
lucknow pact?
Answer : the joint
scheme of political reforms agreed to by the congress and
muslim league in 1916 is known as lucknow pact.
9. What
promises were made by Lord Minto to the deputation. which
met him in 1906 under the leadership of Agha Khan?
Answer:
Lord Minto
committed himself to give separate electorates to
Muslims and to safeguard their political rights and
interests; this was done by Lord Minto to the deputation
which met him in 1906 under the leadership of Agha Khan.
question10: With what
aim did the British imperialists encourage the formation of
the Muslim League?
Answer: The British
imperialists encourage the foundation of the Muslim League
because they thought that it would keep the Muslims away
from the Congress.
ll.
Structured Questions I. The reasons for the formation of the
Muslim League were many. In this context explain: (a) Any
three factors that led to the formation of the Muslim League
in India. (b) Any three demands made by the Muslim
Deputation in 1906 to the Viceroy Lord Minto. (c) What were
the aims and objectives of the Muslim League ?
Answer:
(a) (1') Loss of Sovereignty by Mughal Rulers : The
British established their supremacy in India after
dethroning the Mughal rulers who were the followers of
Islam. Therefore the Muslims became bitter enemies of the
British. The British Government consciously discriminated
against the Muslims holding them responsible for the
uprising of 1857. However the British sowed the seeds of
dissensions between the two communities.
(ii)
British Policy of Divide and Rule : To check the growth of a
United National feelings in India and to encourage communal
and separatist tendencies in Indian politics they decided to
follow the policy of Divide and Rule. To make this policy
successful they tried to spread communal hatred through the
press, posters, literature and public platform.
(iii) Rise
of Radical Nationalism : Some of the actions of the Radical
Nationalists marked a step back in respect of the growth of
National Unity. For example, the propagation of Shivaji and
Ganpati festivals by Tilak, Aurobindo Ghosh’s concept of
India as mother and nationalism as religion and initiation
of the Anti-Partition agitation with the dips in Ganga did
not appeal to the Muslims.
(b) (1')
Representation of the Muslims in elected bodies on the basis
of their political importance and not in their numerical
strength.
(ii)
Reservation of seats for Muslims in the State Services.
(iii) More state and for promoting new Muslim Universities,
(iv) Separate electoral constituencies for the Muslims. '
(c) Aims and objective of the Muslim league were laid down
as under: (1’) To promote, among the Muslims, support for
the British Government and to remove any misconceptions
regarding the intention of the Government in relation to
Indian Muslims. -.
(ii) To
protect and advance the political rights and interests of
the Muslims and to represent their needs and aspirations to
the government in mild and moderate language.
(iii) To
prevent the rise of feelings of hostility between the
Muslims of
India and other communities.
2. The
growth of communalism in India was encouraged by the British
authorities as well as certain trends in Indian society. In
the light of this observation, explain :
(a) The
Divide and Rule Policy of the British. (b) The writings and
speeches of the Assertive Nationalists. (c) The erroneous
interpretation of Indian History.
Ans. (a)
The Divide and Rule Policy of the British : During the
Revolt of 1857, Hindus and Muslims had fought shoulder to
shoulder against the British. The British rulers believed
that the revolt was inspired by Muslims who wanted to revive
the Mughal empire. Thus, British suppressed Muslims by
denying them recruitment in the civilian offices and army.
After 1870, British changed their attitude towards Muslims,
when Congress gained force.
Henceforth,
they started the policy of Divide and Rule with a twin aim
to keep Muslims aloof from the Congress and to sustain their
own rule in India. Britishers took upon themselves the role
of the champions of the Muslims cause. Thus, more and more
Muslim young men looked to the British for the protection of
their interests against the Hindu majority. Consequently, it
paved the way for All India Muslim League to counter Hindu
majority Congress.
(b) The
writings and speeches of the Assertive Nationalists. When
the Indian youth saw that the strategy of making public
speeches, holding processions and agitations had noeffect on
the English, out of desperation they took to terrorism. They
took the path of show and shell. The Partition of Bengal and
the atrocities committed by the Government on the
anti-partition agitations further added fuel to the fire.
The terrorists remained more active from 1907 to 1914,
though their movement continued till the independence of the
country. Militant Nationalists ignored the achievements of
Akbar and Sher Shah Suri while singing the praise of Shivaji
and Rana Partap.
(c) The
manner in which Indian History was interpreted in those days
contributed to the growth of communal thinking among the
Hindus and the Muslims.
(i) Some
British and communal Historians divided Indian history into
the Hindu and the Muslim periods. The rule of Turks, Afghans
and Mughals was called the Muslim rule, where the rulers
were said to be the followers of Islam and their
subjects,
the followers of other religions. In the so-called Hindu
period, Muslim rulers were dubbed as foreign invaders who
had settled in India. They portrayed Rana Pratap and Shivaji
as national heroes and Akbar and Aurangzeb as foreigners and
infused communal feelings.
(ii) The
British and communal Historians ignored the notion of a
composite culture in India and tried to create a rift
between the two communities. They failed to interpret that
the diversity was primarily class-wise and region-wise and
not religion-wise.
(iii) Some
communal Historians highlighted the myth the Indian society
and culture had reached great heights during the ancient
period but was declining during the medieval period which
was dominated by Mughal rulers. They did not give much
importance to the contribution of the medieval period to the
development of Indian economy, religion, art, literature,
culture and society.
(iv) The
communal bias was propagated through poetry, drama, novels,
short stories, newspapers, etc.
Structured
question 3
Answer:
Ans. (3)
(b) The greatest achievement of
the World War I period was the Lucknow Pact between the
Congress and the Muslim League. Following factors can be
attributed for the pact :
-
New
Objectives of the Muslim League. Initially the league
aimed at promoting loyalty towards the British. But, in
1913, it amended its constitution, and agreed with
Congress on the goal of self-government.
-
International
Events. International Events also distanced the League
from the Government. In the First World War, Turkey had
to fight against Great Britain. The Turkish ruler was a
Caliph or religious head of the Muslims. Therefore,
Muslims all over the World made a common cause for
encouraging Anti-British feelings.
-
A Compromise
between the two factions of the Congress. Mrs. Annie
Besant made efforts to reunite the two wings of Congress
viz. the Early Nationalists and the Aggressive
Nationalists. Thus, Tilak and his followers rejoined the
Congress in 1914.
-
Efforts to bring
settlement between the Congress and the Muslims League.
By 1913, the League had become more liberal under the
leadership of Abul Kalam Azad and Muhammad Ali, who
favoured cooperation with the Congress. This change was
further accelerated by leaders like-Dr. Ansari, Maulana
Shibli and others.
-
Lucknow Session of
1916. In December 1916, the Congress and the League held
their session at Lucknow. The significance of the
Lucknow session was that a joint scheme of Reforms later
known as the Lucknow Pact, was formally adopted at
Lucknow.
B.
The main features of the Lucknow Pact were as follows:
-
Four-fifths of the
members of the Provincial legislatures were to be
elected and one-fifth nominated. The Proportion of
Muslim members in the provinces was large like 50% in
Punjab and 40% in Bengal.
-
The Imperial
Legislative Council should consist of 150 members. Out
of these, four-fifths to be elected and l/Sth nominated.
-
Making of war and
peace treaty were excluded from the control of the
Imperial Legislature.
-
Half of the
members of the Viceroy's Executive Council should be
Indians, elected by the elected members of the Imperial
Legislative Council.
-
Provinces
should be given a large measure of autonomy in their
respective spheres.
-
No
Legislative Council, Imperial or Provincial shall
proceed with a bill concerning any community if 3/4th of
the members of that community opposed it on the ground
that it would adversely affect their interests.
-
The
Council of the Secretary of State for India operating
from England, should be abolished.
-
Executive officers
should have no judicial powers entrusted to them.
C.
The Lucknow Pact, although kept alive the system of
separate electorates, yet it has been praised on account of
the given reasons.
-
It
Paved the Way for Hindu-Muslim Unity. The Hindu-Muslim
co-operation and unity continued throughout the years
from 1914-1922. Tilak, who played an important role in
it, realised that the success of the National Movement
depended on Hindu-Muslim unity.
-
Hindu-Muslim Unity
Demoralised the Government. Until now, the Government
had been repressing nationalist movements by violent
means. The Government had no excuse for denying
po1itica1 or constitutional means.
-
Gradual
development of seIf-governing institutions. The
Government was forced to adopt a policy of appeasement
towards the nationalists. Hence, in the Declaration of
August 20, 1917, it made clear that their policy in
India was gradual development of self-governing
institutions. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms were
announced in July 1918 to fulfil this aim.
CLASS
10 BIOLOGY
Ch-Transpiration
Ex.D. DESCRIPTIVE TYPE
1. Define the following terms
(a)Transpiration:-It is the loss of water in the form of
water vapour from the leaves and other aerial parts of the
plant.
(b) Exudation-:It is the oozing out of the substances from
the sports of injured plant tissues.
(c)Potometer-:It is a device that measures rate of water
intake by a plant and this water intake is almost equal to
the water lost through transpiration.
(d)Wilting-:It is the dropping down of leaves due to
shortage of water in the plant leaves.
(e)Hydathodes-:These are the special pore bearing structures
present on the margins of the leaf.
(f)Cuticle-: It is the outer surface of the leaves and
stems.
2 Distinguish between the following pairs-:
(a)Stomata and lenticels
STOMATA-: These are the pores present on the leaves.
LENTICELS-: These are the minute of names on the surface of
old stems.
(b)Guttation and Bleeding
Guttation-: The leaves of certain plants exhibit droplets of
water along the margins in the morning.This is called
Guttation.
Bleeding:-the oozing out of plant sap from the ruptured or
cut surface of a plant is called bleeding.
(C) Transpiration and evaporation
Plz write it from the book.
Note: Remaining 3rd,4th,5th, 6th question of this
exercise are already sent
E. STRUCTURED APPLICATION AND SKILL TYPE
1. LeafD because no grease is applied on any surface of the
leaf so evaporation of water takes place from the leafand it
dries first.
2.Leaf A dries last because Greece is applied on both its
surfaces soevaporation of water takes place at a very slow
rate or may be not.
(Note-;Question number 2 and 3 are already sent)
2.Leaf A dries last because Greece is applied on both its
surfaces so evaporation of water takes place at a very slow
rate or may be not.
(Note-;Question number 2 and 3 are already sent)
4.(1) Transpiration:- (Definition is already written.)
(2) Importance of Transpiration To Plants:
(1) Cooling effect.
(2) Suction force
(3) Distribution of water nd mineral salts.
(You can explain these points according to the marks.)
(3) water is absorbed by the roots nd then it is transported
to stem part of plant through xylem tissue
(4)Fig. 5.6.(it is given in the the book under the topic
mechanism of stomatal transpiration)
ClassX GEOGRAPHY
TEST PAPER CHAPTER CLIMATE
NOTE-Solve this question paper in your copy.
Q 1-Why are the Himalayas called a perfect climatic
divide. Give two
reasons.
Q2-Hill station in the south never experience snowfall even
when temperature fall to 0 degree celsius
Q3-Give reasons for the following .
[1] When the Malabar coast is receiving heavy rainfall in
july , the Tamil nadu coast is comparatively dry.
[2] The northern plains of india have a continental type of
climate.
[3] Central Maharashtra receive little rainfall.
[4] India has a varied climatic conditions.
[5] It is cooler on the mountain slope than in the plains
during summer.
[6] The north east monsoon bring almost no rain to most of
india.
Q 4-Name two important features of Indian monsoon.
Q 5-Describe the main feature of advancing monsoon under the
following:
[1] Duration .
[2] Pressure condition.
[3] Prevailing wind.
[4] Rainfall.
Q6-Describe the main feature of cold season under the
following heads:
[1] Duration.
[2] Pressure conditions
[3] Prevailing winds
[4] Rainfall
Q7-What is meant by rain shadow area? Give two eg.
Q8-Name any four local winds which blow in india?
Q9- Study the climatic data provided below and answer the
question that follow:
MONTH
|
|
JAN
|
FEB
|
MAR
|
APR
|
MAY
|
JUNE
|
JULY
|
AUG
|
SEP
|
OCT
|
NOV
|
DEC
|
STATION
A
|
TEMP.
DEGREE
CELSIUS
|
24.4
|
25.4
|
26.7
|
29.3
|
30.0
|
29.9
|
29.8
|
27.8
|
26.9
|
26.3
|
25.1
|
24.8
|
RAINFALL[cms]
|
0.1
|
0.1
|
0.5
|
0.6
|
3.8
|
26.6
|
29.6
|
30.5
|
26.5
|
11.19
|
1.1
|
0.2
|
STATION
B
|
TEMP.
DEGREE
CELSIUS
|
8.1
|
8.9
|
15.6
|
20.1
|
25.2
|
24.3
|
24.1
|
22.7
|
20.6
|
18.4
|
14.1
|
9.6
|
RAINFALL[cms]
|
0.4
|
0.3
|
0.3
|
1.1
|
1.3
|
3.2
|
7.7
|
10.3
|
5.8
|
0.7
|
0.4
|
0.3
|
1 Calculate the annual range of temperature of station
A.Give reason why the range is small one.
temperature ?Why?
3.Calculate the annual rainfall of station B .
4.Name the wettest and the driest month of station A and B.
5.Which is the hottest month of station B.
6.Calculate the annual and average annual rainfall of
station A.
7.Does the station A
have maritime or continental climate.
8.In which hemisphere do you think station A lies.
Q 10-Define mango showers. Write two features.
Q 11-How are the sources of rainfall in northern part of
India different from the rainfall experienced on the coastal
areas of eastern India in winter ?
Q 12-[1] Name any two states that receive rain in January
and February.
[2] what causes this rain ?
Q 13.[1] Which
winds are responsible for rainfall experienced over greater
part of India?
[2]During which months of the year is this rainfall
experienced ?
Q14 Why is the diurnal range of temperature during summer,
greater at Bikaner (Rajasthan) than at panjim (Goa)?
Q 15-Shillong gets less than 200 cm of rainfall in the
year while
Cherrapunji receive more than 1250 cm of rainfall.
Class- X
Physics
Chapter
3 Machines
Exercise
3 A
Q1.
Ans(a) A machine is a device by
which we can either overcome a large resistive force (or
load) at some point by applying a small force (or effort) at
a convenient point and in a desired direction or by which we
can obtain a gain in speed.
(b) A machine whose parts are
weightless and frictionless so that no loss of energy in any
manner.
The work output is equal to the
work input i.e.effciency of an ideal machine is 100%.
Q2.
Ans:-
Machines are useful to us in
(1) Lifting a heavy load by
applying the less effort,i.e.as a force multiplier.
(2) In changing the point of
application of effort to a convenient point.
(3) Changing the direction of
effort to a convenient direction.
(4) For obtaining a gain in
speed.
Q3.
Ans(a) A
jack is used to lift a car.
(b) A cycle's wheel is rotated
with the help of a chain by applying the force on the pedal.
(c) To lift a bucket full of
water from the well, a single fixed pulley is used by
applying the effort in the downward direction.
(d) When a pair of scissors is
used to cut the cloth,its blades move longer on cloth,while
its handles
move a little.
Q4.
Ans:- In lifting a car,the
purpose of jack is to make the effort less than load so that
it works as a force multiplier.
Q5.
Ans:- A machine whose parts are
fricitionless and weightless so that which there is no loss
of energy in
any manner. The work output is
equal to the work input i.e.the efficiency is 100%.
Ideal machine practical machine
1.No loss of energy due to
friction. 1.Some loss of energy due to friction.
2.Work output is equal to the
work input. 2.Work output is always less than work input.
3.Efficiency is 100%.
3.Efficiency is less than 100%.
Q6.
Ans:-
The ratio of the load to the effort is called the mechanical
advantage since mechanical advantage is
the
ratio of two similar quantities,so it has no unit.
Q7.
Ans:- The ratio of the velocity
of effort to the velocity of load is called velocity
ratio.Since the velocity ratio is also the ratio of two
similar quantities so it has no unit.
Q8.
Ans:- (1) M.A.=V.R.(ii) M.A.<V.R.
Q9.
Ans:- Efficiency of a machine is
the ratio of the work done on the load by the machine to the
work done on
the machine by the effort.
Or
Efficiency is the ratio of the
work output to the work input.
There is some loss of energy due
to fricition and weight of the moving parts of a machine so
the
work output is always less than
work input for a practical machine.
Q10.
Ans:- (1) For a machine used as a
force multiplier ,effort < load.
(2) For a machine used to obtain
gain in speed effort > load so a machine cannot act as a
force
multiplier and speed multiplier
simultaneously.
Q11.
Ans:- (1) More than 1, (2) Less
than 1 .
Q12. (a)The relationship between
mechanical advantage, veloctiy ratio and efficiency is
M.A.=V.R.Xn (eta).
(b) Velocity ratio will not
change for a machine of a given design.
Q13.
Ans:- Let a machine overcomes a
load L by the application of an effort E, in time t.The
displacement
of effort dE and the displacement
of load is dl.
Work input=ExdE.............(1)
work output = LxdL..........(2)
By definition Efficiency=work
output/work input
From eqns.(1) and (ii)
Efficiency = LxdL/ExdE=L/ExdL/dE
But L/E=M.A,dL/dE=1/V.R.
Therefore efficiency=M.A./V.R
Or M.A.=V.R.xn (eta)
Q14.
Ans:-
M.A.<V.R.,Less than 1.
Q15.
Ans:- In actual
machine,mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio due
to some loss of input energy against the force of friction.
Q16.
Ans:- A lever is a rigid straight
(or bent) bar which is capable of turning about a fixed
axis.
Principle:-A lever works on the
principle of moments according to which in the equilibrium
position
moment of load about the fulcrum
must be equal to the moment of effort about the fulcrum and
the
two moments must always be in
opposite direction.
Q17.
Ans:- The expression of the
mechanical advantage of a lever is M.A.=Effortarm/Load arm .
Q18.
Ans:- The following are the three
classes of levers.
(1) Class 1 lever:- In this type
of levers, the fulcrum F is in between the effort E and the
load L
Examples:- A seesaw,a pair of
scissors, crowbar,handle of water pump,claw hammer etc.
(2) Class II lever:- In this type
of levers, the load L is in between the fulcrum F and
the
effort E.The effort arm is always longer than the load arm.
Example:-A nut cracker,a bottle
opener,a wheel barrow,a lemon crusher, a paper cutter & a
door.
(3) Class III lever:- In this
type of levers, the effort E is in between the fulcrum F and
the
load L.Thus the effort arm is
always smaller than the load arm.
Example:-Sugar tongs,fire
tongs,foot treadle,knife and fishing rod.
Figure 3.1 at page no.51
Q19.
Ans:-
(1) For mechanical advantage more than one, shears used for
cutting the thin metal sheet.
(2) For mechanical advantage less
than one, a pair of scissors is used to cut the cloth.
Q20.
Ans:- (1)For mechanical advantage
more than one lever act as force mupltiplier.
(2)For mechanical advantage equal
to one, the lever has effort arm and load arm of equal
lengths.
(3)For mechanical advantage less
than one,the levers are used to obtain the gain in speed.
Q21.
Ans:- A pair of scissors and a
pair of pliers belong to class 1 lever.
A pair of scissors has the
mechanical advantage less than 1.
Q22.
Ans:- A
pair of scissors which is used to cut a piece of cloth has
blades longer than the handles so that
the blades move longer on the
cloth when the handles are moved a little.
Shears are used for cutting thin
metal sheet have short blades and long handles because it
enables
us to overcome large resistive
force by small effort.
Q23.
Ans:- Given at page no.57 (book)
Q24.
Ans:- The mechanical advantage of
class II lever is always more than 1.
Example:-A nut cracker.
We can increase the length of
effort arm in this lever to increase its mechanical
advantage.
Q25.
Ans:-
Diagram:-From the book at page no.51 figure 3.1 (b).
In this type of lever effort arm
longer than the load arm.
Q26.
Ans:- In class II levers,the load
L is in between the effort E and fulcrum F.So, the effort
arm is always
greater than the load arm.Hence
M.A.>1.
Q27.
Ans:- Figure 3.1 (b) at page no
51
Example:-A bottle opener.
Q28.
Ans:- (a) Same as figure 3.4 (b)
nut cracker.
(b) Class II lever.
Q29.
Ans:- (a) Figure 3.4 (c) bar to
lift load at page no.53.
(b) Class II lever
(c) A wheel barrow.
Q30.
Ans:-
Class III lever has mechanical advantage always less than
one.Draw figure 3.1 (c) at page no.51.
Q31.
Ans:- In class III lever the
effort E is in between the load L and fulcrum F.So the
effort arm is always
smaller than the load
arm.Hence,M.A.<.
Q32.
Ans:- They are used to gain in
speed i.e.a larger displacement of load is obtained by a
smaller displacement of effort.
Q33.
Ans:- Figure 3.1 (c) at page no
51.
Example:- A knife.
Q34.
Ans:- (a) A bottle opener is a
class II lever as load L is in between the efffort E and
fulcrum F.
(b) Sugar tong is a class III
lever as effort E is in betweeen the load L and fulcrum F.
Q35.
Ans:- Figure from book.
Q36. From book.
Ans:-
Q37. (a)
Raising a load on the palm is a class III lever.
(b) Raising the weight of body on
toes is class II lever.
Q38.
Ans:- Figure 3.9 at page no 55.
Class III lever.
Q39.
Ans:-
Examples of each class of levers as found in the human body
are:
(a) Class I lever in the action
of nodding of head:
Figure 3.7 from book.
In this action,the spine acts as
the fulcrum F,load L is at its front part,while effort E is
at its
rear part.
(b) Class II lever in raising the
weight of the body on toes:
Figure 3.8 from book.
In this,the fulcrum F is at toes
at one end,the load L is in the middle and effort E by
muscles is
at other end.
(c) Class III lever in raising
the load by forearm:
Figure 3.9 from book.
In this action of biceps,the
elbow joint act as fulcrum F at one end,biceps exerts the
effort E
in the middle and load L on the
palm is at the other end.
Part 3
(B)
Q1.
Ans:-
Fixed pulley is a pulley which has its axis of rotain
unchanged is called a fixed pulley. This type
of
pulley is used for lifting a small load such as a water
bucket .
Q2.
Ans:- The M.A.of a single fixed
pulley is 1.No,it cannot be used as a force multiplier.
Q3.
Ans:- In single fixed pulley
there is no gain in M.A.
A single fixed pulley is used
only to change the direction of effort to be applied
i.e.with its
use effort can be applied in more
convenient direction.
Q4.
Ans:- The velocity ratio of a
single fixed pulley is 1.
Q5.
Ans:- The load rises with the
distance x upward.
Q6.
Ans:- A single pulley whose axis
of rotation movable is called a single movable pulley.The
M.A.of single movable is 2.
Q7.
Ans:-
The single movable pulley has M.A.equal to 2.Diagram from
book page no .51 (figure 3.22).
Q8.
Ans:- The efficiency of a single
movable pulley is not 100% due to following reasons.
(1) The friction of the pulley
bearing is not zero.
(2) The weight of the pulley and
string is not zero.
Q9.
Ans:- The force need to be
applied in upward direction.
By using a single movable pulley
along with a fixed pulley the direction of applied force can
be
changed without altering its M.A.
Diagram from book page no 62
(figure 3.23)
Q10.
Ans:- The velocity ratio of a
single movable pulley is 2.The friction in the pulley
bearing has no effect.
Q11.
Ans:- The load is raised to a
height of x/2.
Q12.
Ans:- Diagram from book page no
62 (figure 3.23)
The ideal M.A.of the system is
2.It can be achieved by assuming that string and pulley are
weightless
and there is no friction in the
pulley bearing between the string and surface of the rim of
the pulley.
Q13.
Ans:- (c) The purpose of fixed
pulley B is to change the direction of effort to be applied
from upward
to downward.
Q14.
Ans:-
Single fixed pulley single movable pulley
(1) It is fixed to a rigid
support. It is not fixed to a rigid support.
(2) Its mechanical advantage is
1. Its mechanical advantage is 2.
(3) Its velocity ratio is 1 Its
velocity ratio is 2.
(4) It is used to change the
direction It is used as a force multiplier.
of effort from upwards to
downwards.
Q16.
Ans:- Diagram at page no 62
figure 3.24 .
Q17.
Ans:- Diagram at page no 64
figure 3.25 .
Q18.
Ans:- (a) Some effort is wasted
in a single fixed pulley in overcoming friction between the
strings and
the grooved rim of the pulley.So
the effort needed is greaterthan the load and the velocity
ratio
is always more than mechanical
advantage.
(b) The efficiency of a movable
pulley is always lessthan 100% because some efforts is
wasted in
overcoming the friction between
the strings and the groves of the pulley.
(c) The mechanical advantage
increases with increase in the number of pulleys because
mechanical advantage is equal to the total number of pulley
in both the blocks.
(d) The efficiency depends upon
the weight of lower block,hence efficiency reduced due to
the weight of the lower block of pulleys.More the weight of
the lower block,less is the efficiency
Class 10thBiology Ch-Circulatory System
Exercise a multiple choice type
1(a)
2(b)
3(d)
4(c)
5(b)
6(b)
7(d)
8(c)
B(1)Very Short Answer Type
(a) clotting of blood
(b) phagocytosis
(c) transportation of gases
(d) production of antibodies
(e) formation of blood cells
(2) Name the following:
(a) erythrocytes/RBC'S
(b) thrombocytes/blood platelets
(3) Name the following:
(a) portal vein
(b) capillaries
(c) pulmonary artery
(d) leukocytes/WBCS
(e) venules
(f) portal vein
(g) atrial systole
(h) tricuspid valve
(i) atrial systole
(j) pericardial fluid
(4) Filling the blanks:
(a) hepatic portal vein
(b) artery
(c) semilunar valve
(d) heparin
(5) Relationship between the words:
(a) semilunar valve
(b) liver
(6) A mature mammalian erythrocyte lacks nucleus so that it can absorb
more Oxygen and its is not having mitochondria
so that the RBC cannot use oxygen for themselves
thus all the oxygen can be transported to the
tissue.
C. Short answer type
1 a). White blood cells are amoeboid
in shape while red blood cells have minute disc like biconcave shape.
b)White blood cells have nucleus while mature red blood cells have no
nucleus.
c)White blood cells do not contain any pigment while red blood cells
contain red colour pigment hemoglobin.
2.It
is necessary to know the blood groups before
giving transfusion because if the blood groups
of recipient and donor they are not matched
during transfusion then the blood of the
recipient will consider blood of the donor as a
foreign substance. Then the antigens of the
donated blood may get attacked by the antibody
of the recipient blood and causing the blood
cells to clamp together which results in lethal
reaction.
3(a) lymphocytes (WBCS) and microorganisms.
(b) The plasma from which the protein fibrinogen has been removed is
called serum.
vaccines are weakened germs or germ substances which stimulates the
formation of antibodies giving immunity against
a disease.
c) Transportation of Oxygen and defence mechanism of body.
d)Tricuspid valve is located at the aperture between the right auricle
and the right ventricle while bicuspid valve is
located at the aperture between left auricle and
left ventricle.
4)The sound "LUBB" is produced when the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are
closed at the start of ventricular systole and
the sound "DUP"is produced when the semilunar
valves are closed.
5)Actually the heart is right in the centre between the two lungs and
above the diaphragm.the Nehru and of the roughly
triangular heart is pointed to the left side and
during working the contraction of the heart is
most powerful at this and giving a feeling that
the heart is on the left side.
6)(a)---iii
(b)---iv
(c)---v
(d)---ii
(e)---vi
(f)---vii
(g)---i
7.Fill in the blanks
1.Oxygen
2.Whole body,lungs
3.Liver,kidneys
4.Liver
5.Hormone,bloods
D.Descripive type
1.(a)The system which distributes substances in the body and pick up
substances to and from the to and from the
various parts of the body through blood and
lymph is called circulatory system
(b) Blood is a red coloured fluid which consists of plasma and cellular
elements like RBC's,WBC's and platelets. It
flows through blood vessels like arteries,veins
and capillaries in the body.
(c) Heart is pumping organ which pumps blood to different organs of the
body.
(d) Most WBC's can produce pseudopodia with which they can squeeze
through the walls of the capillaries into the
tissues. This process is called diapedesis.
(e) The process in which most WBC's especially neutrophils engulf foreign
substances specially bacteria is called
phagocytosis.This is a defensive mechanism
against disease germs.
(f) The blood of most people contains a substance in addition to
antigens A and B on the surface of RBC's.This
substance is called RH factor.
2.Difference
(a)Systole and diastole
SYSTOLE
The contraction phase of the heart muscles is called systole.
DIASTOLE
The expansion phase of the heart muscles is called diastole.
(b)Arteriole and Venule
ARTERIOLE
(a)The smallest and final branch of an artery is called an arteriole.
(b)Arterioles breakup into capillaries.
VENULE
(a)The smallest and common blood vessel formed by the union of
capillaries.
(b) Venules join to form larger veins.
(c)Universal donar and Universal recipient
UNIVERSAL DONOR
(a)A person with blood group O is called Universal donor.
UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT
(a) A person with blood group AB is called Universal recipient.
(d))Arteries and veins
ARTERIES:The blood vessels that carry blood from heart to different parts
of the body.
The blood carried by arteries is oxygenated blood.
VEINS:The blood vessels that carry blood from different parts of the body
to heart.
Veins carries deoxygenated blood.
3.(a) The left ventricle has thicker walls than the right ventricle
because the right ventricle has to pump the
blood only upto the lungs for oxygenation but
the left ventricle has to pump the blood to the
farthest points of the body sometime upto the
brain against gravity.
(b)The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than those of the right
auricle because the right auricle has to receive
the blood from the nearest Vena cava but the
right ventricle has to pump blood to long
distances or to the lungs for oxygenation.
(c)Vitamin k is essential for the process of blood clotting because it
helps to produce a substance prothrombin which
is essential for the process of clotting of
blood.
4. IMPORTANT ROLES
(a) TONSILS:these are the lymphatic organs which tend to localise
infection and prevent it from spreading to the
body as a whole.
(b) SPLEEN:It acts like a blood reservoir and destroys worn out red blood
cell.
(c) HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN:this vein does not directly convey the blood from
the stomach and intestine to the posterior Vena
cava instead lt first enter the liver and then
poured the blood here.
(d) BASOPHILS:it releases chemical histamine for inflammation which
dilates blood vessels.
(e)S.A.N:It is also known as pacemaker and is located in the walls of the
right auricle which initiates the heartbeat
(f) Doublecirculation means blood flows twice in the heart before it
completes one ful round first through the lungs
and second through the body.Thus double
circulation consists of two types of
circulations first one is called pulmonary
circulation and second one is called systemic
circulation
Pulmonary circulation start in the pulmonary artery which arise from the
right ventricle and then it enters the lungs
from here pulmonary veins collect the oxygenated
blood and carry it back to the left auricle it
is a short circulation.
Systemic circulation starts with the aorta which arises from the left
ventricle. The aorta sends arteries to various
body parts and their tissues. F rom their the
blood is collected by veins and
poured back into the heart.
(f)1.the injured tissue cells and the platelets which disintegrate at the
site of the wound release a substance
thrombokinase .
2. The thrombokinase with the help of calcium ions converts the substance
prothrombin of the plasma into thrombin(active).
3 Thrombin in the presence of calcium ions reacts with the solouble
fibrinogenof the plasma and convert it into
insoluble fibrin .These insoluble fibrin form a
network at the wound.
4.Blood cells are trapped in the network of the fibrin the network then
shrinks and squeeze out the rest of the plasma
in the form of serum. The solid mass which is
left behind is called clot
(g)It form The matrix for the various cellular elements of the blood.
2.It contains
many organic and inorganic substances which are
required for the metabolic activities of the
body.
(g) Functions of blood
1.It helps
in the transportation of gases like Oxygen and
Carbon dioxide in the body
2.It
helps in the distribution of hormones secreted
by the special glands directly into the blood.
3.the blood helps in keeping the temperature of the body uniform by
distributing heat.
E.Structured/Application/Skill Type
(a)1-RBC
2-WBC
3-PLATELETS
4-PLASMA
(b)RBC-1.Having biconcave disc like structure.
Mature RBC'S have no nucleus
WBC-1Having amoeboid shape.
2.Having nucleus.
(c)1RBCS TRANSPORTS OXYGEN IN COMBINATION WITH HAEMOGLOBIN
WBC'S-IT PROTECTS THE BODY AGAINST INFECTIONS.
BLOOD PLATELETS-IT HELPS IN THE CLOTTING OF BLOOD.
(d)120 days.
(e) fibrinogen.
2.(a)No.3 represents the heart because all the blood vessels carry
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are opening
here
(b) 1-pulmonary artery
2-lungs
3-heart
4-pulmonary vein
5-aorta
6-hepatic artery
7-hepatic portal vein
8-renal vein
9-superior Vena cava
10-stomach
3(a)A-artery, B-vein and C-capillary
(b)1-external connective tissue layer, 2-lumen,3-middle layer and
4-endothelium
(c)artery 1-it is having thick muscular walls and narrow lumen
Vein 2- it is having thin muscular walls and wider lumen
(d) A-oxygenated
B-deoxygenated
(e)exchange of gases actually takes place in C
4(a) ventricular systole
(b) ventricles because semilunar valves are open and blood is
entering into pulmonary artery and aorta from
right and left side of the heart respectively
(c)1-pulmonary artery
2-aorta
3-pulmonary vein
4-left auricle
5-left ventricle
6-right ventricle
(d)1-deoxygenated
2-oxygenated
(e)2 valves
5(a)RBC
(b) diapedesis
(c) already done in question number first
(d) phagocytosis
It helps to fight against infections
6(a)1-arteriole
2-artery
3-venules
4-capillaries
5-vein
(b) in lungs
7(a) intercellular fluid or tissue fluid
(b) RBC'S
(c)lymph
(d)1-lymph supplies nutrition and oxygen to those parts where blood
cannot reach
2-lymphocytes of the lymph help to defend the body.
Class 10 Physics chapter 2
work energy and power
Q1
Define work.when is work said to be done by a
force?
Ans Work is said to be done only when the force
applied on a body makes the body move.
When a body moves under the influence of
force, work is said to be done.
Q2
How is the work done by a force measured when
(1) force is in direction of displacement (2)
force is at
an angle to the direction of
displacement?
Ans (1) if force is in direction of displacemen,
cos 0°=1, W=FxS
The work done is positive.
(2) cos90°=0, W=0The work done is zero.
Q3 A
force acted upon by a force. State two
conditions when the work done is zero.
Ans (1) when there is no displacement (S=0).
(2) when the displacement is normal to the
direction of force.
Q4. State the condition when the work done by a
force is positive and negative. Explain with the
help of
examples.
Ans (1) if a body revolves in a circular path
under the influence of force, on completing one
round, the
displacement become
zero
so
work done by the force is zero.
(2) when a body moves on a
surface, the force of friction between body and
surface is in direction opposite
to the motion of the body, therefore, the
work done by the force of friction is negative.
Q5
What are the S. I. and C. G. S. unit of work.
How are they related? Establish the relation
between
them.
Ans The S. I. Unit of work is joule(J) and. C.
G. S. Unit is erg.
1joule=1Nx1m=100000dyne*100cm
=10000000dyne cm =10000000erg.
Q6
state and define S. I. Unit of work.
Ans S.I.Unit of work is joule(J).
Work is said to be 1joule when a force of
1N displaces a body through a distance of 1m in
its own
direction.
Q7 Express
joule in terms of erg.
Ans from book at.page no. 23 relationship
between joule and erg given
Q8 A
body of mass m falls down through a height h.
Obtain an expression for the work done by the
force
of
gravity.
Ans:-Let a body of mass m be moved down through
a vertical height h either directlyor through an
inclined
plane. The force of gravity on the body
is F =mg acting vertically downward and vertical
displacement
in the direction of force S=h.Therefore
the work done by the force of gravity is
W=FS=mgh.
Q9
Define the term energy and state it's S. I.
Unit.
Ans The energy of body is its capacity to do
work. The S. I. Unit of energy is joule(J).
Q10 Define a kilowatt hour. How is it related to
joule?
Ans 1kilowatt hour:one kilowatt hour is the
energy spent by a source of power 1KW in lh.
1KWh=1KW×1h=
=1000js-1x3600s=3.6MJ.
Q11 Define the term power. State its S. I. Unit.
Ans The rate of doing work is called power. The
S. I. Unit of power is watt.
Q12 State two factors on which power spent by a
source depends. Explain your answer with
examples.
Ans Power spent by a source depends on the
following two factors:(1) the amount of work
done by the source.
(2) the time taken by the source to do the said
work.
Q13 Differentiate between work and power.
Ans from book page no24.
Q14 Differentiate between energy and
power.
Ans from book page no. 25.
Q15 State and define S. I. Unit of power.
Ans The S.I. Unit of power is watt(W).
The power spent is said to be 1watt, if
1joule work is done in 1second.
Q16 (a) Name the physical quantity measured in
terms of horse power.
Ans Power.
(b) How is horse power related to the S. I. Unit
of power?
Ans 1H.P.=746W=0.746kW.
Q17 Differentiate between watt and watt hour.
Ans watt is the unit of power , while Wh (watt
hour) is unit of energy.
Exercise 2b
Q1
What are the two forms of mechanical
energy?
Ans
The two forms of mechanical energy:(1) potential
energy(2) kinetic energy.
Q2
Define the term potential energy of a
body.Nameits two forms and give one
example of each.
Ans
The energy possesedby a body at rest in its
changed position or change in size and shape is
called
potential energy. (1) Gravitational
potential energy. Example abody placed at a
height.
(2)
Elastic potential energy
Example a wound up watch spring.
Q3.
Name the form of energy which a body may posses
even when it is not in motion.Give an example to
support your answer.
Ans:-potential energy.Example:- abody placed at
a height.
Q4.
What is meant by the gravitational potential
energy?
Derive an expression for it for a body
placed
at a height above the ground.
Ans:-The potential energy possessed by a body
due to the force of attraction of earth on it,is
called its
gravitational potential energy.
Let a body of mass m be lifted from the
ground to a vertical height h.The least upward
force required
to lift the body must be equal to the
force of gravity F =mg on the acting veritically
downwards.The
work done on the body is W=Forcex
displacement
=mgxh=mgh this work is done in lifting
the body up and it gets stored in the in lifting
the body up and
it gets stored in the body in the form of
its gravitational potential energy when it is at
height h.
Thus,Gravitational potential energy
U=mgh.
Q5.
Write an expression for the potential energy of
a body of mass m placed at a height h above the
earth
surface.State the assumptions made,if
any.
Ans:-The potential energy of a body of mass m
placed at a height h above the earth
surface,U=mgh.
Assumption:-When the body is on the
ground,its gravitational potential energy is
zero.
Q6.
What do you understand by the kinetic energy of
a body?
Ans:-The energy possessed by a body due to its
state of motion is called the kinetic energy.
Q7.
A body of mass m is moving with a velocity
v.Write the expression for its kinetic energy.
Ans:-If a body of mass m is moving with velocity
v, then kinetic energy i.e. k=1/2m v2.
Q8.
State the work-energy theorem.
Ans:-According to the work energy theorem,the
work done by a force on a moving body is equal
to the increase
in its kinetic energy.
Q9.
Name the three forms of kinetic energy and give
one example of each.
Ans:-Three forms of kinetic energy are as:
1.Translational kinetic energy
Example:-A car moving in a straight path.
2.Rotational kinetic energy
Example:-A spinning top.
3.Vibrational kinetic energy
Example:-A wire clamped at both the ends,
when struck in the middle vibrates.The energy
posseseed by
wire is the vibrational kinetic energy.
Q10. State two differences between the potential
energy and the kinetic energy.
Ans:-at page no.33 (given)
Q11. When an arrow is shot from a bow,it has
kinetic energy in it.Explain briefly from where
does it get
its kinetic energy.
Ans:-When the string of a bow is pulled,some
work is done which is stored in the deformed
state of the
bow in the form of its elastic potential
energy.On releasing the string to shoot an
arrow, the
potential energy of the bow changes into
the kinetic energy of the arrow which makes it
move.
Q12. A ball is placed on a compressed
spring.What form of energy does the spring
possess?On releasing the
spring,the ball flies away.Give a reason.
Ans:-A compressed spring has the elastic
potential energy due to its compressed
state.When it is
released,the potential energy of
the spring changes into the kinetic energy which
does work on the ball
placed on it and changes into the kinetic
energy of the ball due to which it flies away.
(Fig 2.12 from book)
Q13.
A Pebble is thrown up.it goes to a height and
then comes back on the ground.state different
forms of
energy changes during its motion.
Ans
When a pebble is thrown up,the kinetic
energy in it changes in to potential energy.At
the top position
kinetic energy completely changes in to
potential energy.while coming down,potential
energy changes in
to kinetic energy .At the bottom
,potential energy completely changes into
kinetic energy.
Q14
In what way does the temperature of water at the
bottom of a water fall is different from the
temperature at the top?Explain the
reason.
Ans:-When water falls from a height,the
potential energy stored in water at that height
changes into the
kinetic energy of water during the
fall.On striking the ground a part of the
kinetic energy of water
changes into heat energy due to which the
temperature of water rises.
Q15. Name six different forms of energy?
Ans:-Six different forms of energy are (1)Solar
energy (2) Heat energy (3)Light energy
(4)Chemical energy
(5)Hydro energy (6)Nuclear energy.
Q16.Energy can exist in serval forms and may
change from one form to another.For each of the
following state
the energy changes that occur in:
(a) The unwinding of a watch spring
Ans:-Potential energy a watch spring into
kinetic energy.
(b) A loaded truck started and set in
motion.
Ans:-Chemical energy of diesel or petrol change
into mechanical energy.
(c) a car going uphill.
Ans:-Kinetic energy into potential energy.
(d)photosynthesis in green leaves plants.
Ans:-Light energy into chemical energy .
(e) Charging of a battery.
Ans:-Electrical energy into chemical energy.
(f) respiration
Ans:-chemical energy into heat energy.
(g) burning of a matchstick.
Ans:-chemical energy into heat energy and light
energy.
(h)explosion of cracker.
Ans:-chemical energy into heat, light and sound
energy.
Q17. State the energy changes in the following
cases while in use:
(a)
Loud speaker
Ans:-electrical energy changes into sound
energy.
(b) a steam engine
Ans:-Heat energy changes into mechanical energy.
(c)Microphone
Ans:-Sound energy changes into electrical
energy.
(d) Washing machine.
Ans:-Electrical energy changes into mechanical
energy.
(e)A glowing electrical bulb.
Ans:-Electrical energy changes into light
energy.
(f)Burning of coal.
Ans:-Chemical energy changes into heat energy.
(g) A solar cell.
Ans:-Light energy changes into electrical
energy.
(h)Bio gas burner
Ans:-Chemical energy changes into heat energy.
(i) An electric cell in a circuit.
Ans:-Chemical energy changes into
electrical energy.
(j) Petrol engine of a running car.
Ans:- Chemical energy changes into
mechanical energy.
(k) An electric toaster
Ans:-Electrical energy changes into heat energy.
(L)A photovoltaic cell.
Ans:-Light energy into electrical energy.
(m)Electomagnet
Ans:-Electrical changes into magnatic energy.
Q18. Name the process used for producing
electricity from the nuclear energy.
Ans:-The process used for producing electricity
from the nuclear energy is nuclear fission.
Q19. Is it practically possible to convert a
form of energy completely into the other useful
form?
Explain your answer:-
Ans:-No,because whenever there is a conversion
of energy completely into other useful form,a
part of energy
is lost to the surroundings in the form
of heat.
Q20. What is degraded energy?
Ans:-While transformation of energy from one
form to the other desired form,a part of energy
changes to some
other undesirable form or a part is lost
to the surroundings due to radiation or friction
which become
useless this is known as degraded energy.
Q21. What do you mean by degradition of
energy?Explain it by taking one example of your
daily life.
Ans:-While transformation of energy from one
form to the other desired form,a part of energy
changes to some
other undesirable form or a part is lost
to the surroundings due to radiation or friction
which become
useless this is known as degraded energy.
Example:-
When a bulb is lighted using the
electrical energy,a major part of it is lost in
the form
of heat energy,only a small part converts
into the useful light energy.
Exercise 2 (c)
Q1.
State the principle of conservation of energy.
Ans:-According to the principle of conservation
of energy,energy can neither be created nor can
it be
destroyed.It only changes from one form
to the other.
Q2.
What do you understand by the conservation of
mechanical energy?State the condition under
which the
mechanical energy is conserved.
Ans:-If there is only an interchange between the
potential energy and kinetic energy,the total
mechanical
energy remains constant
i.e. K+U= constant when there are no
frictional forces.
The conservation of mechanical energy is
therefore strictly valid only in absence of
external
forces such as friction due to air.
Q3.
Name two examples in which the mechanical energy
of a system remains constant.
Ans:-(1) Motion of a simple pendulum.
(2) Motion of a freely falling body.
Q4.
Show that the sum of kinetic energy and
potential energy is always conserved in the case
of a freely
falling body under gravity from a height
h by finding it when (1) the body is at the top,
(ii) the body has fallen a distance
x,(iii) the body has reached the ground.
Ans:-Let a body of mass m be fallling freely
under gravity from a
height h above the ground
(i.e. from postion A) Now calculate the
sum of kinetic energy K and potential energy U
at various
positions say at A (at height h above the
ground),at B (when it has fallen through a
distance x),and
at C (on the ground).
Figure at page no 2.17
At the position A
intial velocity of body=0(since body is
at rest at A)
Kinetic energy
=0
Potential energy U =mgh
Mechanical energy
=K+U=0+mgh=mgh.......(1)
At the postion B
(when it has fallen a distance x)
Let v1 be the velocity acquired by the
body at B after falling through a distance
x.Then u=0,S=x,a=g
From equation v2=u2+2as
v2=0+2gx
k =1/2mv2=1/2m(2gx)=mgx
Now at B,height of body above the
ground=h-x therefore U=mg(h-x)
mechanical
energy=k+u=mgx+mg(h-x)=mgh......(2)
At the position C (on the ground)
Let the velocity acquired by the body
reaching the ground be v.Then u=0,S=h,a=g
from equation v2=u2+2as
v2=0+2gh
v2=2gh
K=1/2mv2=1/2m(2gh)=mgh
U=0( at the ground when h=0)
hence mechanical
energy=K+U=mgh+0=mgh...........(3)
From equations(1),(2) & (3), we note that
the total mechanical energy(i.e,the sum of
kinetic energy and
potential energy)always remains constant
at each point of motion.
Q5.
A pendulum is oscillating on either side of its
rest position.Explain the energy changes that
takes
place in the oscillating pendulum.How
does the mechanical energy remain constant in
it?Draw the
necessary diagram.
Ans:-The kinetic energy decreases and the
potential energy becomes maximum at B where it
is momentarily
at rest,when the bob swings from A to
B.From B to A,again the potential energy changes
into kinetic
energy and this process repeat again and
again.So,while swinging,the bob has the
potential energy at
the extreme position B or C and kinetic
energy at resting position A.The bob has both
the kinetic and
potential energy at an intermediate
position (between A and B or between A and C)and
the sum of both
energy (i.e.the total mechanical
energy)remains constant
throughout the swing.
Diagram from book at page no.45
HOME
Class
X CHAPTER-7
[WATER RESOURCES]
Ans 1 Artificial application of
water to the soil for growing crops.
Ans 2- India experience a tropical monsoon type
of climate which is unfortunately erratic,
unreliable , irregular and unevenly
distributed that is why irrigation is
necessary for a country like India.
Ans 3 The different method of irrigation are
tank, canal and well irrigation
Ans 4 Perennial canals are better than
inundation canal. because these canals are
useful throughout the year as they draw water
from perennial rivers, artificial lakes or
barrages, Constructed across the river
Ans 5 Tanks are constructed in the areas of
natural depression by building earthen
embankment or masonry walls to collect water.
They are used in peninsular India where the
underlying hard rocks do not allow water to seep
through.
Ans 6 ADVANTAGES OF TANK IRRIGATION:
[1] Tank irrigation is cheaper than other types
of irrigation.
[2] They are used in dry season.
[3] Tank occupy less area and can easily built
in the region where it is not possible to built
canal.
DISADVANTAGES:
[1] Tanks are shallow, large amount of water is
wasted through evaporation.
[2] Tanks are non-perennial and dry up in
summer.
[3] They are costly in comparison to wells and
tube wells.
Ans 7 Tanks irrigation is more popular in south
India in the states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh because:
[1] The Deccan plateau is rocky and does not
allow rain water to seep through.
[2] Deccan plateau is highly dissected one with
natural depression. Hence it is easy to
construct the tank.
Ans 8 Of the two types of well tube well is the
best because :
[1] They irrigate large areas.
[2] They do not cause ant pollution.
[3] They occupy less area as compared to surface
well.
Ans 9 Tank irrigation is practiced in southern
India in the states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh and well irrigation is practiced
in northern plains in the states of Uttar
Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab and Bihar.
Ans 10 The two methods of drawing water from the
well are Persian wheel or reheat and it is
worked by bullock and buffaloes
Ans 11 Because it is cheaper to construct as
compared to canal.
It is independent source of irrigation and can
used by individual farmer
It can be dug anywhere when required.
Ans 12 It is cheaper than canal construction
In canal irrigation farmers has to pay regularly
but wells are their own property
Ans 13 The difference between surface water and
groundwater resources are:
SURFACE WATER season
: Surface
water is available on the surface of the earth
in the form of rivers, lakes, ponds and canals
The two advantages of surface is
1-The supply is likely to be certain even during
dry session
2- It is likely to be free from pathogenic
agents.
GROUND WATER
The water which is present
beneath earth’s surface
Advantages of ground water is
It does not get polluted
The water get filtered while percolating through
sand and stones
Ans 14 The two important canal systems each in
utter Pradesh and Punjab are
1-Utter Pradesh-Upper Ganga canal and Agra canal
2-punjab-nangal and sir hind canal
Ans 15 The two problems are-
1-uneven distribution of rainfall in India
2 –Old methods of irrigation are still followed
in many states.
Ans 16 The difference between inundation canal
and perennial canal
Perennial canals supply water throughout the
year where as inundation canals are taken out
directly from the river during floods, without
any regulating system like barrages at their
head to regulate the flow of water.
Ans 17 Inundation canals are being converted to
perennial canals because 1. inundations canals
are taken out from the rivers when they are in
flood and there is excess of water. Hence if
they are converted into perennial canal they
will have water throughout the
year.2.only lower level areas can be irrigated
by such canals as they have no regulating
systems .
Ans 18. Tubewell irrigation in is more important
in northern India than in southern India because
1.water table is high in northern India 2.ground
should be soft preferably alluvial soil 3. The
area must get adequate rainfall to replenish
ground water 4.cheap hydro electric power
required.
Ans 19. Tank irrigation is more popular in
southern india because
1.rocks are nonporous 2. Rainfall is
seasonal 3. Cheap to construct tank
Ans 20. Gujrat and Rajasthan are
the two
states suffer periodically suffer drought
because of
very less rainfall .
Ans 21.Objectives of national water policy are;
1.To provide surplus water to the deficit areas.
2.The policy aim to reduce water pollution and
to improve the quality of water of rivers
3.The recharging of ground water is also a
priority.
4.It aims reducing soil erosion and silting of
river beds.
Ans 22. It is technique of increasing the
recharge of ground water by capturing and
storing rain water.
Ans 23.It is necessary to conserve
water
1.Developing
water saving technology .
2.Preventing water pollution.
3.Promoting watershed development, rainwater,
water cycling and reuse
Ans 24.Rain water can be
over the rooftops and can be channelized
through small PVC pipes into the underground
pits or bore well to be used by hand pumps or
from wells .
Ans 25.Advantages of rooftop rain water
harvesting
1.
It improves the quality of ground water
2.
It does not cause pollution .
3.
It is cost effective .
4.
4.It reduce soil erosion
Ans 26.The states are Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu,
Rajasthan, Meghalaya and Assam.
Ans 27.[A]Damodar is called river of sorrow
because of devastating
floods .
[B] Due to the presence of perennial rivers .
[c].because of underlying hard
rocks which does not
allow water to
seep through.
ANS 28[A].Drip irrigation
[B] .Bamboo irrigation .
[c].Because water table is high and soil is soft
to dig .
Ans 29. The advantages and disadvantages of
sprinkler irrigation
ADVANTAGES;
1
It does not involve any
wastage
of water
2
It is best suited for arid and semi arid
regions.
3
It have higher application
efficiency
.
DISADVANTAGES ;
1.
High initial cost .
2.
High operating cost.
3.
Water must be free from sand debris and salt .
Ans 30 The modern means of irrigation are
sprinkler ,drip, and bamboo irrigation
Ans 31.[A] Drip irrigation
[B]. ADVANTAGES ;
1.Intial cost is more than overhead system
2.The sun can effect the tubes .
BIOLOGY 10 CLASS
Chapter-pollution
A.Multiple Choice Type
1.(d)
2.(c)
3.(b)
B.Very Short Answer Type
1.(i)CO2,NO2
(ii)CFC's, Styrofoam
2.Matching
(a)--iv
(b)--iii
(c)--vi
(d)--v
(e)--ii
(f)--i
3.(i)particulate
(ii)X-rays
(iii)hot
(iv)domestic activities
4.Identify biodegradable waste
Peel off vegetables and fruits, grass, paper
C.Short Answer Type
1.(i)It leads increased growth of microorganisms thus decreasing level of
oxygen in the river which lead to death of fish
and other water animals. It also affect aquatic
plants and leads to increase chemical oxygen
demand and biological oxygen demand.
(ii) it leads to air pollution causing acid rain,respiratory disorder,
deterioration of monuments. It also makes the
soil acidic and less fertile.
(iii)DDT use in agriculture to destroy pest alter the basic structure of
soil,kill microorganisms in IT army even reach
the human body through food grown in such soils.
It reduces soil fertility by killing
microorganisms in the soil.
(iv)1. Interferes in communication
2. Lowers efficiency of work
2. It consists of kitchen wastes, toilet and other household waste water.
3.Oil spills are the accidental discharges of petroleum in oceans or
estuaries. The sources of spills are the
overturned oil tankers, offshore oil mining, oil
refineries.
Effects
i. Soil pollution kills a lot of marine life.
ii. It make aquatic birds flightless.
4.i. Prohibiting blowing of horns.
ii. No to burn the firecrackers.
5.The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a significant cleanliness campaign started
by the Government of India. It was officially
launched on 2nd October 2014 by a Prime Minister
Shri Narendra Modi.
Following are some objectives of the:
i. To clean the streets, roads and infrastructure of the countrie's
cities and towns.
ii. To eliminate open defecation through the construction of toilets
iii. Establish an accountable mechanism of monitoring laterine use.
D.Descriptive type
(a)Pollution:-pollution is the addition of any such constituent in the
environment which deteriorates its natural
quality.
(b)Waste:-waste is any unwanted or undesired material or substance
resulting from industrial, commercial mining,
and agricultural operations, and from community
activities.
(c)Air pollution:-Air pollution means degradation of the air quality
which harmfully effects the living organisms as
well as certain objects.
(d)Oil spills:-oil fields are the accidental discharges of petroleum in
oceans or estuaries.
(e)Pesticides:-These are the chemicals which kills pests in agricultural
farms, godowns and even at homes.
(f)Sanitary landfills:-Sanitary landfills are the places where the wastes
are dumped in a ground depression and covered
with dirt everyday.
(g)Noise:-noise is defined as any unpleasant and loud sound interfering
with one hearing and concentration.
2.Distinguish between the following
(a)SEWAGE:-It is the liquid waste from domestic activities.
It consists of kitchen wastes toilet and other household waste water.
EFFLUENTS:-It is a liquid waste from lake and rivers
it consists of waste coming from factories and industries.
(b)BOIDEGRADABLE WASTE:-These are those substances which can be broken
down by micro organisms into harmless and non
toxic substances.
For example:-dung,leaves, kitchen left overs etc.
NON-BIODEGRADABLE WASTE:-These are those substances that cannot be broken
down by microorganisms.
For example:-plastic, metallic cans, glass etc.
(c)SMOKE:-It consists of airborne particulate pollutants.
SMOG: Smog is the mixture of smoke and dust particles and small drops of
fog.
E.STRUCRURED/APPLICATION SKILL
1.Oil spill, water pollution, thermal pollution,
2.(i) noise pollution
(ii) horns, vehicles, loud loudspeakers, aircrafts
(iii) Headache, irritation and loss of hearing
(
. To clean the streets, roads and infrastructure of the country's cities
and towns.
3.(i)Ozone depletion
Certain gaseous compounds such as CFC released from refrigerators and
packing material styrofom form rise into the
atmosphere and their they breakdown in two
chlorine atoms which in turn breakdown Ozone
into oxygen O2 and O,this is known as ozone
depletion.
(ii)Aerosols
(iii)Skin allergies,cancer and genetic disorders
4.(i)PM Sh.Narendra Modi on 2nd October 2014.
(ii)1.To clean the street route and its infrastructure of the country's
cities and towns.
2. To eliminate open defecation through the construction of toilets.
3.To achieve efficient solid and liquid waste management system.
5.(i)Air pollution is degradation of the air quality which harmfully
effects the living organisms as well as certain
objects.
(ii)Gaseous pollution and particulate pollution.
(iii)Vehicular air pollution
For eg.Cars
Industrial air pollution
For eg.brick kilns
(iv)(a) efficient engines
(b) greater use of compressed natural gas.
(c)Installation of tall chimneys in factories.
5.(i)Soil pollution.
Degradation of the quality of soil by industries,chemical
fertilizers,pesticides and acid rain.
(ii)1.Pesticides
2. Chemical fertilizers
3. Industrial waste
4. Biomedical waste
(iii) 1.Damage to vegetation by pollution of soil
2. Fish and other aquatic animals are harmed.
CLASS X
SOIL RESOURCES IN
INDIA
Ans 1: Soil is formed under specific natural
conditions. It is a mixture of minerals or
inorganic matter which result from denudation
and disintigration of rocks.
Ans 2 : Soil formation is related to the parent
rock material, relief, climate and vegetation.
Animals insects and man also play an important
role in the formation of soil.
Ans 3 : soil is a mixture of inorganic material
, minerals and organic material like
humus.Inorganic components like silica,clay and
chalk.
Ans 4 :The major soils are alluvial soils,black
soils and red soils.
Ans 5 :Alluvial soils are very fertile because
every year fresh sediments are deposited by
rivers.
Ans 6 :Black soils are formed insitu i.e, formed
where they are found.They are called residual
soil. These soils have originated from
solidification of basic lava spread over large
area of deccan pleateau during volcanic
activity.
Ans 7 : No black soil doesnot undergo leaching.
Ans 8 : The other name of black soils are Regur
and black cotton soils
Characteristics :
1: Retains moisture and becomes sticky when wet
.
2: Releases moisture during dry period.
Ans 9 : Red soil are not suitable for
agriculture because it lacks
lime,magnesia,phosphate,nitrogen and humus and
are rich in potash and become fertile with
proper use of fertilizers and irrigation
Ans
10 Leaching is a process in which the
mineral nutrients are washed away making the top
soil infertile. The example of a leached soil is
laterite soil
Ans 11:Alluvial soil is widely distributed over
the ganga basin.
Ans 12 : The most widely transported soil is the
alluvial soil.
Ans 13 : Laterite soil is suitable for growing
coffee in india .
Ans 14: Laterite soil is found on the summit of
eastern ghats.
Ans 15: Mountain soil is rich in humus but
deficient in phosphate ,potash and lime .
Ans 16: Desert soil is found in thse area which
receive rainfall below 50 cm features.It
contains low percentage of organic matter due to
dry climate and absence of vegetation.Soil is
alkaline is nature as there is no rainfall to
wash soluble salt.
Ans 17 : Laterite soils are formed under
condition of high temperature and heavy rainfall
with alternate wet and dry period.
Ans 18 : Monsoon condition promote leaching of
the soil i.e the heavy rainfall washes away the
top soil containing silica.
Ans 19: Soil erosion is the removal of the top
soil by different agents like wind and water.
Types :
[1] Splash erosion
[2] Sheet erosion
[3] Gully erosion
Ans 20 : Soil conservation is an effort made to
prevent soil erosion or reduce the rate of soil
erosion.
Ways to reduce erosion:
Aforestation, to check overgrazing and
constructing dams and barrages.
Ans 21 : [1] Top soil –it is the uppermost layer
of soil consisting of humus which is very
fertile.
[2] Insitu-the soil formed where they are found.
[3] Bhanger-it consist of old alluvium,contains
kankar, pebbles and gravels and are dark in
colour.
[4] Khadar-it consist of new alluvial,contain
fine sand and clay and are pale brown in colour.
[5] Humus- it is dark organic material in soils
produced by the decomposition of vegetables or
animal matter and is essential to the
fertility of the soil.
NATURAL
VEGETATION
Ans 1 Natural vegetation are plants that have
not grown by human. It does not need human and
gets whatever it needs from its natural
environment
Ans 2Distribution of natural vegetation depend
upon variation in the amount of rainfall and
variation in relief
Ans3 Trees maintain ecological balance, reduce
pollution, maintain humidity , purify air and
are a source of timber fruits and fuel.
Ans 4 The percentage of forest cover in India on
land is 21.02%.
Ans 5 The forest cover in india is
shrinking-reasons are:
[1] Increased demand for forest products.
[2] Deforestation.
[3] Urbanisation\industrialisation.
[4] Over grazing by cattle.
[5] Faulty agricultural practices eg. Jhumming
or shifting cultivation.
[6] Large multipurpose projects or river valley
projects.
[7] Increasing population.
[8] Forest fire.
[9] Conservation of forest land to agricultural
land.
[10] Demand for agricultural land.
PRECAUTIONS TAKEN:
[1] Van Mahotsava.
[2] Afforestation.
[3] Reafforestation.
Ans 6 : Major forest products are timber and
wood.
Minor products are gum,tac and medicinal herbs.
Ans 7: There are two factors on which the type
of natural vegetation and its distribution
depend upon:
[1] Variation in amount of rainfall.
[2] Variation inn relief.
Ans 8: Charateristics of tropical evergreen
forest:-
-They are found in the areas of heavy
rainfall,they are also known as “rain forest”.
-The thick ground cover of the forest is
characterized by climbers and epiphytes.Bamboo .
-and ferns are also common.
-They donot shed their leaves at the same
time,they remain evergreen and hence named
“tropical evergreen forest”
The important trees of these forests are
rosewood, sisam and gurjan.
Ans 9 The economically most important vegetation
belt of India is deciduous monsoon forest as
they yield valueable timber and several other
forest products.
Ans10
Deciduous forest are found in the belt
running along the western ghats surrounding the
belt of evergreen forest.
The deciduous forests are found in arias
of average temperature of about 24 degree to 27
degree celcius and average rainfall between
150-200 cm.
Ans 11 The trees found in monsoon forest are :
1 Teak- furniture, railway carriages
2 sal- railway sleeper,door and windows
3Myrobalan – tanning leather, dyeing cotton etc.
Ans12 The main feature of mountain forests are :
[1]It consist of mixed deciduous and coniferous
forests
[2]They occur in the transition zone of mixed
forest and coniferous forests
They are found in the temperate zone of the
Himalayas, from Kashmir to assam at varying
altitude. In the south, they are found in
nilgiri and annumalai hillsat an elevation
between 1000 m to 1500 m
Ans13 Desert and semi desert vegetation is found
in the area of average temperature of 25 degree
to 27 degree celcius and with a rainfall of less
than 25 cm.
And 14 The characteristics of mangrove forests
are:
[1] They have aerial, stilt like roots.
[2]They can be seen during low tide.
[3]Mangrove forests are characterized by
breathing roots which act as respiratory organs.
Ans 15 The other names are tidal and littoral
forests
Ans 16 Afforestation means planting of trees
over a large area and deforestation means
cutting of trees over large area.
Ans 17 The two characteristic features of
tropical evergreen forests are:
[1]They are found in the areasof heavy rainfall.
[2]Trees are evergreen and do not shed their
leaves.Dence undergrowth and lack of transport
facilities make it difficult to exploit.
Ans 18 The deciduous forests are found in the
areas of average temperatureof about 24 degree
to 27 degree celciusand average rainfall between
150 to 200cm.
Ans 19 Thorn and scrub are found in Rajasthan,
Punjab, western Utter Pradesh and Gujrat.Trees
found here are khair,babool and khajuri.
Ans 20 Mangrove vegetation. The most important
trees are sundry, hintal and gurjun.
Ans21 Sundri tree is hard , strong and durable.
Ans 22 Forest are grown in and around steel
cities to reduce pollution and to provide raw
material to the industry.
Ans 23 It is grown in Himachal Pradesh and
Kashmir.It is used for making railway sleepers
and House consruction
Ans 24 The type of vegetation is mangrove.
Ans 25 The total forest cover of the total
geographic area of India is 21.02%.
Ans26 [a] As they do not shed their leaves and
remain evergreen.
[b] As they are found in the areas of heavy
rainfall.
[c]because there the temperature is26 to 29
degree celcius
Ans 27[a]coastal tidal forest
[b]myrabalon.
[c]deciduous monsoon forest
Ans 28 Social forestry- it create awareness
regarding conservation of forest and to meet the
need of the rural people regarding fuel and
timber.
Agroforestry-it combines agricultural and
forestry technologies to create more
diverse,productive and profitable land use
system.A narrow definition of agroforestry is “
trees on farms”.
Class 10th Biology Chemical
Coordination in
Plants
A Multiple choice type
1(d), 2(a), 3(c), 4(d), 5(b), 6(c), 7(c), 8(c)
B Short answer type
1.Match the following
(a)-I, (b)-iv,
(c)-ii, d)-iii
2. Differentiate between
(a)Thigmotropism and geotropism
THIGMOTROPISM
i)The growth movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called
thigmotropism.
ii) Thigmotropism can be seen in plants such as sweet peas,Cuscuta and
vines.
GEOTROPISM
i)The growth movement of plants towards the earth gravity is called
geotropism.
ii) organs which grow towards a gravity are positively geotropic (root
tip) and those that grow away from the gravity
are negatively geotropic (shoot tip)
(b)Positive and negative tropism
POSITIVE TROPISM
i)The growth of a plant part towards a particular stimulus is called
positive tropism.
NEGATIVE TROPISM
ii)The growth of a plant part away from a stimulus is called
negative tropism.
(c)Stimulus and response
STIMULUS
i)The actions caused by changes in external as well as internal factors
of the plant is called stimulus.
RESPONSE
i) Reaction of plant body towards stimulus is called response.
(d) Phototropism and chemotropism
PHOTOTROPISM
i) The movement of plant parts towards light is called phototropism.
ii) shoots are positively phototropic and roots are negatively
phototropic.
CHEMOTROPISM
i)It is the phenomena of growth of plant organs in response to chemicals.
ii) The movement of pollen tube of angiosperms towards sugar and
peptones is an example of chemotropism.
3.i)Plants do not move from one place to another in search of their
shelter and food requirements while animals move
from one place to another place in order to find
their food and shelter.
ii)The movement in plants is called movement of curvature while in
animals is called locomotion.
4. Phototropism-light
Thigmotropism-touch
Hydrotropism-water
Geotropism-gravity
5.Name the following
(a)Cytokinin
(b)ABA(abscisic acid)
(c)Indole-3-acetic acid(IAA)
C Descriptive type
1.Define the following terms.
(a)Phytohormones-:The chemical factors responsible for the plant growth
are known as phytohormones.
For example auxins and gibberellins etc.
(b)Tropism-:The movement of plant parts in direct response to external
stimuli is called tropism.
(c)Clinostat-:Geotropism can be demonstrated in the laboratory with the
help of an instrument called clinostat.
(d)Apical dominance-:The phenomenon of the suppression of growth of
lateral buds by apical buds is called apical
dominance.
(e) Parthenocarpy-: The development of fruit without fertilization is
called parthenocarpy.
(f)Abscission-:Falling of leaves is called adscission.
(g)Heliotropism-:The directional growth of plant in response to sunlight
is called heliotropism.
2. The five plant growth hormones are-:
i.Auxins
It promotes cell elongation.
Induce formation of parthenocarpic fruits.
ii.Gibberellins
Break dormancy of seeds and buds
Delay senescence
iii.Cytokinins
Inhibit apical dominance
Prevent ageing of plant parts
iv.Ethylene
Induces fruit ripening
Promotes senescence
v.Abscisic acid
Stimulates closing of stomata
Induces dormancy of seeds and buds
3. Growth movement of plants in response to unidirectional external
stimuli in a plant part are called tropic
movements.
Some of the tropic movements in plants are as follows-:
i.Phototropism-:Movement towards light.
Phototropism is of two types:
Positively phototropism-: S hoots are positively phototropic because they
grow towards the source of light.
Negative phototropism-:Roots are negatively phototropic because they grow
away from the source of light.
ii.Geotropism-: It means going towards earth's gravity.
Geotropism is of two types:
Positively geotropism: Roots are positively geotropic some because they
grow towards the gravity.
Negatively geotropism: Shoots are negatively geotropic because they grow
away from the gravity.
iii.Thigmotropism-: Growth movement of plants in response to touch
stimulus is called thigmotropism.
Plants such sweet peas, Cuscuta and vines show thigmotropism because
there tendrils coil around other plants in
response to one sided contact or touch.
iv. Hydrotropism-: Movement of plant parts in response to water is
called hydrotropism.
It is of two types:
Positively hydrotropic:When a plant part gross towards a source of
moisture it is said to be positively
hydrotropic.
Negatively hydrotropic:When a plant that grows away from the source of
moisture it is said to be negatively
hydrotropic.
v. Chemotropism-:It is the phenomenon of growth of plant organs in
response to chemicals.The movement of tentacles
in drosera towards the source of nutrition is an
example of chemotropism.
4.The response of plants to gravity can be observed when seedlings
are placed in a pot filled with moist soil.In
the figure the shoot show negative geotropism
and roots show positive geotropism. This is good
for the normal growth of the seedling as roots
need to grow down in the soil to absorb minerals
and shoots need to grow up towards sunlight.
(Draw fig.7.1 of Geotropism)
5.When the plant parts towards a source of stimulus it is called
positive tropic movement in plants and
when the plant parts move away from the source
of stimulus it is called negative tropic
movement.
Examples of positive and negative tropic movement:
i.Shoots are positively phototropic because they grow towards the source
of light and roots are negatively phototropic
because they grow away from the source of light.
ii.Roots are positively geotropic because they grow towards the source
of gravity and shoots are negatively geotropic
because they grow away from the source of
gravity.
iii. Roots are positively hydrotropic as they grow towards the
source of moisture and shoots are negatively
hydrotropic as they grow away from the source of
moisture.
6.Take a piece of wire netting or gauze. Suspend it by means of
wires.Moist sawdust is placed on the wire
netting and some germinating bean seeds are
embedded in the sawdust.
As the seeds germinate,the radicals initially grow downwards through the
wire netting under the influence of gravity. But
soon, day start growing upwards, towards moist
sawdust, which is the only source of water.this
shows that that roots are more positively
hydrotropic than geotropic.
E. Structure type
1.(a) apical dominance
(b) auxins
(c) cytokinins
2.(a) ethylene
(b)i.induces fruit ripening
ii. Promotes senescence
3.(a)Chemotropism
it is the phenomenon of growth of plant organs in response to chemicals.
(b)1.pollen grain
2. Pollen tube
3. Ovule
4. Ovary
(c)Sugars and peptones
(d)Angiosperms and gymnosperms
4(a)X-Stem tendril
Y-Leaf tendril
(b)Both help the plant to climb up a support.
(c) Thigmotropism
the growth movement of plants in response to touch stimulus is called
thigmotropism.
(d) stem tendril rises from the stem part of the plant so it is a
modified stem while leaf tendril rises from the
leaf part of a plant that is a modified leaf.
(e)Cuscuta and sweet peas.
HOME
ClassX
History Chapter 2
1question:
Answer:
Nationalism denotes
patriotism or devotion to the nation. One who is
patriotic, loves his or her country and feels
very loyal towards it.
2. Question
Answer:
The feeling of nationalism
lacking among the Indians because it was never a
one nation and compromised many kingdoms. The
loyalty of the people was towards a particular
king or kingdom. Thus, the modern feeling of
nationalism was lacking among them.
3. Question
Answer:
1.
Economic exploitation was the most
important reason.
2.
The impact of western education, which led to a
rational, humanitarian and scientific approach
to life.
4. Question
Answer:
1.
The increase in the indebtedness of the indian
peasants under the british rule was a clear sign
of policy of economic exploitation.
2.
The indian peasants had to sell their produce at
cheap prices.
5. Question
Answer:
1.
The british economic policies were
against the interest of indian trade and
industry.
2.
India became a source of raw materials for the
industries of the company and a market for
finished products.
6. Question
Answer:
1.
It spread modern, economic, social and political
ideas and created a nationalist consciousness.
2.
It exposed the true nature of british
rule in india.
3.
It helped to exchange the veiws among
different social groups.
4.
It made indians aware about the world.
7. Question
Anwser:
The vernacular press act
in 1878 was introduced by lord lytton. The act
forbade vernacular papers to publish any
material that might excite feeling of
dissatisfaction against the british government.
8. Question
Answer:
In 1882, the vernacular
press act was repealed by lord lytton. This gave
a stimulus to political agitation and quickened
the pace of indian nationalism.
Question 9.
Answer:
Amriit bazaar patrika. The
patriot, the kesari were some of the news papres
which aroused the feeling of nationalism among
the indians in the nineteenth century.
Question 10.
Answer: the reformer
denounced untuochability and the rigidties of
the caste system. These movements fought for
individual liberty and socail equality.
Question 11.
Answer: Raja Ram Mohan
Roy, Swami Dayanand, Swami vivekanand and Annie
Basant.
Question 12.
Answer:
He founded Satya sodhak
samaj in 1873. He established this to secure
social justice for weaker sections of society.
Question 13.
Answer:
The objective of the
illbert was to remove racial discrimination.
Lord Ripon wanted to give the indian judges the
authority to hear cases against the europeans.
However the europeans opposed this and it could
not be passed.
Question 14.
Answer:
1.
To unite indians on the basis of
common political interests and beliefs.
2.
To agitate for a constitutional
government.
Question 15.
Answer:
A.
Surrendernath banerjee- indian
association.
B.
Dada Bhai Naoroji: East india association.
Question 16.
Answer:
The indian national
congress was founded in 1885by A.O hume, a
retired civilian in the british government.
Question 17.
Answer:
The second session of the
congress was held in 1886, in calcutta under the
presidentship of dada bhai naoroji.
Extra question:
Mention the popular
watchwords during the french revolution which
influenced indians due to the introduction of
western education.
Answer: Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
Geography NATURAL
VEGETATION
Ans 1 Natural vegetation are plants that have not
grown by human. It does not need human and gets
whatever it needs from its natural environment
Ans 2Distribution of natural vegetation depend upon
variation in the amount of rainfall and variation in
relief
Ans3 Trees maintain ecological balance, reduce
pollution, maintain humidity , purify air and are a
source of timber fruits and fuel.
Ans 4 The percentage of forest cover in India on
land is 21.02%.
Ans 5 The forest cover in india is shrinking-reasons
are:
[1] Increased demand for forest products.
[2] Deforestation.
[3] Urbanisation\industrialisation.
[4] Over grazing by cattle.
[5] Faulty agricultural practices eg. Jhumming or
shifting cultivation.
[6] Large multipurpose projects or river valley
projects.
[7] Increasing population.
[8] Forest fire.
[9] Conservation of forest land to agricultural
land.
[10] Demand for agricultural land.
PRECAUTIONS TAKEN:
[1] Van Mahotsava.
[2] Afforestation.
[3] Reafforestation.
Ans 6 : Major forest products are timber and wood.
Minor products are gum,tac and medicinal herbs.
Ans 7: There are two factors on which the type of
natural vegetation and its distribution depend upon:
[1] Variation in amount of rainfall.
[2] Variation inn relief.
Ans 8: Charateristics of tropical evergreen forest:-
-They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall,they
are also known as “rain forest”.
-The thick ground cover of the forest is
characterized by climbers and epiphytes.Bamboo .
-and ferns are also common.
-They donot shed their leaves at the same time,they
remain evergreen and hence named “tropical evergreen
forest”
The important trees of these forests are rosewood,
sisam and gurjan.
Ans 9 The economically most important
vegetation belt of India is deciduous monsoon forest
as they yield valueable timber and several other
forest products.
Ans10
Deciduous forest are found in the belt
running along the western ghats surrounding the belt
of evergreen forest.
The deciduous forests are found in arias of
average temperature of about 24 degree to 27 degree
celcius and average rainfall between 150-200 cm.
Ans 11 The trees found in monsoon forest are :
1 Teak- furniture, railway carriages
2 sal- railway sleeper,door and windows
3Myrobalan – tanning leather, dyeing cotton etc.
Ans12 The main feature of mountain forests are :
[1]It consist of mixed deciduous and coniferous
forests
[2]They occur in the transition zone of mixed forest
and coniferous forests
They are found in the temperate zone of the
Himalayas, from Kashmir to assam at varying
altitude. In the south, they are found in nilgiri
and annumalai hillsat an elevation between 1000 m to
1500 m
Ans13 Desert and semi desert vegetation is found in
the area of average temperature of 25 degree to 27
degree celcius and with a rainfall of less than 25
cm.
And 14 The characteristics of mangrove forests are:
[1] They have aerial, stilt like roots.
[2]They can be seen during low tide.
[3]Mangrove forests are characterized by breathing
roots which act as respiratory organs.
Ans 15 The other names are tidal and littoral
forests
Ans 16 Afforestation means planting of trees over a
large area and deforestation means cutting of trees
over large area.
Ans 17 The two characteristic features of tropical
evergreen forests are:
[1]They are found in the areasof heavy rainfall.
[2]Trees are evergreen and do not shed their
leaves.Dence undergrowth and lack of transport
facilities make it difficult to exploit.
Ans 18 The deciduous forests are found in the areas
of average temperatureof about 24 degree to 27
degree celciusand average rainfall between 150 to
200cm.
Ans 19 Thorn and scrub are found in Rajasthan,
Punjab, western Utter Pradesh and Gujrat.Trees found
here are khair,babool and khajuri
Ans21 Sundri tree is hard , strong and durable.
Ans 22 Forest are grown in and around steel cities
to reduce pollution and to provide raw material to
the industry.
Ans 23 It is grown in Himachal Pradesh and
Kashmir.It is used for making railway sleepers and
House consruction
Ans 24 The type of vegetation is mangrove.
Ans 25 The total forest cover of the total
geographic area of India is 21.02%.
Ans26 [a] As they do not shed their leaves and
remain evergreen.
[b] As they are found in the areas of heavy
rainfall.
[c]because there the temperature is26 to 29 degree
celcius
Ans 27[a]coastal tidal forest
[b]myrabalon.
[c]deciduous monsoon forest
Ans 28 Social forestry- it create awareness
regarding conservation of forest and to meet the
need of the rural people regarding fuel and timber.
Agroforestry-it combines agricultural and forestry
technologies to create more diverse,productive and
profitable land use system.A narrow definition of
agroforestry is “ trees on farms”.
Class X Civics
Chapter 1
Question 1
Name the two types of authority in the federal set up……
answer :
1.
Central government
2.
State government.
Question 2
Name the law making bodies….
answer :
Lok sabha and rajya sabha.
Question 3
Main constituent of indian parliament…
Answer:
a.
President.
b.
Lok sabha.
c.
Rajya sabha.
Question 4.
Two house ...indian parliament.
Answer:
Lok sabha and rajya sabha are the two houses.
Question 5
Maximum strength of the lok sabha….
Answer.
552 members
Question 6:Composition of lok sabha…….
Maximum members 552.
Elected from states: 530
Elected from Union territories: 20
Nominated by the president from anglo indian community:
2.
Question 6:
Who is empowered to summon……..lok sabha?
Answer:
The president of india.
Question 7
Members nominate in lok sabha…..?
Answer:
The president may nominate 2 members to lok sabha.
Question 8.
How are the members elected …..lok sabha?
Answer:
The members of lok sabha are directly elected by the
people with the help of universal adult franchise.
Question 9
Quorum for lok sabha…
Answer:
A quorum implies the maximum number of members required
to transact the business of the house. The quorum of lok
sabha is one-tenth of the total membership of each
house.
Question 10.
How are the speaker D. speaker…...elected?
Answer:
The speaker of the lok sabha is elected from among
ruling party’s own members soon after the newly elected
for the first time. The deputy speaker is elected in the
same way as the speaker.
Question 11
Who presides …...lok sabha
Answer:
Speaker of the lok sabha
Question 12
Occasion of
president’s address…?
Answer:
1.
In case of disagreement between the two houses.
2.
In case more than 6 months have elapsed without the bill
being passed by the other house.
Question 13
Who presides ……...joint sitting?
Answer:
The speaker of the lok sabha.
Question 14
Rajya sabha member election
The members of rajya sabha elected by the elected
members of the state legislative assemblies in
accordance with a system of proportional representation
by means of a single transferable vote.
Question 15
Who presides over the rajya sabha?
Answer:
The vice president of india.
Question 16
Who presides …………...in the absence of vice president?
Answer:
The deputy chairman performs all functions and duties of
the chairman in his absence. Question 17.
Mention any ……..equal power with lok sabha?
Answer:
The lok sabha and rajya sabha enjoys equal power in the
matter of amendment to the constitution, the authorities
of the two houses are equal. Amendment has to be passed
by 2/3rd majority in each house.
Question 18
Advantages of lok sabha……………?
Answer:
1.
Members are directly elected.
2.
It controls the executive.
3.
Vote of no-confidence passed in the lok sabha.
Question 19.
What do we mean when we say that the rajya sabha is a
permanent body?
Answer :
The rajya sabha is a permanent house, as it is not
subject to dissolution. One third of its members retire
at the end
of every second year.
And new members are elected to fill the vacant
seats.
Question 20
Term of rajya sabha member?
Answer.
The rajya sabha is a permanent house, hence it cannot be
dissolved. Each member is elected for a term of six
question 21
Name the
body………...rajya sabha members.
Answer.
The members of the rajya sabha are elected by the
elected members of state legislative assemblies in
accordance with a system of proportional representation
by means of a single transferable vote.
Question 22
What is the maximum gap ………...sessions?
Answer:
Maximum six months.
Question 23.
Ex- officio chairperson.
Answer:
The vice president.
Question 24
Adjournment motion
Answer:
An adjournment motion means a proposal to lay aside all
other business and take up a definite matter of urgent
importance eg. death of several persons, a daring
dacoity, some natural calamity, and communal tension.
Question 25.
Name the lists………………….the states.
Answer:
a.
Union list
b.
State list
c.
Concurrent list.
Question 26.
Mention two circumstances ……………………….vacant.
Answer.
a.
If a member, resign his seat by writing to the speaker
or the chairman, as the case may be.
b.
If a member, without permission of the house, is absent
from all meetings for a period of 60 days.
Question 27.
Mention provisions …………………..money bills.
Answer.
1.
Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok sabha.
2.
The rajya sabha may withhold the bill for 14 days.
3.
After 14 days the bill is deemed to be passed.
Question 28.
Which bodies have the right………………...such laws?
Answer:
Both the parliament and state legislature have the right
to make laws on subjects mentioned in the concurrent
list. In case of conflict between a central and state
law, the law made by union parliament shall prevail.
Question 29
Who decides……..not?
Answer:
The speaker decides whether a particular bill is a money
bill or not.
Question 30:
Mention any circumstances ……………………….a state subject.
Answer:
Under the following circumstances…
When the rajya sabha declares by a resolution passed by
2/3rd majority that a state list subject has assumed
national importance.
Class 10 – Biology – chapter Photosynthesis
A. Multiple Choice Type
1.(b)
2.(b)
3.(b)
4.(c)
5.(a)
6.(a)
7.(d)
8.(b)
9.(a)
B. Very short answer type
1. Name the following
(a) Producers
(b) Chloroplast
(c)A.T.P
(d)Glucose
(e)Green plants
(f) Respiration
(g)Stroma
(h)Phloem
2.
(a) Iron
(b) Stroma
(c) Heterotrophs
(d)Oxygen
(e) Phloem
Descriptive type 4.Mention one difference
(a)Light-NADPH,ATP,and O2
Dark-Glucose,
(b)Producers-Autotrophic
Consumers-Heterotrophic
(c)Grass-Autotrophic
Grasshopper-Heterotrophic
C.Short answer type
1.True/False
(a) false
Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs during daytime
(b)True
(c)False
Green plants are producers.
(d)False
Respiration results in loss of dry weight of the plants.
(e)False
Photosynthesis stops at a temperature of above 40°C
(f) True
(g) True
h) True
2. Fill in the blanks
(a)Grana
(b)Iodine solution
(c)Chloroplast
(d)Calvin cycle
(e)Sucrose
3.True /False
(a)True
Photosynthesis increases with the light intensity up to
a certain limit, and then it gets stabilized. But if at
this point the carbon dioxide concentration is
increased, the photosynthesis also increases photo and
again get stabilized.
(b)False
maximum suitable temperature when the photosynthesis
occurs best is 35°Cand after which the rate of
photosynthesis falls and stops above 40°C. Others
uppermost limit the enzymes are destroyed.
(c) True
The photosynthesis does continue although the immerse
leaf receives low levels of sunlight and concentration
of carbon dioxide dissolved in water is also low.
(d)False
Plant detaching of the leaves of a potted plant can
occur during day by keeping it in a dark room for about
2 to 3 days.
(e)False
Dark reaction doesn't mean that it occurs only at night.
It means it does not depend on light.
(f)True
Because the starting point of every food chain is always
a plant which produces its own food through
photosynthesis.
4. Correct order
Photons, grana, water molecules, hydrogen and hydroxyl
ions, oxygen
5.
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
(a)Oxygen gas is released
(b) Takes place during day time
(c)A constructive process
(d)Sunlight is required.
RESPIRATION
(a)Carbon dioxide is released
(b)Takes place during day as well as night time.
(c)A destructive process
(d)Sunlight is not required
6.Complete the following food chains
(i)Grass-grasshopper-snake-eagle
(ii)Grass-mouse-snake-peacock
7.Non-green plants such as fungi and bacteria obtain
their nourishment from decaying organic matter in their
environment. This matter comes from dead animals and
plants, which in their own turn word dependent on
photosynthesis.
8.Photosynthesis is the ultimate source of energy for
all living beings. It is the only process which releases
oxygen into the atmosphere and we no that oxygen is the
life supporting gas. But photosynthesis is possible only
due to the presence of chlorophyll in green plants. Thus
all life owes its existence to chlorophyll.
9.
(1)to kill the cells
(2)remove chlorophyll
(3)iodine
(4)blue black
(5) brown
10.Oxygen is not a waste product because all organisms
required for the existence including the plants which
require it at night.
D.Descriprive type
1.(a) Photosynthesis-It is the process by which living
plant cells, containing chlorophyll, produce food
substances from carbon dioxide and water, by using light
energy.
(b)Thylakoids-These
are the flattened sacks in chloroplasts which contain
chlorophyll.
(c)Chloroplast-These are minute oval bodies bounded by a
double membrane containing chlorophyll.It is a part of
plant cell.
(d)Photolysis of water-Splitting of water molecules into
hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of light and grana.
(e)Polymerisation of water-the process when several
glucose molecules are transformed to produce one
molecule of starch is called Polymerisation.
2(a)Guard cells-opening and closing of stomata for
exchange of gases.
(b)Cuticle-allow light to enter freely
(c)Chlorophyll-trapping of Sunlight
(d)Stomata-exchange of gases
(e)Xylem tissue-conduction of water
(f)Phloem-translocation of food
3.Give reasons
(a)It is necessary to please plant in the dark before
starting an experiment on photosynthesis to destarch the
leaf.
(b)It is not possible to demonstrate respiration in
green plants kept in sunlight because both respiration
and photosynthesis are going simultaneously.
(c)Most leaves have the upper surface more green and
shiny than the lower surface because the first surface
of the leaves have more chloroplast which help in
photosynthesis. Also the thick cuticle layer on the
process of the leaf makes it shiny.
(d)(1) to kill the cells
(2) to remove chlorophyll
5.
a.Place some water plants in a beaker containing pond
water and cover them by a short stemmed funnel.
b.Invert a test tube full of water over the stem of the
funnel.
c. Play store operators in the sun for a few hours.
Bubbles of the gas will collect in the test tube.
d.When sufficient gas collected then test gas by
introducing a glowing splinter into the test tube.
e. A glowing splinter burst into flame which shows the
presence of oxygen.
E. Structured/Aplication skill type
1.
(a)1.Photons of light
2. Oxygen
3. Glucose
4. Xylem
(b)
A indicates transpiration
B indicates upward conduction of water and minerals
2(a) Food chain
(b)eagle,peacock
(c) photosynthesis
(d)oxygen
3(a)To show that chlorophyll is necessary for
photosynthesis
(b)To destarch the leaves
(c)Write the equation from page no.67 second column.
(d)Only the green parts of the leaf will turn blue black
showing the presence of starch.
(e)Diagram is on page no 67 fig.6.1
4.(a) To prove that carbon dioxide is necessary for
photosynthesis.
(b)Yes,lime water will absorb carbon dioxide and leaf
will get to know carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
(c)KOH will be taken.
(d)Yes,we will destarch the leaves of the plant before
starting the experiment.Destarching means removal of
starch and it can be done by keeping the plant in
darkness for 2 to 3 days. It is necessary otherwise
plant will not show the expected result.
5.Diagram-fig6.2A and B
6.
(a)Photosynthesis
(b)Definition is already written in Descriptive 1(a)
(c)Snail is kept in test test tube baby so that it will
evolve carbon dioxide and photosynthesis will occur.
(d)Because respiration and photosynthesis are occurring
simultaneously and carbon dioxide is continuously
produced by snail.
(e)Hydrilla
Class X Biology
Chapter 4
Absorption by Roots : The Processes Involved Exercise
Exercise -1
Question 1
Absorption of water by the plant cells by surface
attraction is called:
a) Diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Imbibition
d) Endosmosis
Solution 1
c) Imbibition
Question 2
A plant cell placed in a certain solution got
plasmolysed. What was the kind of solution?
a) Isotonic sugar solution
b) Hypotonic salt solution
c) Hypertonic salt solution
d) Isotonic salt solution
Solution 2
c) Hypertonic salt solution
Question 3
The state of a cell in which the cell wall is rigid and
stretched by the increase in volume due to the
absorption of water is called
a) Flaccidity
b) Turgidity
c) Capillarity
d) Tonicity
Solution 3
b) Turgidity
Question 4
Which one of the following is a characteristic NOT
related with the suitability of the roots for absorbing
water?
a) Tremendous surface area
b) Contain cell sap at higher concentration than the
surrounding water
c) Root hairs have thin cell walls
d) Grow downward into the soil
Solution 4
d) Grow downward into the soil
Question 5
Movement of molecules of a substance from the region of
their higher concentration to the region of their lower
concentration without the involvement of a separating
membrane, is called:
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Capillarity
Solution 5
b) Diffusion
Question 6
Osmosis and diffusion are the same except that in
osmosis there is
a) a freely permeable membrane
b) a cell wall in between
c) a selectively permeable membrane in between
d) an endless inflow of water into a cell
Solution 6
c) a selectively permeable membrane in between
Question 7
The highest water potential (capacity to move out to
higher concentrated solution) is that of
a) Pure water
b) 10% salt solution
c) Honey
d) 50% sugar solution
Solution 7
a) Pure water
Question 8
The space between the cell wall and plasma membrane in a
plasmolysed cell is filled with
a) isotonic solution
b) hypotonic solution
c) hypertonic solution
d) water
Solution 8
d) water
Question 9
What is responsible for guttation?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Root pressure
c) Suction pressure
d) Capillarity
Solution 9
b) Root pressure
Question 10
The most appropriate characteristic of semi-permeable
membrane is that
a) it has minute pores
b) it has no pores
c) it allows the solute to pass through but not the
solvent
d) it allows a solvent to pass through freely but
prevents the passage of the solute
Solution 10
d) it allows a solvent to pass through freely but
prevents the passage of the solute
Question 11
Name the following:
(a) The condition of a cell
placed in a hypotonic solution.
(b) Process by
which intact plants lose water in the form of droplets
from leaf margins.
(c) Process by which water
enters root hairs.
(d) The tissue concerned with
upward conduction of water in plants.
(e) The
term for the inward movement of solvent molecules
through the plasma membrane of a cell.
(f) The
process by which molecules distribute themselves evenly
within the space they occupy.
(g) The pressure
which is responsible for the movement of water molecules
across the cortical cells of the root.
Solution 11
(a) Turgidity
(b) Guttation
(c) Osmosis
(d) Xylem
(e) Endosmosis
(f) Diffusion
(g) Root pressure
Question 12
Give the equivalent terms for the following:
(a)
Pressure exerted by the cell contents on the cell wall.
(b) The condition in which the cell contents are
shrunken.
(c) Loss of water through a cut stem.
Solution 12
(a) Turgor pressure
(b) Flaccidity
(c)
Bleeding
Question 13
Complete the following statements:
(a) Hypotonic
solution is one in which the solution kept outside the
cell has lower solute concentration than __________ the
cell.
(b) Active transport is one in which the
ions outside the roots move in with expenditure of
energy __________.
(c) The bending movements of
certain flowers towards the sun and the sleep movements
of certain plants at night are examples of _____.
Solution 13
(a) the fluids inside
(b) from the region of
their lower concentration outside to the region of their
higher concentration inside
(c) turgor movements
Question 14
Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct alternative
from those given in brackets:
(a) When placed in
a more concentrated solution, the cell contents will
........... (shrink/swell up)
(b) The pressure by
which the ............. molecules tend to cross the
semi-permeable membrane is called osmotic pressure.
(salt/water)
(c) Active transport is in a
direction .............. to that of diffusion.
(opposite/same)
Solution 14
(a) shrink
(b) water
(c) opposite
Question 15
Match the terms in column I those in column II
|
Column I
|
Column II
|
a
|
Xylem
|
(i) semi-permeable
|
b
|
Phloem
|
(ii) permeable
|
c
|
Cell membrane
|
(iii) downward flow of sap
|
d
|
Root pressure
|
(iv) upward flow of water
|
e
|
Cell wall
|
(v) guttation
|
Solution 15
|
Column I
|
Column II
|
a
|
Xylem
|
(iv) upward flow of water
|
b
|
Phloem
|
(iii) downward flow of sap
|
c
|
Cell membrane
|
(i) semi-permeable
|
d
|
Root pressure
|
(v) guttation
|
e
|
Cell wall
|
(ii) permeable
|
Question 16
Differentiate between the following :
(a)
Plasmolysis and deplasmolysis
(b) Turgor pressure
and wall pressure
(c) Guttation and bleeding
(d) Turgidity and flaccidity
Solution 16
(a)
Plasmolysis
|
Deplasmolysis
|
1. It refers to the shrinkage of the
cytoplasm and withdrawal of the plasma
membrane from the cell wall caused due to
the withdrawal of water when placed in a
hypertonic solution.
2. In Plasmolysis, the cell becomes flaccid.
|
1.Deplasmolysis is the recovery of a
plasmolysed cell when it is placed in water,
wherein the cell's protoplasm again swells
up due to the re-entry of water.
2. In deplasmolysis, the cell becomes
turgid.
|
(b)
Turgor pressure
|
Wall pressure
|
Turgor pressure is the pressure of the cell
contents on the cell wall.
|
Wall pressure is the pressure exerted by the
cell wall on the cell content.
|
(c)
Guttation
|
Bleeding
|
Guttation is the process by which drops of
water appear along leaf margins due to
excessive root pressure.
|
Bleeding is the loss of cell sap through a
cut stem.
|
(d)
Turgidity
|
Flaccidity
|
1. It is the state of a cell in which the
cell cannot accommodate any more water and
it is fully distended.
|
1. It
is the condition in which the cell content
is shrunken and the cell is not tight.
|
Question 17
What is the difference between flaccid and turgid? Give
one example of flaccid condition in plants.
Solution 17
The cell is said to be turgid when the plant cell wall
becomes rigid and stretched by an increase in the volume
of vacuoles due to the absorption of water when placed
in hypotonic solution. On the other hand, the cell is
said to be flaccid when the cell contents get shrunken
when the cell is placed in hypertonic solution and the
cell is no more tight. Flaccidity is the reverse of
turgidity.
Example Weeds can be killed in a
playground by sprinkling excessive salts around their
base.
Or
A plant cell when immersed in hypertonic solution
like salt solution for about 30 minutes will become
flaccid or limp.
Question 18
Give reasons for the following:
(a) If you
sprinkle some common salt on grass growing on a lawn, it
is killed at that spot.
(b) If you uproot a plant
from the soil, its leaves soon wilt.
(c) It is
better to transplant seedlings in a flower-bed in the
evening and not in the morning.
(d) A plant cell
when kept in a hypertonic salt solution for about 30
minutes turns flaccid.
(e) Potato cubes when placed in water become firm and
increase in size.
Solution 18
(a) Common salt when sprinkled on the grass causes the
Plasmolysis of grass cell ultimately leading them to
death. Hence, if we sprinkle some common salt on grass
growing on a lawn, it is killed at the spot.
(b)
If a plant is uprooted, the leaves continue losing water
by transpiration, but there is no more water absorbed
the roots. This does not allow the compensation for the
loss of water by transpiration; hence the leaves of the
uprooted plant wilt soon.
(c) Transplantation
causes stress to the seedlings. If the seedlings are
transplanted in the morning, they would have to
immediately bear the additional stress of excessive
transpiration occurring during the hot afternoon.
Transplantation in the evening helps the seedlings to
adjust for a longer time during the night (cooler
temperatures) because the quantity of water absorbed
exceeds the loss of water through transpiration.
Therefore, it is better to transplant seedling in a
flower bed in the evening and not in the morning.
(d) In a hypertonic solution, the solution outside
the cell has higher solute concentration than the fluids
inside the cell. Therefore, water flows out from the
plant cell due to exosmosis. The cytoplasm shrinks and
the plasma membrane withdraws away from the cell wall
and this the cell becomes flaccid. Hence a plant cell
when kept in a hypertonic salt solution for about 30
minutes turns flaccid.
(e) Potato cubes contain excess of salts and sugars as
compared to the water in which the cubes are placed.
Hence, due to endosmosis, water from the surrounding
enters the potato cubes making them firm and increasing
their size.
Question 19
Mention whether the following statements are true (T) or
false (F) and give explanation in support of your
answer.
(a) Plasmolysis is reverse of
deplasmolysis.
(b) Guttation is another name for
bleeding in plants.
(c) Soaked seeds burst three
seed coats
(d) If the phloem of a twig is removed
keeping the xylem intact, the leaves of a twig wilt.
(e) Guttation in plants occurs maximum at mid-day.
(f) Dry seeds when submerged in water swell up due
to endosmosis.
Solution 19
(a) True.
Plasmolysis occurs due to outflow of
water from the cell when placed in hypertonic solution
due to which the cytoplasm shrinks away from the cell
wall. On the other hand, deplasmolysis is the result of
the re-entry of water into the plasmolysed cell when
placed in hypotonic solution due to which the protoplasm
again swells up pressing tight against the cell wall.
(b) False.
Guttation is the process by which
drops of water appear along leaf margins due to
excessive root pressure whereas bleeding is the loss of
cell sap through a cut stem.
(c) False.
There is only one seed coat in a seed.
(d) False.
The leaves of the twig remain turgid since its xylem
is intact and xylem is responsible for water conduction
in plants.
(e) False.
Guttation occurs due
to excessive root pressure. It is maximum when root
pressure is maximum which occurs in the early mornings
or at night. This is because during these times,
transpiration is very low and water absorption is very
high.
(f) False.
Dry seeds when submerged
in water swell up due to imbibitions. On contact with
water dry seeds imbibe water and swell up.
Question 20
Give two examples of turgor movements in plants.
Solution 20
Examples of turgor movements in plants:
(i) In
Mimosa pudica, a sensitive plant, the stimulus of touch
leads to loss of turgor at the base of the leaflets and
at the base of the petioles called pulvinus. This causes
the folding and drooping of leaves of the plant.
(ii) The leaves of insectivorous plants close up to
entrap a living prey. When the insect come in contact
with the leaf, it loses it turgor hence closing the
leaves of the plant.
(iii) The bending movements
of certain flowers towards the sun.
(Any two)
Question 21
Explain the mechanism of the closing and opening of the
stomata.
Solution 21
The closing and opening of the stomata depends on the
turgidity of the guard cells. Each guard cell has a
thicker wall on the side facing the stoma and a thin
wall on the opposite side. Guard cells contain
chloroplasts. As a result of the synthesis of glucose
during photosynthesis and some other chemical changes,
the osmotic pressure of the contents of the guard cells
increases and they absorb more water from the
neighbouring cells, thus becoming turgid. Due to turgor,
the guard cells become more arched outwards and the
aperture between them widens, thereby opening the stoma.
At night or when there is shortage of water in
the leaf, the guard cells turn flaccid and their inner
rigid walls become straight, thus closing the stomatal
aperture.
Question 22
Concentration of mineral nutrient elements is higher
inside the root-hairs than in the surrounding soil. How
do roots take them in from the soil?
Solution 22
If the concentration of mineral nutrient elements is
higher inside the root-hairs than in the surrounding
soil, then roots take them in from the soil by 'active
transport'. In active transport, the mineral ions are
forcibly carried from the surrounding soil i.e. the
region of their lower concentration into the roots i.e.
the region of their higher concentration through the
cell membrane by expenditure of energy. This energy is
supplied by the cell in the form of ATP.
Question 23
Explain how soaked seeds swell up and burst their seed
coats.
Solution 23
When soaked in water, the seeds swell up due to
imbibition and endosmosis. During these two processes
water enters the cell. Due to endosmosis, at some point,
the seed coat is unable to bear the turgor pressure and
hence, the seed coat bursts.
Question 24
Leaves of the sensitive plant wilt and droop down on a
slight touch. What mechanism brings about this change?
Solution 24
Leaves of the sensitive plant wilt and droop down on a
slight touch due to turgor movement. Petiole of
sensitive plant is held up by turgid pulvinus tissue.
The stimulus of touch leads to loss of turgor at the
base of the leaflets and at the base of the petioles
i.e. pulvinus. The cells of the lower side of pulvinus
lose water and the petiole collapses. This causes the
wilting and drooping of the leaves.
Question 25
What is transpirational pull? How is it caused?
Solution 25
As water is lost from the leaf surface by transpiration,
more water molecules are pulled up due to the tendency
of water molecules to remain joined i.e. cohesion. This
produces a continuous column of water throughout the
stem which is known as 'transpiration pull'. A negative
pressure or tension is produced in the xylem that pulls
the water from the roots and soil. Transpirational pull
is an important force which causes the ascent of sap.
Question 26
The following diagram represents a plant cell after
being place in a strong sugar solution.
Guidelines 1 to 5 indicate the following:
(1) Cell Wall
(2) Strong Sugar Solution
(3) Protoplasm
(4) Large Vacuole
(5)
Nucleus
(a) What is the state of the cell
shown in the diagram?
(b) Name the structure
which acts as a selectively permeable membrane.
(c) If the cell had been placed in distilled water
instead of strong sugar solution, which feature would
not have been seen?
(d) Name any one feature of
this plant cell which is not present in an animal cell.
Solution 26
(a) The cell is flaccid i.e. it is plasmolysed.
(b) Plasma Membrane
(c) Plasmolysis would not
occur and flaccidity would not be seen i.e. the
protoplasm would not have shrunken away from the cell
wall.
(d) Cell Wall is absent in animal cell.
Question 27
A leaf cell of a water plant was placed in a liquid
other than pond water. After sometime, it assumed a
shape as shown below:
(a) Give the term for the state of the cell it
has acquired.
(b) Comment on the nature
(tonicity) of the liquid surrounding the cell.
(c) Redraw in the space provided, the diagram of the
cell if it is soon placed in ordinary water for some
time.
Solution 27
(a) Flaccid Cell
(b) The liquid is hypertonic
solution. It has higher solute concentration outside the
cell than the fluids inside the cell. (c)
Question 28
The diagram below represents a layer of epidermal cells
showing a fully grown root hair. Study the diagram and
answer the questions that follow:
a. Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D.
b. The root hair cell is in a turgid state. Name and
explain the process that caused this state.
c. Mention one distinct difference between the parts
labelled A and B.
d. Draw a diagram of the above root hair cell as it
would appear when a concentrated solution of fertilizers
is added near it.
Solution 28
a.
A - Cell wall
B - Cell membrane
C - Cytoplasm
D - Nucleus
b. A root hair gets turgid because of the absorption of
water from the surrounding. Absorption of water by root
hair is achieved by the process of osmosis. The
concentration of water in the surrounding is more than
that of the interior of the cell; this causes the water
from the surrounding to move in because of endosmosis.
c.
Cell wall
|
Cell membrane
|
The cell wall of a root hair is freely
permeable and allows both salt and water to
pass through.
|
The cell membrane of a root hair is
semi-permeable and does not allow large
dissolved salt molecules to pass through.
|
d.
Question 29
Two potato cubes each 1 cm3 in size, were placed
separately in two containers (A and B), the container A
having water and the other (B) containing concentrated
sugar solution. After 24 hours when the cubes were
examined, those placed in water were found to be firm
and had increased slightly in size and those placed in
concentrated sugar solution were found to be soft and
somewhat decreased in size. Use the above information to
answer the questions that follow:
(a) Account for
the firmness and increase in the size of the potato
cubes placed in water.
(b) Account for the
softness and decrease in size of the potato cubes which
were placed in sugar solution.
(c) Name and
define the physical process being investigated in this
experiment.
Solution 29
(a) Water is hypotonic to the potato cells, due to which
endosmosis occurs and water enters the potato cells. The
protoplasm swells up pressing tight against the cell
wall. The cells are fully distended i.e. turgid. This
causes the firmness and increase in the size of the
potato cubes when placed in water.
(b) Sugar
solution is hypertonic to the potato cells, due to which
exosmosis occurs and water flows out of the potato
cells. The potato cell loses its distended appearance,
the cytoplasm shrinks and the plasma membrane withdraws
from the cell wall. The cells become limp or flaccid.
This causes the softness and decrease in size of the
potato cubes when placed in sugar solution.
(c)
The process being investigated is osmosis. Osmosis is
the diffusion of water molecules across a semi-permeable
membrane from a more dilute solution (with a lower
solute concentration) to a less dilute solution (with a
higher solute concentration).
Question 30
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions
that follow:
(a) Name the process being studied in the above
experiment.
(b) Explain the process mentioned in
(a) above
(c) Why is oil placed over water?
(d) What do we observe with regard to the level of
water when this set up is placed in (1) bright sunlight
(2) humid conditions (3) windy day?
(e) Mention
any three adaptations found in plants to foster the
process mentioned in (a) above
Solution 30
(a) The process of water absorption by plant roots
through osmosis is being studied here.
(b) A
root-hair contains cell sap which contains higher
concentration of salts as compared to outside soil
water. This difference sets off osmosis and outside
water diffuses into the root-hair. From the cell bearing
root-hair, water passes into adjoining cells one after
another to finally the xylem vessels.
(c) The surface of water was covered with oil to prevent
any loss of water by evaporation.
(d) Roots
absorb water and hence, the level of water in set up A
falls down. Since the surface of water was covered with
oil, there will be no effect of factors such as bright
sunlight, humid conditions and windy day on the given
set up. Hence, the level of water
(e) Adaptations
in plants to foster the process of absorption of water
by plant roots:
·
Large surface area provided by rootlets and root hairs
·
Root hairs containing cell sap at a higher concentration
than that of the surrounding water
·
Root hairs with thin walls
Question 31
Show by a series of diagrams, the change which a plant
cell will undergo when placed in
(a) Hypertonic
salt solution and
(b) Hypotonic salt solution.
Solution 31
(a)
(b)
Question 32
Study the experimental setup in the figure and then
answer the questions that follow.
(a) What phenomenon is being studied by this setup?
(b) Explain the phenomenon mention in (a) above.
(c) What is meant by 'semipermeable membrane'?
(d) What will you observe in the setup after about half
an hour? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution 32
(a) Osmosis
(b) Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from
their region of higher concentration (dilute solution)
to their region of lower concentration (concentrated
solution) through a semipermeable membrane.
(c) A semipermeable membrane is a membrane which allows
the passage of molecules selectively. It allows a
solvent such as water molecules to pass through it
freely but prevents the passage of the solute (sugar or
salt molecules in solution).
(d) Water molecules will continue to pass from 5%
sucrose solution to 10% sucrose solution through the
semipermeable membrane due to osmosis. This will
continue till the concentration of water molecules
becomes the same in both ends of the setup.
Question 33
A candidate in order to study the process of osmosis has
taken 3 potato cubes and put them in 3 different beakers
containing 3 different solutions. After 24 hours, in the
first beaker the potato cube increased in size, in the
second beaker the potato cube decreased in size and in
the third beaker, there was no change in the size of the
potato cube. The following diagram shows the result of
the same experiment.
(a) Give the technical terms of the solutions used in
the beakers 1, 2 and 3.
(b) In beaker 3, the size of the potato cube remains the
same. Explain the reason in brief.
(c) Write the specific features of the cell sap of root
hair which helps in absorption of water.
(d) What is osmosis?
(e) How does a cell wall and a cell membrane differ in
their permeability?
Solution 33
(a) Solution 1 - Hypotonic solution
Solution 2 - Hypertonic solution
Solution 3 - Isotonic solution
(b) In beaker 3, the solution present is an isotonic
solution, i.e. the relative concentration of water
molecules and solutes is the same in the solution as
well as inside the cell. There is no movement of water
molecules across the cell membrane. Hence, the size of
potato cubes remains the same.
(c) The cell sap of root hair has a higher concentration
of solute than the surrounding water.
(d) Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules across a
semi-permeable membrane from the region of dilute
solution (i.e. a lower solute concentration) to the
region of concentrated solution (i.e. a higher solute
concentration).
(e) The cell wall is freely permeable to all substances,
while the cell membrane is selectively permeable and
allows only certain substances to enter or exit the
cell.
Class X- Physical Education
CHAPTER-1
Very short answers
1.The term growth implies an increase in size. When the
body or any part is described as having growth it
usually means that it has become larger and heavier. It
is thus we say growth of arms, brain, muscles or the
body in general. Growth means increase or addition in
size, height, length or weight and can be measured.
2. Development implies certain qualitative changes.
These are the changes in character leading to maturity
of improvement in functioning. Arms grow large but also
develop by undergoing certain changes which equip them
for better work. Development means change in shape,form
or structure so as to improve in working or functioning.
3. :-Growth doesn't continue throughout life whereas
development is a continuous process.
:-Growth is cellular and can be measured accurately
whereas development is functional or organizational,thus
a subjective interpretation of one's changes.
4. :-Heridity(explain)
:- Environment(explain)
5. Acc. to Jersild," Adolescence is a period through
which a growing person makes transition from childhood
to maturity."
6. The stages of Growth and Development are:
:- Infancy stage(from birth to 5years)
:- Childhood stage(from 5to 12 years)
:- Adolescence stage(from 12 to 19 years)
:-Adulthood stage (19 to 65 years)
:-Old age(60 years onwards)
7. In this period, rapid physical changes happen.
Puberty brings remarkable sex difference which changes
the shape of an individual,such as breast development,
muscular changes,bone hardening, moustaches and change
in voice, blackheads, pimples and acne over skin etc.
8. :-Aggressive and violent behaviour (explain)
:-Wastage of time (explain)
9. :-Providing healthy environment (explain)
:-Proper sex education (explain)
10. :-Youth stage(from 19 to 35 years)(explain)
:-Adult stage (from 35 to 65 years)(explain)
Match the following:
"Sequence"
3, 7, 8, 5, 2, 1, 4, 9, 6
Short answers:
1. Done
2. Done
3. Two differences are already discussed,rest four are:
:-Growth is quantitative process whereas Development is
qualitative process.
:-Growth is one of the aspects of development process
whereas Development is wider and comprehensive term.
:-Growth changes are physical and physiological whereas
development changes are functional, psychological etc.
:-Growth is purely physical term like change in size,
length, height and weight of an individual whereas
development implies overall changes in shape,form or
structure resulting in improved working or functioning.
4. Heredity, environment, gender, nutritional, physical
activity, health problems and age(all points with
explaination)
5. Childhood stage (from 5 to 12 years)
:-Early childhood stage(from 5 to 7 years)
:-Middle childhood stage (7 to 10 years)
:-Later childhood stage (from 11 to 12 years)(all points
with explaination)
6. Adolescence changes:
:- Physical changes
:-Psychological changes
:-Emotional changes
:-Social changes(all points with explaination)
7. Problems of teen:
:-Aggressive and violent behaviour
:-wastage of time
:-Friends given importance
:-Overconfident and hide mistakes
:-Wrong sexual desires
:-Lavish expenses(explain all points)
8.
:-Proper knowledge of Adolescence psychology
:-providing healthy environment
:-proper sex education
:-correction and checking of mistakes
:- proper use of time
:-mode of education(explain all points)
9. Done
Long answers:
1. Done
2. Infancy stage (from birth to 5 years):
:-pre-natal stage (from conception till birth)
:-babyhood stage(from birth to 5 years)(explain all
points)
Childhood stage(discussed)
3. Done
4. Done
CHAPTER-2
Class X- Physical Education
Very short answers:
1. Acc. to J.B.Nash,"Physical education is that field of
education which deals with big muscle activities and
their related responses."
2. Acc. to J.F.William,"Aim of physical education is
complete living through wholesome development of human
personality."
3. The objectives of physical education:
:-Physical development
:-Psychological development
:-Social development
:-Emotional development (explain all points)
Match the following:
Sequence:
3, 4, 1, 2
Short answers:
1. Physical Development :-The objective is wholesome
physical growth through physical activities.Also to
improve neuromuscular responses and leads to maximum
organic growth. To guide a person to make his body
strong,well shaped, good looking, good working of
internal organs, good health and improves the physical
personality.
Social Development: The objective is to follow the
rules, regulations, traditions and laws of society.
To develop the social qualities like cooperative
behaviour, friendship, togetherness, honesty, obedience,
sincerity, tolerance, adjustment, leadership, boldness,
self-control, self-discipline etc. To be an ideal
citizen and a useful member of the society.
2. To counter the declining fitness trend,many schools
and districts have taken a closer look at their physical
education programmes. These programmes are recognizing
the academic benefits of quality fitness programmes
through varied exercises focusing on overall health of
the children.
3. The current trend in physical education instruction
has focussed less on fun and team sports and more on
getting children healthy. Instructors have had to
outline and define goals specific to increasing
life-long health. They have identified three cores areas
for focus : current fitness levels,educating health
matters and teaching how to plan for long-term exercise.
The first key is a focus on fitness. The overall quality
of physical education classes has shifted from a fun
release of energy to an increased scope of physical
health.
Long answers:
1. Done
2. Done
3. B.P.E(Bachelor of physical education) : physical
education teacher in school, fitness instructor etc.,
M.P.E(Master of physical education) : lecturer in senior
secondary schools or in colleges etc. , M.S.S(Master of
sports science) : lecturer in college etc. , NIS diploma
(National institute of sports diploma in a specific
game) : specific game coach in school, college,
University, sports department etc.
CHAPTER-3
Class X- Physical Education
Very sorry answers:
1. It is classification of human body according to it's
shape and physique. It was developed by W.H.Sheldon. He
classified the human body in terms of three extreme body
types : Endomorphic, Mesomorphic and Ectomorphic.
2. Ectomorph :- lean and long, with difficulty in
building muscles.
Endomorph : big, high body fat, often pear-shaped, with
a high tendency to store body fat.
Mesomorph : muscular and well-built, with a high
metabolism and responsive muscle cells.
3. Done(explain in full)
4. Done(explain in full)
Match the following:
Sequence:
3, 1, 2, 4
Short answers:
1. W.H Sheldon (explain)
2. Done (explain in full)
3. Done (explain in full)
4. Done(explain in full)
Long answers:
1. Done(explain all three body types in full)
2. Done(explain both separately in full)
CHAPTER-4
Very short answers:
1. Acc. to David.R.Lamb,"Physical fitness is the
capacity to meet the present and potential physical
challenges of life with success."
2. It is the ability to produce force or ability of
muscles to overcome resistance.
3. It is the combination of circulatory and respiratory
system to provide continuous flow of energy for long
work-out with slow speed. Helpful for long distance
races, Football, Hockey etc.
4. It is the combination of strength, speed and
endurance ability for long duration with high speed.
Helpful for fast games, middle distance races,
Badminton, Tennis etc.
5. Passive flexibility and
Active flexibility (two types)
:-Static flexibility
:-Dynamic flexibility
6. It is the ability to overcome resistance with high
speed. It provide forceful movement for short duration.
Helpful for jumps,throws,power lifting etc.
Match the following:
Sequence:
2 , 4, 5, 6, 1, 3, 7
Short answers:
1.
:-Total efficiency is improved
:-Better quality of work
:-Optimum growth and development
:-Better utilization of time
:-Healthy Environment
:-Good looking physique(explain all points)
2. Cardiovascular endurance, stamina and accuracy
(explain all three)
3. Done(explain both separately)
4. Strength (done)
Types:
Static strength (also known as isometric strength. It is
the ability to act against resistance from single
position. Helpful for high power games like power
lifting, pushing the wall etc.
:-Growth(It is the ability to overcome resistance with
high speed. It provide forceful movement for short
duration. Helpful for jumps, throws, power lifting etc.
5. Accuracy (It is the hitting the target to achieve
goal or 100 percent perfection)
Balance (It is the ability to stay up-right or stay in
control of the body movement on small place)
Two types of Balance:
Static Balance (It is balancing at ones stationary
point)
Dynamic Balance (It is the ability to balance on moving
point)
6. Parts of Speed:
Reaction Time(It is the time taken by the body to
respond immediately after stimulus. It is the first
reaction to bring the body into action)
Acceleration (It is the time taken by the body to reach
to maximum speed)
Speed of Movement (It is the quickness of complete
action or movement)
7. Football (Cardiovascular endurance),
Badminton (Stamina),
Long Jump (Power), 100m Sprint(Speed) and Gymnastics
(Flexibility)
Long answers:
1. Done
2. Cardiovascular endurance, Stamina, strength, speed,
flexibility, agility, balance and accuracy (explain all)
3. Stamina : It is the endurance where the anaerobic
type of activity is done, when the intensity or speed is
very fast. This endurance is for shorter duration and
also known as muscular endurance as activity is
performed in absence of oxygen with the help of stored
energy in muscle glycogen. It produces a lot of fatigue
and tiredness as it causes oxygen-debt. It is required
for games and sports like Tennis, Badminton,Handball,
Basketball, Volleyball, Middle distance races, Swimming
etc.
Cardiovascular endurance : It is the endurance of
aerobic nature where speed is slow. It delays
fatigue,thus it is required for middle and long distance
races like road cycling, cross-country, marathon race
and it is required for almost all major games like
Football, Hockey, Basketball, Handball etc.
4. Speed is the ability to perform movement at faster
rate. It is basically dependent on heredity but can be
improved through proper training. It depends upon the
white muscle fibres(fast twitch). It is one of the
important components for sprints(100m,200m and 400m)
which can be measured through reflex test,short Sprint
etc.
It is of three types:
:-Reaction Time
:-Acceleration
:-Speed of Movement (explain all three)
5. Done(explain both separately)
HOME
Class X- History and Civics
Chapter 1 (history)
Question 1
What is the nature of the revolt of 1857
Answer:
According to british point of view it was sepoys’ mutiny
but according to indian nationalists it was first war of
independence.
Quetion 2
Why was the revolt os 1857 hailed as first war of
independence?
Answer
People of different catses, communities and religions
came together for the first time and fought for
independence.
Question 3
Mention two political causes of the first war of
independence
Answer
Two political causes are
1.
The british policy of annexation of kingdoms under the
pretext of inefficient administration of the rulers
2.
The doctrine of lapse introduced by lord dalhousie that
imposed unisentimental law of no adoption policy for the
rulers and lapse of kingdom into the hands of british in
the absence of natural heir.
Question 4
Name two ways in which the british expanded their
territorial power in india.
Answer:
1.
British got right to diwani in 1765.
2.
Doctrine of lapse.
3.
Subsidiary allaince.
4.
On the pretext of alleged misrule.
5.
By outright wars
Question 5.
What is subsidiary allaince? Name the states annexed
with the help of it.
Answer .
It was an agreement between the british east india
company and the indian princely states by virtueof which
these states lost their sovereignty to the british.
Under this system, the indian rulers, who agreed to the
subsidiary allaince.
1.
Accepted the british as the supreme power
2.
Agreed to maintain british troops at thier own cost
Hyderabad and mysore were the two states.
Question 6.
Explain the term doctrine of lapse. Name the two states
annexed under this policy.
Answer
Policy of doctrine of lapse was followed by lord
dalhousie. The doctrine meant that when a ruler of a
dependent state died without a natural heir, the state
is passed on to the english- company. States annexed
were sambhalpur, nagpur, udaypur.
Question 7.
Who was nana saheb?what was his main grievance against
british?
Answer
Nana saheb was the adopted son of Baji Rao II, the last
peshwa the british refused to accept nana saheb, the
adopted son as the last peshwa baji rao II as the ruler
of the maratha and was refused to give the pension which
his father was getting.
Question 8
Which policy was used against rani laxmi bai? Why rani
luxmi became bitter enemy?
Answer:
The policy used against rani luxmi bai was doctrine of
lapse. Rani luxmi bai became bitter enemy of british
because her adopted son anand rao was not recognised as
a lawful successor to the throne.
Question 9
State two anouncement which adveresly affected mughal
empire?
Answer:
1.
The successors of bahadur shah would not be permitted to
use the red fort as thier palace.
2.
The successors of bahadur shah would not be permitted to
use the imperial title of mughal emperor
Question 10
Mention any two consequences of awadh annexation
Answer:
1.
Several officials and soldiers lost thier jobs which
brought unemployment.
2.
The british took away lands from the taluqdars. These
taluqdars became firm opponents of the british
Question 11
State any two cosequences of the dibanding of the armies
of the annexed states.
Answer:
1.It brought large scale unemploment.
2. It also gave rise to poverty as large no. Of families
got effected.
3. the people of awadh had to pay higher land revenue
and additional taxes on food, houses, ferries and
justice.
Question 12
Give the meaning of absentee sovereignty. Why was it
resented by the idians?
Answer:
It means that india was being ruled by the british
government from england, at a distance of thousands of
miles.
The indians felt the india’s wealth was being drained to
england and not utilised for their welfare.
Question 13
What were the apprehensions of indians about the
introduction of the railways?
Answer:
It was looked down uponas a means to break social order
and caste rules.people of all castes has to sit together
in railway compartments. This was regarded as an attempt
to interfere with the caste rules.
Question 14
Mention any two social reforms advocated by the british
which affected the religion traditions of the indian
people.
Answer:
Sati system and no permission to widow remarriage was
prevailing in the society.
The british government passed the widow re marriage act
in 1856 and sati system was defeated illegal by passing
an act.
Question15
Mention any two measures which point to the policy of
social discrimination followed by the british in india.
Answer:
1.
British continued their policy of divide and rule
2.
They believed in their racial superiority and they
thought that a distance was maintained to preserve their
authority over indians
3.
They clearly used the attraction of the government
service to create a split along religious lines among
educated indians.
Question 16
Give two example to show how the british exploited
resources of india.
Answer:
India was forced to export at cheaper rates raw
materials like raw cotton and raw silk as duty free to
british industries.
All trade and commerce had gone into the hands of the
english.
Question 17
Give any two grievances of the peasantry against the
british? Answer:
1.
The peasants were discontented with the official land
revenue policy.
2.
It was the peasantry that bore the heavy burden of
exorbitant taxes to provide money for the trade and
profits of the company.
Question 18
What did british do to reduce the landed aristocracy to
poverty?
Answer:
1.
Economic exploitation
2.
Decay of indigenous industries
3.
High taxation
4.
The drain of wealth
5.
Stagnation of agriculture
Question 19
General service enlistment act and provision that
resented the indian soldiers
Answer:
This act hurt the sentiments of sepoys because according
to the current religious beliefs of the hindus, travel
across the seas was considered a sin. This act cause
great resentment in the minds of the personnel of the
begngal army.
Question 20
Mention any two grievances harboured by the indian
soldiers which created an atmosphere favourable to the
first war of independence.
Answer:
1.
All higher posts were reserved for british in
employment.
2.
An indian soldier could not rise above the rank of
subedar.
3.
Indian soldier were required to serve in areas away from
their homes without extra and additional bhatta.
Question 21.
Impact of defeat of british in first afghan war.
Answer:
The defeat in the first afghan war increased the self
confidence of the indian soldiers, who felt, they could
challenge the britain in india too.
Question 22
Immediate cause of the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
The immediate cause of the uprising was the use of
greased cartridges in the rifles after biting the end of
cartridge with their teeth. It was thought that the
cartridges were greased with the fats of cow and pig. So
both hindu and muslim soldiers refused to use these
cartridges.
Question 23
Mangal pandey?
Answer:
Mangal pandey was a brahmin soldier, who refused to use
the greased cartridges on 29th march, 1857
and killed two english officers. He was hanged
consequently, this resulted in general uprising in
meerut, delhi, kanpur, lucknow and jhansi.
Question 24
What was the result of indian independence on the east
india company?
Answer:
The first war of independence ended the east india
company’s rule in india since the british statesmen
thought it unwise to leave the government of vast
country in the hands of private trading company.
Question 25
How was the army organised after the first war of
independence?
Answer:
The portion of british indian soldiers was increased and
different castes and creeds were mixed to avoid any
other revolt.
Question 26.
Imapct of revolt of 1857 on peshwaship and mughal rule.
Answer :
1.
With the death of bahadur shah II the mughal dynasty
came to an end.
2.
Nana saheb, the last peshwa had taken part in the
uprising and had to flee to nepal after the failure of
the uprising. So the office of peshwa also came to an
end.
Question 27.
Mention any two drawbacks of the first war of
independence.
Answer:
1.
Lack of common plans
2.
Lack of leadership
lass - x
Geography
SOIL RESOURCES IN INDIA
[10 class]
Ans 1: Soil is formed under specific natural conditions.
It is a mixture of minerals or inorganic matter which
result from denudation and disintigration of rocks.
Ans 2 : Soil formation is related to the parent rock
material, relief, climate and vegetation. Animals
insects and man also play an important role in the
formation of soil.
Ans 3 : soil is a mixture of inorganic material ,
minerals and organic material like humus.Inorganic
components like silica,clay and chalk.
Ans 4 :The major soils are alluvial soils,black soils
and red soils.
Ans 5 :Alluvial soils are very fertile because every
year fresh sediments are deposited by rivers.
Ans 6 :Black soils are formed in situ i.e, formed where
they are found.They are called residual soil. These
soils have originated from solidification of basic lava
spread over large area of deccan pleateau during
volcanic activity.
Ans 7 : No black soil doesnot undergo leaching.
Ans 8 : The other name of black soils are Regur and
black cotton soils
Characteristics :
1: Retains moisture and becomes sticky when wet .
2: Releases moisture during dry period.
Ans 9 : Red soil are not suitable for agriculture
because it lacks lime,magnesia,phosphate,nitrogen and
humus and are rich in potash and become fertile with
proper use of fertilizers and irrigation
Ans 10
Leaching is a process in which the mineral nutrients are
washed away making the top soil infertile. The example
of a leached soil is laterite soil
Ans 11:Alluvial soil is widely distributed over the
ganga basin.
Ans 12 : The most widely transported soil is the
alluvial soil.
Ans 13 : Laterite soil is suitable for growing coffee in
india .
Ans 14: Laterite soil is found on the summit of eastern
ghats.
Ans 15: Mountain soil is rich in humus but deficient in
phosphate ,potash and lime .
Ans 16: Desert soil is found in thse area which receive
rainfall below 50 cm features.It contains low percentage
of organic matter due to dry climate and absence of
vegetation.Soil is alkaline is nature as there is no
rainfall to wash soluble salt.
Ans 17 : Laterite soils are formed under condition of
high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet
and dry period.
Ans 18 : Monsoon condition promote leaching of the soil
i.e the heavy rainfall washes away the top soil
containing silica.
Ans 19: Soil erosion is the removal of the top soil by
different agents like wind and water.
Types :
[1] Splash erosion
[2] Sheet erosion
[3] Gully erosion
Ans 20 : Soil conservation is an effort made to prevent
soil erosion or reduce the rate of soil erosion.
Ways to reduce erosion:
Aforestation, to check overgrazing and constructing dams
and barrages.
Ans 21 : [1] Top soil –it is the uppermost layer of soil
consisting of humus which is very fertile.
[2] In situ-the soil formed where they are found.
[3] Bhanger-it consist of old alluvium,contains kankar,
pebbles and gravels and are dark in colour.
[4] Khadar-it consist of new alluvial,contain fine sand
and clay and are pale brown in colour.
[5] Humus- it is dark organic material in soils produced
by the decomposition of vegetables or animal matter and
is essential to the
fertility of the soil.
Class - X
BIOLOGY
D. Long answer type
1.Due to the shortage of water the leaves droop down and
loose their turgidity.This flaccid condition of leaves
is called wilting. Some plants show wilting of their
leaves at noon even when the soil is well watered
because the rate of transpiration at that time is higher
than the rate of absorption of water by the roots.
2.The stomata in most plants are more numerous on the
lower surface of a leaf instead of being on the upper
surface because lower surface is less exposed to
sunlight as compared to upper surface.
3. Cover a potted rose plant.With a transparent
polythene bag tied its mouth around the base of the stem
of the plant in sunlight for an hour or two.Drops of
water will soon appear on the inner side of the bag due
to saturation of water vapour given out by the leaves.A
similar empty polythene bag with its mouth tied and kept
in sunlight will show no drops of water.This is a
control to show that plants transpire water. Therefore
this experiment demonstrate transpiration in rose
plant.(Diagram is on page no.55,fig.5.1)
4. Photometer is a device which measures the rate of
water intake by a plant,and this water intake is almost
equal to the water lost through transpiration.
5.Lenticular transpiration is the transpiration which
occurs through lenticels which are present on the old
green stems of the plant. These are the minute openings
which remain open all the time.
LENTICULAR TRANSPIRATION
a.It occurs through lenticels.
b. The amount of lenticular transpiration is very small.
STOMATAL TRANSPIRATION
a.It occurs through stomata.
b.the amount of stomatal transpiration is very large.
6.(a)The intensity of sunlight
(b) temperature
(c) velocity of wind
7.The huge quantities of water released into the
atmosphere by stretches of fields and particularly
forests through transpiration, which increases the
moisture in the atmosphere and brings rain.
8.No,these are not the dew drops.These drops are
actually the water drops which are coming out from the
margins of the leaves in humid conditions due to the
less rate of transpiration and excess amount of water
present in the plant body.
9.(a)The rate of transpiration is directly affected by
intensity of light.If the intensity of light is more the
rate of transpiration will be more,if the intensity of
light is less the rate of transpiration will be less.
(b)The rate of transpiration is inversely proportional
to humidity.If the humidity is high the rate of
transpiration will be less and if the humidity is less
in the atmosphere, then the transpiration will be more.
E. Structured/Application Skill Type
1.(i) left uncoated because in this leaf
transpiration occurs from both surfaces so it will be
the most limp.
(ii) coated on both surfacesbecause both the sides of
the leaf is covered by Vaseline so it shows least
limping.
2(a) Transpiration
(b)To prevent evaporation from the surface of water.
(c)To measure the amount of lost water during
transpiration.
(d) yes more rate of transpiration will be their. Inshot
more loss of weight of plant.
3.(a) Ganong's photometer
Transpiration
Exercise A multiple
choice type Solutions 1(a) open stomata, dry
atmosphere and moist soil 2(a) increase 3(d)
atmosphere is dry and temperature is high 4(c) sunken
stomata 5(d) hydathodes 6(d) transpiration 7(d)
hot,dry and windy 8(a) stomata 9(c) loss of water,
as water vapour, by a plant.
Exercise B Very
short answer type 1 Name the following: (a)
lenticels (b) guttation (c) potometer (d)
nerium (e) ganong's potometer (f) cuticle, stomata
(g) hydathodes (h) guttation
2 fill in the
blanks: (a) vapour, aerial (b) stomata,
transpiration (c) suction, water
C short
answer type
1 functional activity (a) hydathodes and
guttation (b) leaf spines and reduced transpiration
(c) lenticels and lenticular transpiration/diffusion of
gases (d) xylem and conduction of water
2(a)true or false (1) false Most transpiration
occurs at midday (2) true (3) true (4) false
Potometer is an instrument used for measuring the rate
of transpiration in green plants.
3 Give suitable
explanation for the following: (a) Higher rate of
transpiration is recorded on a windy day rather than on
a calm day because transpiration increases with the
velocity of wind. If the wind blows faster,the water
vapour released during transpiration is removed faster
and the area outside the leaf does not get saturated
with water vapour.
(b) Excessive transpiration
results in the wilting of leaves because the rate of
transpiration exceeds the rate of absorption of water by
the roots. Hence the cells lose turgidity.
(c)
Out of total water absorbed by plants only a small
quantity of this water is used by the plant in
photosynthesis and other activities.The rest of it is
almost lost to the atmosphere as water vapour as a
result of transpiration. So, water transpired is the
water absorbed.
(d) More transpiration occurs
from the lower surface of a dorsiventral leaf because in
a dorsiventral leaf more stomata are present on the
lower surface as compared to upper surface.
(e)
Cork and bark are made up of flattened dead cells with
fatty substance which is impermeable to water and gases
and thereby, help in preventing loss of water.
(f) Transpiration is a process in which water evaporates
from a plant specially through the stomata of the
leaves.In this way transpiration helps to low down the
temperature of the plant in hot weather.When the body
temperature rises sweat glands excrete small amount of
water along with urea and salts to the surface of skin
and it also cools the body by evaporation.So in this way
perspiration and transpiration helps to cool the body
temperature of the organism.
(g)On a bright sunny
day the leaves of certain plants roll up because the
rate of transpiration exceeds the rate of absorption of
water by roots.
4 true or false (a) true
Because potometer is attached by a leaf shoot which
contains numerous stomata. (b) true Because both
are the pores on plant body through which transpiration
occurs. (c) false Because if humidity is high then
transpiration is less and vice versa. (d) true
Because it is an adaptation of plant to reduce
transpiration. (e) true Because at that time the
intensity of sunlight is more which favours
transpiration.
5 Differentiate between guttation
and bleeding GUTTATION 1 It is a loss of water as
droplets along the margins of leaves. 2 It occurs
through hydathodes found at the end of veins.
BLEEDING 1 It is the direct flowing out of plant sap.
2 It occurs from the ruptured or cut surfaces of a
plant.
Class - x
English
language
Total English -10
Chapter -1 is solved in the book Chapter-2 Q.5
(a)1.was affected
2.made 3.fermented
4.became 5.working 6.converts 7.turns
8.packs b) 1.up 2.of 3.away 4.in 5.into
6.over 7.after 8.for
c)1. The examination
had begun before we reached the hall. 2.I don't care
whether Manav join me or not. 3. As it is very
cold,we can't wear cotton clothes. 4.Since you helped
him ,he will be grateful to you.
d)1.Hardly had
the train arrived when all rushed into the compartments.
2.There was a collision between a bus and a car.
3.How long can I bear it? 4.You cannot come with us
for the picnic unless your father permits you. 5.We
had never met each other since 2009. 6.The Commander
ordered the soldiers not to give up and march on.
7.Put your tools away lest people should fall over them.
8.I wish I had been appointed to the post. Chapter-3
Q.5. a)1.doubled 2.shows 3.generated 4.was
processed 5.compared 6.worst 7.collected
8.treated b) 1.by 2.into 3.with 4.away
5.about 6.up 7.away 8.towards c)1.As it was
very hot I could not go out. 2.The room is too small
to accommodate all of us. 3.The book that I borrowed
from my neighbour is good. 4.Aditi was too terrified
to speak
d)1. I suggested to my sister that we
should go to the market the next day for shopping.
2.As he is poor,he cannot afford such expensive
treatment. 3. Inspite of being rich man, he is not
proud. 4.Bina inherited a big fortune from her
father. 5.He pleaded for his ignorance of law.
6.It is believed that he was involved in the crime.
7.I wish I had taken my doctor's advice. 8.He not
only passed the examination well but also won the first
prize. Chapter-4 Q.5 a)1.wants 2.disposal
3.adopted 4.mandated 5.will give 6.bringing
7.stopped 8.have seen that
b) 1. Under
2.down 3.after 4.over 5.on 6.up 7.for
8.without
c)1. Ankita as well as Kalyani is
pretty. 2.Everybody knows that the shopkeeper is
cunning. 3.I do not know why he is not coming to
school. 4.He is poor however not a cheat.
d)1.Tagore was one of the most famous artists.
2.Unless you tell the truth ,you will be punished.
3.He asked if he might have a cup of milk. 4.If he is
given some more time,he will complete this work by
tomorrow. 5.We organised a function so that we may
raise funds for the school. 6.Who has not heard of
the Quit India Movement? 7.I prefer small towns to
big cities. 8.Inspite of being too young she was
appointed by them. Chapter-5 Q.5 a)1.to control
2.published 3.shows 4. cools 5.are created
6.aid 7.understanding 8.help
b)1.on
2.by 3.aside/away 4.forth 5.through 6.on
7.up 8.under
c)1.I would not have completed
the task but for Anu's help. 2.Mr Khosla cannot be
late as he is punctual. 3.Kindly tell me why you did
not complete your project. 4.We will wait for you
till you come back.
d)1.The police not only kept
a watch on his movements but also tapped his phones.
2.Everyone will admit that she is honest. 3.If you
had not helped me I would not have succeeded. 4.He
spent his whole life here since his birth. 5.The
principal said,"I will look into the case." 6.Inspite
of knowing him for long,I have not developed respect for
him 7.John did not understand why Anita was annoyed
with him. 8.Tom can run faster than anybody else in
our team.
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