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Click Here.......Class 9 Punjabi & Physics Numerical s


Class 9 Chapter 7 - Study of Gas Laws Exercise Ex. 7

Question Num 1

What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm3 of air at 1 bar to 200 dm3 temperature remaining constant.

Solution Num 1

V1 = 500 dm3

P1 = 1 bar

T1 = 273 K

V2 = 500 dm3

T2 = 273 K

P2= ?

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 2

2 litres of a gas is enclosed in a vessel at a pressure of 760 mmHg. If temperature remains constant, calculate pressure when volume changes to 4 dm3.

Solution Num 2

V = 2 litres

P = 760 mm

V1 = 4000 m3 [1 dm3 = 4 litres]

P1= ?

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 3

At constant temperature, the effect of change of pressure on volume of a gas was as given below:

Pressure in atmosphere

Volume in litres

0.20

112

0.25

89.2

0.40

56.25

0.60

37.40

0.80

28.10

1.00

22.4

 

  1. Plot the following graphs

1. P vs V

2. P vs 1/V

3. PV vs P

Interpret each graph in terms of a law.

 

  1. Assuming that the pressure values given above are correct, find the correct measurement of the volume. 

Solution Num 3

  1.  

 

P/atm

V/dm3

1/V

PV

0.2

112

0.009

22.4

0.25

89.2

0.011

22.4

0.4

56.25

0.018

22.4

0.6

37.4

0.027

22.4

0.8

28.1

0.036

22.4

1

22.4

0.045

22.4

 

 

 i. P vs. V:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

At constant temperature, P is inversely proportional to V. Thus, the plot of V versus P will be a rectangular hyperbola.

 

 ii. P vs. 1/V:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

 

According to Boyle's law, at constant temperature, pressure of a fixed amount of gas varies inversely to its volume. The graph of pressure verses 1/V shows a positive slope.

 

 iii. PV vs. P:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

According to Boyle's law, the product of pressure and volume is constant at constant temperature. The graph of PV versus P is constant which indicates that the given gas obeys Boyle's law.

 

  1. The correct measurements of the volume are given below:

 

P/atm

V/dm3

0.2

112

0.25

89.6

0.4

56

0.6

37.33

0.8

28

1

22.4

 

Question Num 4

800 cm3 of gas is collected at 650 mm pressure. At what pressure would the volume of the gas reduce by 40% of its original volume, temperature remaining constant?

Solution Num 4

Given: 

V = 800 cm3

P = 650 m

P1= ?

V1 = reduced volume = 40% of 800

 = Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Net V1 = 800 - 320 = 480 cm3  

T = T1

Using the gas equation,

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Since T = T1

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 5

A cylinder of 20 litres capacity contains a gas at 100 atmospheric pressure. How many flasks of 200 cm3capacity can be filled from it at 1 atmosphere pressure, temperature remaining constant?

Solution Num 5

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 6

A steel cylinder of internal volume 20 litres is filled with hydrogen at 29 atmospheric pressure. If hydrogen is used to fill a balloon at 1.25 atmospheric pressure at the same temperature, what volume will the gas occupy?

Solution Num 6

V = 20 litre  

P = 29 atm

P1 = 1.25 atm 

V1 =? 

T = T1

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 7

561 dm3 of a gas at STP is filled in a 748 dm3 container. If temperature is const

ant, calculate the percentage change in pressure required.

Solution Num 7

Initial volume = V1 = 561 dm3

Final volume = V2 = 748 dm3

Difference in volume = 748 - 561 = 187 dm3

As the temperature is constant,

Decrease in pressure percentage =

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 8

88 cm3 of nitrogen is at a pressure of 770 mm mercury. If the pressure is raised to 880 mmHg, find by how much the volume will diminish, temperature remaining constant.

Solution Num 8

V = 88 cm3 

P = 770 mm

P1 = 880 mm 

V1= ? 

T = T1

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Volume diminishes = 88 - 77 = 11 cm3  

Question Num 9

A gas at 240 K is heated to 127°C. Find the percentage change in the volume of the gas (pressure remaining constant).

Solution Num 9

Let volume = 100 ml

T = 240 K

Volume increased = x ml

New volume = 100 + x ml

T1 = 400 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 10

Certain amount of a gas occupies a volume of 0.4 litre at 17°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that its volume gets (a) doubled, (b) reduced to half, pressure remaining constant?

Solution Num 10

(a) V1 = 0.4 L 

     V2 = 0.4 × 2L

     T1 = 17°C (17 + 273) = 290 K

     T2= ?

      Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

 

(b) V1 = 0.4 L 

     V2 = 0.2 L 

     T1 = 17°C (17 + 273) = 290 K

     T2= ?

     Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 11

A gas occupies 3 litres at 0°C. What volume will it occupy at -20°C, pressure remaining constant?

Solution Num 11

V = 3 litres 

P = P1

V1= ? 

T = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K

T1 = -20°C = -20°C + 273 = 253 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 12

A gas occupies 500 cm3 at normal temperature. At what temperature will the volume of the gas be reduced by 20% of its original volume, pressure being constant?

Solution Num 12

V = 500 cm

Normal temperature, t = 0°C = 0 + 273 K

V1 = Reduced volume + 20% of 500 cm3

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Net, V1  = 500 - 100 = 400 cm3

T1= ?

P = P1

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 13

Calculate the final volume of a gas 'X' if the original pressure of the gas at STP is doubled and its temperature is increased three times.

Solution Num 13

V1 = X

P1 = 1 atm

V2= ?

T2 = 3 T1

P2 = 2 atm

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 14

A sample of carbon dioxide occupies 30 cm3 at 15°C and 740 mm pressure. Find its volume at STP.

Solution Num 14

V = 30 cm3 

P = 740 mm

T = 288 K

P1 = 760 mm

V1= ? 

T1 = 273 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 15

50 cm3 of hydrogen is collected over water at 17°C and 750 mmHg pressure. Calculate the volume of a dry gas at STP. The water vapour pressure at 17°C is 14 mmHg.

Solution Num 15

V = 50 cm3 

P = 750 - 14 = 736 mm

T = 290 K

P1 = 760 mm

V1= ? 

T1 = 273 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 16

At 0°C and 760 mmHg pressure, a gas occupies a volume of 100 cm3. Kelvin temperature of the gas is increased by one-fifth and the pressure is increased one and a half times. Calculate the final volume of the gas.

Solution Num 16

V = 100 cm3 

P = 760 mm

T = 273 K

V1= ? 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 17

It is found that on heating a gas its volume increases by 50% and its pressure decreases to 60% of its original value. If the original temperature was -15°C, find the temperature to which it was heated.

Solution Num 17

Let the original volume (V) = 1 and

the original pressure (P) = 1 and

the temperature given (T) = -15°C  = -15 + 273 = 258 K

V1 or new volume after heating = original volume + 50% of original volume

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

P1 or decreased pressure = 60%

  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

T1 = to be calculated

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 18

A certain mass of a gas occupies 2 litres at 27°C and 100 Pa. Find the temperature when volume and pressure become half of their initial values.

Solution Num 18

V = 2 litres

P = 100 Pa

T = 300 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

T1 = 75 - 273 = -198°C

Question Num 19

2500 cm3 of hydrogen is taken at STP. The pressure of this gas is further increased by two and a half times (temperature remaining constant). What volume will hydrogen occupy now?

Solution Num 19

V1 = 2500 cm3

P1 = 1 atm = 760 mm

T1 = 273 K

V2= ?

T2 = 273 K

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 20

Taking the volume of hydrogen as calculated in Q.19, what change must be made in Kelvin (absolute) temperature to return the volume to 2500 cm3 (pressure remaining constant)?

Solution Num 20

V1 = 714.29 cm3

P1 = P2 = P

T1 = 273 K

V2 = 2500 cm3

T2= ?

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

 

Question Num 21

A given amount of gas A is confined in a chamber of constant volume. When the chamber is immersed in a bath of melting ice, the pressure of the gas is 100 cmHg.

a. What is the temperature when the pressure is 10 cmHg?

b. What will be the pressure when the chamber is brought to 100°C

Solution Num 21

  1. V1 = V2 = V

       P1 = 100 cmHg

       T1 = 273 K

       P2 = 10 cmHg

       T2= ?

       Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

  1. V1 = V2 = V

       P1 = 100 cmHg

       P2= ?

       T1 = 273 K

       T2 = 373 K

       Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 22

A gas is to be filled from a tank of capacity 10,000 litres into cylinders each having capacity of 10 litres. The condition of the gas in the tank is as follows:

  1. Pressure inside the tank is 800 mmHg.
  2. Temperature inside the tank is -3°C.

When the cylinder is filled, the pressure gauge reads 400 mmHg and the temperature is 0°C. Find the number of cylinders required to fill the gas.

Solution Num 22

Capacity of the cylinder V = 10000 litres

P = 800 mm

T = -3°C = -3 + 273 = 270 K P1 = 400 mmHg

T1 = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K

V1= ?

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 23

Calculate the volume occupied by 2 g of hydrogen at 27°C and 4 atmosphere pressure if at STP it occupies 22.4 litres.

Solution Num 23

V1 = 22.4 litres

P1 = 1 atm

T1 = 273 K

V2 =?

T2 = 300 K

P2 = 4 atm

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 24

What temperature would be necessary to double the volume of a gas initially at STP if the pressure is decreased to 50%?

Solution Num 24

V1 = V1

P1 = 760 atm

T1 = 273 K

V2 = 2V1

T2 =?

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 25

Which will have greater volume when the following gases are compared at STP:

  1. 1.2/N2 at 25°C and 748 mmHg
  2. 1.25/O2 at STP 

Solution Num 25

  1. V = 1.2 litres

       P = 748 mmHg

       T = 298 K

       P1 = 760 mmHg

       T1 = 273 K

       V1= ?

       Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

  1. V = 1.25 litres

      P = 760 mmHg

      T = 273 K

      P1 = 760 mmHg

      T1 = 273 K

      V1= ?

      Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

     1.25 litres O2 will have greater volume than 1.2 litres N2. 

Question Num 26

Calculate the volume of dry air at STP that occupies 28 cm3 at 14°C and 750 mmHg pressure when saturated with water vapour. The vapour pressure of water at 14°C is 12 mmHg.

Solution Num 26

Pressure due to dry air,

P = 750 - 12 = 738 mm

V = 28 cm3

T = 14°C = 14 + 273 = 287 K

P1 = 760 mmHg

V1= ?

T1 = 0°C = 273 K

Using gas equation,

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Question Num 27

An LPG cylinder can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atmosphere. The pressure gauge of the cylinder indicates 12 atmosphere at 27°C. Because of a sudden fire in the building, the temperature rises. At what temperature will the cylinder explode?

Solution Num 27

P = 14.9 atm

V = 28 cm3

T = ?

P1 = 12 atm

V = V1

T1 = 300 K

Using gas equation,

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question Num 28

22.4 litres of a gas weighs 70 g at STP. Calculate the weight of the gas if it occupies a volume of 20 litres at 27°C and 700 mmHg of pressure.

Solution Num 28

Step 1:

V1 = 20 litres

P1 = 700 mm

T1 = 300 K

V2= ?

T2 = 273 K

P2 = 760 mm

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

Step 2:

22.4 litres of the gas at STP weighs = 70 g

16.76 litres of the gas has weight at STP =

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

Question 1

What do you understand by gas?

Solution 1

Gas is a state of matter in which interparticle attraction is weak and interparticle space is so large that the particles become completely free to move randomly in the entire available space.

Question 2

Give the assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory.

Solution 2

  1. Gases are made of tiny particles which move in all possible directions at all possible speeds. The size of molecules is small as compared to the volume of the occupied gas.
  2. There is no force of attraction between gas particles or between the particles and the walls of the container. So, the particles are free to move in the entire space available to them.
  3. The moving particles of gas collide with each other and with the walls of the container. Because of these collisions, gas molecules exert pressure. Gases exert the same pressure in all directions.
  4. There is large interparticle space between gas molecules, and this accounts for high compressibility of gases.
  5. Volume of a gas increases with a decrease in pressure and increase in temperature.
  6. Gases have low density as they have large intermolecular spaces between their molecules.
  7. Gases have a natural tendency to mix with one and other because of large intermolecular spaces. So, two gases when mixed form a homogeneous gaseous mixture.
  8. The intermolecular space of a gas is reduced because of cooling. Molecules come closer resulting in liquefaction of the gas. 

Question 3

During the practical session in the lab when hydrogen sulphide gas having offensive odour is prepared for some test, we can smell the gas even 50 metres away. Explain the phenomenon.

Solution 3

The phenomenon is diffusion. In air, gas molecules diffuse to mix thoroughly. Hence, we can smell hydrogen sulphide gas from a distance in the laboratory.

Question 4

What is diffusion? Give an example to illustrate it.

Solution 4

Diffusion is the process of gradual mixing of two substances, kept in contact, by molecular motion.

Example:

If a jar of chlorine is opened in a large room, the odorous gas mixes with air and spreads to every part of the room. Although chlorine is heavier than air, it does not remain at the floor level but spreads throughout the room.

Question 5

How is molecular motion related with temperature?

Solution 5

Temperature affects the kinetic energy of molecules. So, molecular motion is directly proportional to temperature.

Question 6

State (i) the three variables for gas laws and (ii) SI units of these variables.

Solution 6

  1. Three variables for gas laws: Volume (V), Pressure (P), Temperature (T)
  2. SI units of these variables:

For volume: Cubic metre (m3)

For pressure: Pascal (Pa)

For temperature: Kelvin (K) 

Question 7

  1. State Boyle's Law.
  2. Give its

 i. Mathematical expression

 ii. Graphical representation and

 iii. Significance 

Solution 7

  1. Boyle's law: At constant temperature, the volume of a definite mass of any gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas.  

Or

Temperature remaining constant, the product of the volume and pressure of the given mass of a dry gas is constant

  1.  

i. Mathematical representation: 

According to Boyle's Law,

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

where K is the constant of proportionality.

If V' and P' are some other volume and pressure of the gas at the same temperature, then

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 ii. Graphical representation of Boyle's Law:

1.  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws: Variation in volume (V) plotted against (1/P) at a constant temperature: A straight line passing through the origin is obtained.

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

2. V vs P: Variation in volume (V) plotted against pressure (P) at a constant temperature: A hyperbolic curve in the first quadrant is obtained.

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

  

3. PV vs P: Variation in PV plotted against pressure (P) at a constant temperature: A straight line parallel to the X-axis is obtained.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

 iii. Significance of Boyle's law:

According to Boyle's law, on increasing pressure, volume decreases. The gas becomes denser. Thus, at constant temperature, the density of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure.

At higher altitude, atmospheric pressure is low so air is less dense. As a result, lesser oxygen is available for breathing. This is the reason mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders. 

Question 8

Explain Boyle's Law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter.

Solution 8

Boyle's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter:

  • According to the kinetic theory of matter, the number of particles present in a given mass and the average kinetic energy is constant.
  • If the volume of the given mass of a gas is reduced to half of its original volume, then the same number of particles will have half the space to move.
  • As a result, the number of molecules striking the unit area of the walls of the container at a given time will double and the pressure will also double.
  • Alternatively, if the volume of a given mass of a gas is doubled at constant temperature, the same number of molecules will have double the space to move.
  • Thus, the number of molecules striking the unit area of the walls of a container at a given time will become one-half of the original value.
  • Thus, pressure will also get reduced to half of the original pressure. Hence, it is seen that if the pressure increases, the volume of a gas decreases at constant temperature, which is Boyle's law. 

 

Question 9

The molecular theory states that the pressure exerted by a gas in a closed vessel results from the gas molecules striking against the walls of the vessel. How will the pressure change if

  1. The temperature is doubled keeping the volume constant
  2. The volume is made half of its original value keeping the T constant 

Solution 9

  1. Pressure will double.
  2. Pressure remains the same. 

Question 10

  1. State Charles's law.
  2. Give its

 i. Graphical representation

 ii. Mathematical expression and

 iii. Significance 

Solution 10

Charles's Law

At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of a dry gas increases or decreases by 1/273rd of its original volume at 0°C for each degree centigrade rise or fall in temperature.

V T (at constant pressure)

 

At temperature T1 (K) and volume V1 (cm3):

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws ...(i)

At temperature T2 (K) and volume V2 (cm3):

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws ….(ii)

From (i) and (ii),

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

For Temperature = Conversion from Celsius to Kelvin

1 K = °C + 273

Example:

20°C = 20 + 273 = 293 K

 

Graphical representation of Charles's law

T vs V: The relationship between the volume and the temperature of a gas can be plotted on a graph. A straight line is obtained.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Graphical representation of Charles's law

 

Significance of Charles's Law: The volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature; hence, the density decreases with temperature. This is the reason that

(a) Hot air is filled in balloons used for meteorological purposes. (b) Cable wires contract in winters and expand in summers. 

Question 11

Explain Charles's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter.

Solution 11

Charles's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter:

According to the kinetic theory of matter, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. Thus, when the temperature of a gas is increased, the molecules would move faster and the molecules will strike the unit area of the walls of the container more frequently and vigorously. If the pressure is kept constant, the volume increases proportionately. Hence, at constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to the temperature (Charles's law). 

Question 12

Define absolute zero and absolute scale of temperature. Write the relationship between °C and K.

Solution 12

Absolute zero

The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Absolute or Kelvin scale of temperature

The temperature scale with its zero at -273°C and each degree equal to one degree on the Celsius scale is called Kelvin or the absolute scale of temperature.

Conversion of temperature from Celsius scale to Kelvin scale and vice versa

The value on the Celsius scale can be converted to the Kelvin scale by adding 273 to it.

Example:

20°C = 20 + 273 = 293 K 

Question 13

  1. What is the need for the Kelvin scale of temperature?
  2. What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale? Convert it into centigrade scale. 

Solution 13

  1. The behaviour of gases shows that it is not possible to have temperature below 273.15°C. This act has led to the formulation of another scale known as the Kelvin scale. The real advantage of the Kelvin scale is that it makes the application and the use of gas laws simple. Even more significantly, all values on the Kelvin scale are positive.
  2. The boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale is 373 K. Now, K = °C + 273 and °C = K - 273.

The Kelvin scale can be converted to the degree Celsius scale by subtracting 273 So, the boiling point of water on the centigrade scale is 373 K - 273 = 100°C. 

Question 14

  1. Define STP or NTP.
  2. Why is it necessary to compare gases at STP? 

Solution 14

  1. Standard or Normal Temperature and Pressure (STP or NTP)

The pressure of the atmosphere which is equal to 76 cm or 760 mm of mercury and the temperature is 0°C or 273 K is called STP or NTP. The full form of STP is Standard Tempe rature and Pressure, while that of NTP is Normal Temperature and Pressure.

Value: The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature and 1 atmospheric unit (atm) or 760 mm of mercury for pressure.

The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature and 1 atmospheric unit (atm) or 760 mm of mercury for pressure.

Standard temperature = 0°C = 273 K

Standard pressure = 760 mmHg

= 76 cm of Hg

= 1 atmospheric pressure (atm) 

 

  1. The volume of a given mass of dry enclosed gas depends on the pressure of the gas and the temperature of the gas in Kelvin, so to express the volume of the gases, we compare these to STP. 

Question 15

Correct the following statements:

  1. Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
  2. Volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, pressure remaining constant.
  3. 0°C is equal to zero Kelvin.
  4. Standard temperature is 25°C.
  5. Boiling point of water is 273 K. 

Solution 15

  1. Volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure at constant temperature.
  2. Volume of a fixed mass of a gas is inversely proportional to the temperature, the pressure remaining constant.
  3. -273°C is equal to zero Kelvin.
  4. Standard temperature is 0°C.
  5. The boiling point of water is -373 K. 

Question 16

  1. What is the relationship between the Celsius and Kelvin scales of temperature?
  2. Convert (i) 273°C to Kelvin and (ii) 293 K to °C. 

Solution 16

Temperature on the Kelvin scale (K)

= 273 + temperature on the Celsius scale

Or K = 273 + °C

 

(i) 273°C in Kelvin

    t°C = t K - 273

    273°C = t K - 273

    t K = 273 + 273 = 546 K

     273°C = 546 K

 

(ii) 293 K in °C

    t°C = 293 - 273

    t°C = 20°C

     293 K = 20°C 

Question 17

State the laws which are represented by the following graphs:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

Solution 17

  1. Charles's law
  2. Boyle's law 

Question 18

Give reasons for the following:

  1. All temperature in the absolute (Kelvin) scale are in positive figures.
  2. Gases have lower density compared to solids or liquids.
  3. Gases exert pressure in all directions.
  4. It is necessary to specify the pressure and temperature of a gas while stating its volume.
  5. Inflating a balloon seems to violate Boyle's law.
  6. Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them.
  7. Gas fills the vessel completely in which it is kept. 

Solution 18

  1. The advantage of the Kelvin scale is that it makes the application and use of gas laws simple. Of more significance is that all values on the scale are positive, removing the problem of negative (-) values on the Celsius scale.
  2. The mass of a gas per unit volume is small because of the large intermolecular spaces between the molecules. Therefore, gases have low density. In solids and liquids, the mass is higher and intermolecular spaces are negligible.
  3. At a given temperature, the number of molecules of a gas striking against the walls of the container per unit time per unit area is the same. Thus, gases exert the same pressure in all directions.
  4. Because the volume of a gas changes remarkably with a change in temperature and pressure, it becomes necessary to choose a standard value of temperature pressure.
  5. According to Boyle's law, the volume of a given mass of a dry gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

When a balloon is inflated, the pressure inside the balloon decreases, and according to Boyle's law, the volume of the gas should increase. But this does not happen. On inflation of a balloon along with reduction of pressure of air inside the balloon, the volume of air also decreases, violating Boyle's law.

  1. Atmospheric pressure is low at high altitudes. The volume of air increases and air becomes less dense because volume is inversely proportional to density. Hence, lesser volume of oxygen is available for breathing. Thus, mountaineers have to carry oxygen cylinders with them.
  2. Interparticle attraction is weak and interparticle space is large in gases because the particles are completely free to move randomly in the entire available space and takes the shape of the vessel in which the gas is kept. 

Question 19

How did Charles's law lead to the concept of absolute scale of temperature?

Solution 19

  1. The temperature scale with its zero at -273°C and where each degree is equal to the degree on the Celsius scale is called the absolute scale of temperature.
  2. The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero. Theoretically, this is the lowest temperature which can never be reached. All molecular motion ceases at this temperature.
  3. The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

Question 20

What is meant by aqueous tension? How is the pressure exerted by a gas corrected to account for aqueous tension?

Solution 20

Gases such as nitrogen and hydrogen are collected over water as shown in the diagram. When the gas is collected over water, the gas is moist and contains water vapour. The total pressure exerted by this moist gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the dry gas and the pressure exerted by water vapour. The partial pressure of water vapour is also known as aqueous tension.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

Collection of gas over water 

 

  Ptotal = Pgas + Pwater vapour

 Pgas = Ptotal- Pwater vapour

Actual pressure of gas = Total pressure - Aqueous tension 

Question 21

State the following:

  1. Volume of a gas at 0 Kelvin
  2. Absolute temperature of a gas at 7°C
  3. Gas equation
  4. Ice point in absolute temperature
  5. STP conditions 

Solution 21

  1. Volume of gas is zero.
  2. Absolute temperature is 7 + 273 = 280 K.
  3. The gas equation is

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

  1. Ice point = 0 + 273 = 273 K 
  2. Standard temperature is taken as 273 K or O°C.  

Standard pressure is taken as 1 atmosphere (atm) or 760 mmHg. 

Question 22

Choose the correct answer:

  1. The graph of PV vs P for a gas is
    1. Parabolic
    2. Hyperbolic
    3. A straight line parallel to the X-axis
    4. A straight line passing through the origin

 

  1. The absolute temperature value that corresponds to 27°C is
    1. 200 K
    2. 300 K
    3. 400 K
    4. 246 K

 

  1. Volume-temperature relationship is given by
    1. Boyle
    2. Gay-Lussac
    3. Dalton
    4. Charles

 

  1. If pressure is doubled for a fixed mass of a gas, its volume will become
    1. 4 times
    2. ½ times
    3. 2 times
    4. No change 

Solution 22

  1. (iii) Straight line parallel to the X-axis.
  2. (ii) 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
  3. (iv) Charles
  4. (ii) 1/2 times 

Question 23

Match the following:

 

 

Column A 

Column B 

(a)

cm3

(i) Pressure

(b)

Kelvin

(ii) Temperature

(c)

Torr 

(iii) Volume

(d)

Boyle's law

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

(a)  

Charles's law

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws

 

Solution 23

 

Column A

Column B

(a) cm3 

Volume

(b) Kelvin 

Temperature

(c) Torr 

 Pressure

(d) Boyle's law 

PV = P1 V1

 

(e) Charles's law 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of Gas Laws 

 

 

Question 24

Write the value of

  1. Standard temperature in
    1. °C
    2. K
  1. Standard pressure in
    1. atm 
    2. mmHg
    3. cmHg 
    4. torr 

Solution 24

  1.  
    1. °C = O°C
    2. K = 273 K
  1.  
    1. 1 atm
    2. 760 mmHg
    3. 76 cmHg
    4. 1 torr = 133.32 Pascal 

Question 25

  1. The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the ………….
  2. The temperature on the Kelvin scale at which molecular motion completely ceases is called……………
  3. If temperature is reduced to half, ………….. would also reduce to half.
  4. The melting point of ice is …………. Kelvin. 

Solution 25

  1. Absolute temperature
  2. Absolute zero
  3. Volume
  4. 273 

 

 

Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise Ex. 4(A)

What is the contribution of the following in atomic structure?

a. Maharshi Kanada

b. Democritus

Solution 1

  1. According to Maharshi Kanada:
    1. Matter consisted of indestructible particles called paramanus (now called atoms).
    2. A paramanu does not exist in the free state, rather it combines with other paramanus to form a bigger particle called the anu (now called a molecule).
  2. Democritus called paramanu as atom which comes from the Greek word atomos, meaning indivisible. 

Question 2

State Dalton's atomic theory.

Solution 2

Main postulates of Dalton's atomic theory:

  1. Matter consists of very small and indivisible particles called atoms.
  2. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
  3. The atoms of an element are alike in all respects, but they differ from the atoms of other elements.
  4. Atoms of an element combine in small numbers to form molecules.
  5. Atoms of one element combine with atoms of another element in a simple ratio to form molecules of compounds.
  6. Atoms are the smallest units of matter which can take part in a chemical reaction. 

Question 3

What is an α (alpha) particle?

Solution 3

An α-particle is a doubly charged helium ion (He2+) containing two protons and two neutrons. It is formed by removing two electrons from the helium atom.

Question 4

What are cathode rays? How are these rays formed?

Solution 4

Cathode rays are the beam of electrons which travel from the negatively charged end (i.e. cathode to anode) of a vacuum tube, across a voltage difference between the electrodes placed at each end.

Formation of cathode rays: 

Generally gases are poor conductors of electricity. However, when a high voltage charge from an induction coil is applied to tubes filled with gases at very low pressure (0.01 mm of mercury), the gases become good conductors of electricity and begin to flow in the form of rays.

These rays are called cathode rays and they travel from the cathode towards the anode.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 5

What is the nature of the charge on

  1. Cathode rays and
  2. Anode rays?

Solution 5

  1. Cathode rays are negatively charged as they consist of negatively charged particles called electrons.
  2. Anode rays are made of positively charged particles.

Question 6

How are X-rays produced?

Solution 6

When a beam of cathode rays is made to fall upon hard metallic targets like tungsten, X-rays are produced.

Question 7

Why are anode rays also called as 'canal rays'?

Solution 7

When perforated rays were used in the discharge tube, another set of rays travelling in a direction opposite to that of the cathode rays, i.e. from the anode towards the cathode, is seen, as in the figure below. These rays are called canal rays because they passed through the holes or canals in the cathode. These rays were named positive rays or anode rays.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 8

How does cathode ray differ from as anode rays?

Solution 8

 

Cathode rays

Anode rays

These rays travel from the cathode to the anode.

These rays travel from the anode to the cathode.

They are made of negatively charged particles.

They are made of positively charged particles.

They produce a greenish yellow fluorescence on a soda-glass screen.

They produce fluorescence on a zinc sulphide screen.

They are affected by an electric field, i.e. they are inflected towards a positive field and deflected towards a negative field.

They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields but in a direction opposite to that of cathode rays.

 

Question 9

State one observation which shows that atom is not indivisible.

Solution 9

Chadwick discovered neutral particles present in an atom by bombarding light nuclei like beryllium with alpha particles, i.e. helium nuclei.

4Be9 + 2He4  → 6C12 + 0n1

Discovery of the neutron also showed that an atom is divisible.

Question 10

a. Name an element which does not contain neutron

b. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry as a whole is neutral

Solution 10

a. Hydrogen does not contain any neutron.

b. No. It is neutral.

Question 11

On the basis of Thomson's model of an atom explain how an atom as a whole is neutral.

Solution 11

Thomson's Atomic Model:

According to Thomson's atomic model, an atom is made of positively charged substances in the form of a sphere. Electrons are embedded into this sphere, and the total positive charge of the sphere is equal to the total negative charge of electrons, and hence, the atom remained electrically neutral. This model was not accepted because it was unable to explain how positively charged particles were shielded from negatively charged particles without getting neutralised.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Thomson's atomic model

Plum pudding

 

Question 12

Which sub-atomic particle was discovered by

a. Thomson

b. Goldstein

c. Chadwick

Solution 12

a. Thomson discovered particles.

b. Goldstein discovered protons.

c. Chadwick discovered neutrons.

Question 13

Name the sub-atomic particle whose charge is:

a. +1

b. -1

c. 0

Solution 13

a. Proton

b. Electron

c. Neutron

Question 15

On the basis of Rutherford's model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Solution 15

According to Rutherford's model of an atom, the subatomic particle in a nucleus is a proton.

Question 16

Which part of atom was discovered by Rutherford?

Solution 16

The nucleus was discovered by Rutherford.

Question 17

How was it shown that atom has empty space?

Solution 17

Rutherford performed an experiment by allowing a stream of alpha particles to pass through a very thin gold foil. He observed that alpha particles pass through the metal foil without deviating from their path. This shows that an atom contains a large empty space called nuclear space.

Question 18

State one major drawback of Rutherford's model

Solution 18

One major drawback of Rutherford's model was the comparison of electrons with the planets in the solar system.

Thus, when an electron moved around the nucleus continually, it should radiate energy, i.e. lose energy. As a result it should be gradually pulled towards the nucleus and end up colliding with it. This should result in the total collapse of the atom.

However, we know that the atom is structurally stable. Thus, Rutherford's model could not explain this stability.

Question 19

In the figure given alongside

a. Name the shells denoted by A,B, and C. Which shell has least energy

b. Name X and state the charge on it

c. The above sketch is of …………. Model of an atom

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Solution 19

a)  A is for K shell or I shell.

      B is for L shell or II shell.

      C is for M shell or III shell.

      Shell K has the minimum amount of energy.

b) X is a nucleus; it is positively charged.

c)  The above sketch is of Bohr model of an atom. 

Question 20

Give the postulates of Bohr's atomic model

Solution 20

  1. Atom has a central nucleus surrounded by electrons.
  2. The electrons revolve around the nucleus in definite circular paths called orbits.
  3. Each orbit has fixed energy. Therefore, these orbits are also known as energy levels or energy shells.
  4. These orbits or energy levels are represented either by a number 1, 2, 3,... known as the principal quantum number (n) of the orbit or by K, L, M,....
  5. There is no change of energy of electrons as long as they keep revolving in the same energy level and the atom remains stable. Electrons can jump from the higher orbit to the lower orbit when they lose energy and jump to the next when they gain energy. 

 

 4 B excercise

Question 1

  1. Name the three fundamental particles of an atom. 
  2. Give the symbol and charge of each particle. 

Solution 1

  1. The three fundamental particles of an atom are electron proton and neutron. 
  2.  

Particle

Symbol

Charge

Electron 

e

-1

Proton

p

+1

Neutron

n

No charge

 

Question 2

Complete the table given below by identifying P, Q, R and S.

Element

Symbol

No. of Protons

No. of neutrons

No. of Electrons

Sodium

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

11

P

11

Chlorine

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Q

18

17

Uranium

R

92

146

92

S

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

9

10

9

Solution 2

 

Element

Symbol

No. of Protons

No. of Neutrons

No. of Electrons

Sodium

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

11

12

11

Chlorine

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

17

18

17

Uranium

238U92

92

146

92

S

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

9

10

9

 

Question 3

The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. What are its atomic number and mass number?

Solution 3

Atomic number = Number of protons or number of electrons = 4

Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons = 4 + 5 = 9

Question 4

The atomic number and mass number of sodium are 11 and 23 respectively. What information is conveyed by this statement?

Solution 4

Atomic number (11) of sodium conveys information that the number of protons and electrons is the same.

Mass number (23) of sodium indicates the sum of protons and neutrons.

Question 5

Write down the names of the particles represented by the following symbols and explain the meaning of superscript and subscript numbers attached

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Solution 5

p = proton

n = neutron

e = electron

Superscript number : These superscript number show their mass number

Subscript number : These numbers show their atomic number

Question 6

From the symbol Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding, state the mass number, the atomic number and electronic configuration of magnesium.

Solution 6

Mass number = 24

Atomic number = 12

No. of electrons = 24 - 12 = 12

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

Question 7

Sulphur has an atomic number 16 and a mass of 32.

State the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of sulphur. Give a simple diagram to show the arrangement of electrons in an atom of sulphur.

Solution 7

Atomic number = 16

Atomic mass = 32

Number of protons = 16

Number of electrons = 16

Number of neutrons = 32 - 16 = 16

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

Question 8

Explain the rule according to which electrons are filled in various energy levels.

Solution 8

  1. The maximum capacity of a shell to accommodate electrons is given by the general formula 2n2, where n is the serial number of a shell.
  2. The maximum number of electrons possible in the outermost shell is 8 and that in the penultimate shell is 18.
  3. It is not necessary for an orbit to be completed before another is formed. In fact, a new orbit is formed when the outermost shell attains 8 electrons.

Question 9

Draw the orbital diagram of Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bondingion and state the number of three fundamental particles present in it.

Solution 9

Orbital diagram of Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Atomic number of Ca2+ is 18.

Electronic configuration of Ca2+ is 2, 8, 8.

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

Number of three fundamental particles of Ca2+:

Protons: 18

Electrons: 18

Neutrons: 40 - 18 = 22

Question 10

Write down the electronic configuration of the following:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Write down the number of electrons in X and neutrons in Y.

Solution 10

Electronic configuration: 27X13 = 2, 8, 3

Number of electrons in X = 13

Number of neutrons in X = 27 - 13 = 14

 

Electronic configuration of 35Y17 = 2, 8, 7

Number of electrons in Y = 17

Number of neutrons in Y = 35 - 17 = 18

 

Hence, formula 27X13 stands for 27Na13 and 35Y17 for 35Cl17

Compound formula = NaCl

 

Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise Ex. 4(C)

Question 1

How does the Modern atomic theory contradict and correlate with Dalton's atomic theory?

Solution 1

The latest research on the atom has proved that most of the postulates of Dalton's atomic theory contradict. However, Dalton was right that atoms take part in chemical reactions.

Comparisons of Dalton's atomic theory with the modern atomic theory.

Dalton's atomic theory:

  1. Atoms are indivisible.
  2. Atoms of the same element are similar in every respect.
  3. Atoms combine in a simple whole number ratio to form molecules.
  4. Atoms of different elements are different.
  5. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.

 

Modern atomic theory:

  1. Atoms are no longer indivisible and consist of electrons, protons, neutrons and even more sub-particles.
  2. Atoms of the same element may differ from one another called isotopes.
  3. Atoms of different elements may be similar called isobars.
  4. Atoms combine in a ratio which is not a simple whole number ratio; e.g. in sugar, the C12H22O11 ratio is not a whole number ratio.

 

Question 2

  1. What are inert elements?
  2. Why do they exist as monoatoms in molecules?
  3. What are valence electrons? 

Solution 2

  1. The elements have a complete outermost shell, i.e. 2 or 8 electrons. They ordinarily do not enter into any reaction.
  2. These exist as monoatoms because molecules of these elements contain only one atom.
  3. Valence electrons: The number of electrons present in the valence shell is known as valence electrons. 

Question 3

In what respects do the three isotopes of hydrogen differ? Give their structures.

Solution 3

The three isotopes differ only due to their mass number which is respectively 1, 2 and 3 and named protium, deuterium and tritium.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 4

Match the atomic numbers 4,14,8,15 and 19 with each of the following:

  1. A solid non-metal of valency 3.
  2. A gas of valency 2.
  3. A metal of valency 1.
  4. A non-metal of valency 4. 

Solution 4

 

 

Atomic Number

Name with valency

  1. 15

A solid non-metal of valency 3

  1. 8

A gas of valency 2

  1. 19

A metal of valency 1

  1. 14

A non-metal of valency 4

 

Question 5

Draw diagrams representing the atomic structures of the following:

  1. Sodium atom
  2. Chlorine ion
  3. Carbon atom
  4. Oxygen ion 

Solution 5

  1. Sodium atom

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

  1. Chlorine atom

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

  1. Carbon atom

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

  1. Oxygen ion 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

Question 6

What is the significance of the number of protons found in the atoms of different elements?

Solution 6

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines the element type of the atom. 

Question 7

Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 6,9 and 12 respectively. Which one:

  1. Forms an onion
  2. Forms a cation
  3. Has four electrons in its valence shell? 

Solution 7

Atomic numbers of X          Y            Z

                               6          9           12

                            (2, 4)   (2, 7)     (2, 8, 2)

  1. Y(2, 7) forms an anion.
  2. Z(2, 8, 2) forms a cation.
  3. X(2, 4) has four electrons in the valence shell.

 

Question 8

Element X has electronic configuration 2,8,18,8,1. Without identifying X,

  1. Predict the sign and charge on a simple ion of X.
  2. Write if X will be an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent. Why? 

Solution 8

  1. X1+
  2. Oxidising agent, because it has the ability to donate electrons. 

Question 9

Define the terms:

  1. Mass number
  2. Ion
  3. Cation
  4. Anion
  5. Element
  6. orbit 

Solution 9

  1. Mass number is the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
  2. Ion is an atom or molecule which carries a positive or negative charge because of loss or gain of electrons.
  3. Cation is a positively charged ion which is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons; for example, Na+, Hg2+ and Ca2+.
  4. Anion is a negatively charged ion which is formed when an atom gains one or more electrons; for example, Cland I-.
  5. Element is a substance which cannot be split up into two or more simple substances by usual chemical methods of applying heat, light or electric energy; for example, hydrogen, oxygen and chlorine.
  6. Orbit is a circular path around the nucleus in which electrons of the atom revolve. 

Question 10

From the symbol Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding for the element helium, write down the mass number and the atomic number of the element.

Solution 10

Atomic number = 2

Mass number = 4

Question 11

Five atoms are labeled A to E

Atoms

Mass No

Atomic No.

A

40

20

B

19

9

C

7

3

D

16

8

E

14

7

  1. Which one of these atoms:
    1. contains 7 protons
    2. has electronic configuration 2,7
  1. Write down the formula in the compound formed between C and D
  2. Predict : (i) metals (ii) non-metals 

Solution 11

a.  

  1. Atom E contains 7 protons.
  2. Atom B has an electronic configuration 2, 7.

b. Atom C stands for 7Li3, Atom D stands for 8O16.

    Hence, compound formula is Li2O.

c. Metals: A and C, Non-metals: B, D, E 

Question 12

An atom of an element has two electrons in the M shell.

What is the (a) atomic number (b) number of protons in this element?

Solution 12

Number of electrons in the M shell = 2

So, the number of electrons in the K and L shells will be = 2, 8

Hence, atomic number = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12

Number of protons = 12

Question 13

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Solution 13

 

  1.  

 i.  

 

12Mg24

12Mg26

No. of electrons

12

12

No. of protons

12

12

No. of neutrons

24 - 12 = 12

26 - 12 = 14

Hence, composition of nuclei

12Mg24 → Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 ii. Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

  1. Mass numbers of two isotopes of magnesium are different because of different number of neutrons, i.e. 12 and 14, respectively. 

Question 14

What are nucleons? How many nucleons are present in phosphorus? Draw its structure.

Solution 14

Nucleons: Particles which constitute the nucleus are called nucleons.

Protons and neutrons are the nucleons.

Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31

Atomic number = 15

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 15

What are isotopes? With reference to which fundamental particle do isotopes differ? Give two uses of isotopes.

Solution 15

Isotopes: Atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

Isotopes differ with reference to neutrons.

Uses of isotopes:

  1. Some isotopes are radioactive, i.e. isotopes of cobalt are used for treating cancer and other diseases.
  2. An isotope of 235U is used as a fuel in a nuclear reactor.

Question 16

Why do Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding have the same chemical properties? In what respect do these atoms differ?

Solution 16

Only electrons take part in chemical reactions. Chemical properties depend on the electronic configuration. Isotopes of the element Cl Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding have the same atomic number, and hence, the same configuration. So, they have the same chemical properties. These differ only in physical contents and weights because neutrons contribute to the mass of an atom. Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding have different number of neutrons 18 and 20, respectively.

Question 17

Explain fractional atomic mass. What is the fractional mass of chlorine?

Solution 17

Atomic masses of the isotopes of chlorine are 35 and 37. However, in any given sample of chlorine gas, the isotopes occur in the approximate ratio 3:1, 75% of Cl35 and 25% of Cl37. So, the relative atomic mass or atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5.

Fractional atomic mass of chlorine

At. Mass = 3(35) + 1(37) = 105 + 37

                          2                    2

Question 18

a. What is meant by 'atomic number of an element''?

b. Complete the table given below

 

No. of protons

No. of electrons

No. of Neutrons

Atomic Number

Mass number

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 

 

 

 

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 

 

 

 

 

c. Write down the electronic configuration of (i) chlorine atom (ii) chlorine ion

Solution 18

a. Atomic number of an element is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

b.  

 

No. of protons

No. of electrons

No. of neutrons

Atomic number

Mass number

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

17

17

18

17

35

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

17

17

20

17

37

c.  

 i. Electronic configuration of chlorine = 2, 8, 7

 ii. Electronic configuration of chlorine ion = 2, 8, 8 

Question 19

Name the following:

  1. The element which does not contain any neutron in its nucleus.
  2. An element having valency 'zero'
  3. Metal with valency 2
  4. Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different number of neutrons.
  5. The shell closest to the nucleus of an atom 

Solution 19

  1. Hydrogen
  2. Helium
  3. Magnesium
  4. Hydrogen and carbon
  5. K 

Question 20

Give reasons

  1. Physical properties of isotopes are different.
  2. Argon does not react.
  3. Actual atomic mass is greater than mass number.
  4. Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Solution 20

  1. Physical properties depend on atomic mass, and isotopes have different mass number, i.e. they have different number of neutrons. So, isotopes have different physical properties.
  2. Argon does not react as it has the outermost orbit complete, i.e. 8 electrons in the outermost shell.
  3. Actual atomic mass is greater than the mass number because the mass number is a whole number approximation of atomic mass unit. In fact, neutrons are slightly heavier than protons, and an atom has over 200 sub-atomic particles.
  4. Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bondingare isotopes of chlorine element which differ in the number of neutrons, whereas chemical properties are determined by the electronic configuration of an atom. Isotopes of an element are chemically alike. 

 

Question 21

An element A atomic number 7 mass numbers 14

B electronic configuration 2,8,8

C electrons 13, neutrons 14

D Protons 18 neutrons 22

E Electronic configuration 2,8,8,1

State (i) Valency of each element (ii) which one is a metal (iii) which is non-metal (iv) which is an inert gas

Solution 21

(i)

Element A

Atomic number = 7 = Number of electrons = 2, 5

Valency of A = 8 - 5 = 3

 

Element B

Electronic configuration 2, 8, 8

Valency of B = Zero

 

Element C has 13 electrons

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3

Valency of C = 3

 

Element D

Protons = 18 = Electrons = 2, 8, 8

Valency of D = Zero

 

Element E

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1

Valency of E = 1

 

(ii) C and E are metals.

(iii) A is a non-metal.

(iv) A, C and E are not inert gases.

Question 22

Choose the correct option

  1. Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment discovered

A. Electron

B. Proton

C. Atomic nucleus

D. Neutron

  1. Number of valence electrons in O2- is :

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 4

  1. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of potassium?

A. 2,8,9

B. 8,2,9

C. 2,8,8,1

D. 1,2,8,8 

Solution 22

  1. Atomic nucleus
  2. [6]
  3. [2, 8, 8, 1] 

Question 23

Explain

a. Octet rule for formation of sodium chloride

b. Duplet rule for formation of hydrogen 

Solution 23

Elements tend to combine with one another to attain the stable electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas.

 

(a) Sodium chloride

Sodium atom has 1 electron in the valence shell which it donates to the chlorine atom with 7 electrons in the valence shell to attain the stable electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas, i.e. 8 electrons in the valence shell. This is known as the octet rule. These elements combine to form sodium chloride.

 

(b) Hydrogen

Hydrogen atom has one electron in the valence shell which it shares with another hydrogen atom having one electron to complete its duplet state, i.e. two electrons in the valence shell and resulting in the formation of hydrogen.

Question 24

Complete the following table relating to the atomic structure of some elements.

Element Symbol

Atomic

Number

Mass

Number

Numbers of neutrons

Number of Electrons

Number of Protons

Li

3

6

 

 

 

Cl

17

 

20

 

 

Na

 

 

12

 

11

Al

 

27

 

 

13

S

 

32

16

 

 

Solution 24

 

Element Symbol

Atomic

Number

Mass

Number

Numbers of Neutrons

Number of Electrons

Number of Protons

Li

3

6

4

3

3

Cl

17

37

20

17

17

Na

11

23

12

11

11

Al

13

27

14

13

13

S

16

32

16

16

16

 

Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise Ex. 4(D)

Question 1

Question 1

How do atoms attain noble gas configurations?

Solution 1

Combining atoms attain the noble gas configuration by transferring or sharing electrons.

Question 2

Define electrovalent bond.

Solution 2

The chemical bond formed due to the electrostatic force of attraction between a cation and an anion is called an electrovalent bond. 

Question 3

Elements are classified as metals, non-metal, metalloids and inert gases. Which of them form electrovalent bond?

Solution 3

Metals have a tendency to lose their valence electrons (1, 2 or 3). So, they combine with non-metals which have 7, 6 or 5 electrons in their valence shell to form an electrovalent bond.

Question 4

  1. An atom X has three electrons more than the noble gas configuration. What type of ion will it form?
  2. Write the formula of its (X)  

 i. sulphate

 ii. nitrate

 iii. phosphate

 iv. carbonate

 v. hydroxide. 

Solution 4

  1. An atom X will lose its three electrons to acquire the noble gas configuration and form a positive ion (a cation).
  2. The formulae are

 i. X(SO4)3

 ii. X(NO3)3

 iii. XPO4

 iv. X2(CO3)3

 v. X(OH)3 

Question 5

Mention the basic tendency of an atom which makes it to combine with other atoms

Solution 5

Besides chaos, everything in this world wants stability. The same is the case with atoms. For atoms, stability means having the electron arrangement of an inert gas, i.e. octet in the outermost shell. Helium has two electrons (duplet), while all other inert gases, i.e. neon, argon, krypton, xenon and radon have eight electrons (octet) in the outermost shell.

Question 6

What type of compounds are usually formed between metals and non-metals and why?

Solution 6

Electrovalent compounds are usually formed between metals and non-metals.

Atoms of metallic elements which have 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons can lose electron(s) to atoms of non-metallic elements which have 5, 6 or 7 valence electrons and thereby form an electrovalent bond.

Question 7

  1. In the formation of the compound XY2, an atom X gives one electron to each Y atom. What is the nature of bond in XY2?
  2. Draw the electron dot structure of this compound. 

Solution 7

  1. Nature of bond in XY2 is an ionic bond.
  2. Electron dot structure of XY2:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

Question 8

An atom X has 2, 8, 7 electrons in its shell. It combines with Y having 1 electron in its outermost shell.

  1. What type of bond will be formed between X and Y?
  2. Write the formula of the compound formed. 

Solution 8

  1. Ionic bond
  2. XY 

Question 9

Draw orbit structure diagram of sodium chloride (NaCl) and calcium oxide (CaO).

Solution 9

NaCl

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

MgCl2

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

CaO

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 

Question 10

Compare :

  1. Sodium atom and sodium ion
  2. Chlorine atom and chloride ion, with respect to

           i. Atomic structure

          ii. Electrical state

Solution 10

  1.  

Sodium atom

Sodium ion

Sodium atom is electrically neutral. 

Sodium ion is positively charged. 

In sodium atom, there are 11 protons and 11 electrons, i.e. equal number of protons and electrons. 

In sodium ion, there are 11 protons but 10 electrons, i.e. sodium ion contains lesser number of electrons. 

Sodium atom has only one electron in its valence shell. 

Sodium ion has 8 electrons in its valence shell. 

Size of a sodium atom is larger than a sodium ion. 

Size of a sodium ion is smaller than a sodium atom. 

 

  1.  
    1. In chlorine atom, the number of protons (17) is equal to the number of electrons (17).

               In chloride ion, there are 17 protons but 18 electrons.

    1. Chlorine atom is electrically neutral. Chloride ion is negatively charged.
    2. Chlorine atom is reactive. It reacts with sodium vigorously forming sodium chloride. Chloride ion is unreactive. It does not react with sodium.
    3. Chlorine (Cl2) is a poisonous, toxic, corrosive gas which is used in the manufacture of bleaching agents and disinfectants. It is non-toxic and readily adsorbed by plants. 

Question 11

The electronic configuration of fluoride ion is the same as that of neon atom. What is the difference between the two?

Solution 11

Fluoride ion is a negatively charged ion with 9 protons and 10 electrons.

Neon atom is electrically neutral with 10 protons and 10 electrons.

Question 12

  1. What do you understand by redox reactions?
  2. Explain oxidation and reduction in terms of loss or gain of electrons.

Solution 12

  1. Transfer of electron(s) is involved in the formation of an electrovalent bond. The electropositive atom undergoes oxidation, while the electronegative atom undergoes reduction. This is known as a redox reaction.
  2. Oxidation: In the electronic concept, oxidation is a process in which an atom or ion loses electron(s).
    Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
    Reduction: In the electronic concept, reduction is a process in which an atom or ion accepts electron(s).
    Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu

 

Question 13

Potassium (at No.19) and chlorine (at No.17) react to form a compound. Explain on the basis of electronic concept:

 i. Oxidation

 ii. Reduction

 iii. Oxidizing agent

 iv. Reducing agent 

Solution 13

2K + Cl2 → 2KCl

 i. Oxidation: In the electronic concept, oxidation is a process in which an atom or ion loses electron(s).

K → K+ e-

 ii. Reduction: In the electronic concept, reduction is a process in which an atom or ion accepts electron(s).

Cl2 + 2e-→ 2Cl-

 iii. Oxidising agent

An oxidising agent oxidises other substances either by accepting electrons or by providing oxygen or an electronegative ion, or by removing hydrogen or an electropositive ion.

Cl2 + 2e-→ 2Cl-

 iv. Reducing agent

A reducing agent reduces other substances either by providing electrons or by providing hydrogen or an electropositive ion, or by removing oxygen or an electronegative ion.

K → K+ e-

Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise Ex. 4(E)

Question 1

  1. Define covalent bond.
  2. Give an example of the covalent bond formed by

(i) Similar atoms (ii) Dissimilar atoms 

Solution 1

  1. The chemical bond formed between two combining atoms by mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons is called a covalent bond.
  2. Covalent bond formed by
    1. Bond formed between two Cl atoms; Cl‒Cl
    2. Bond formed between hydrogen atom and chlorine atom; H‒Cl  

Question 2

Covalent bonds can be single, double or triple covalent bonds. How many electrons are shared in each? Give an example of each type.

Solution 2

A single covalent bond is formed by sharing of one pair of electrons between atoms, each atom contributing one electron.

A double bond is formed by sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms.

A triple bond is formed by sharing of three pairs of electrons between two atoms.

Question 3

Show number of bonds in

(i) ethene molecule  (ii) ethyne molecule

Solution 3

  1. Ethene molecule has one double covalent bond and four single covalent bonds.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

  1. Ethyne molecule has one triple covalent bond and two single covalent bonds.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 4

An element A has 1 electron in its first shell. It combines with element B having 7 electrons in its third shell. What type of bond is formed?

Solution 4

Element A with 1 electron in its first shell is hydrogen, and element B with 7 electrons in its third shell is chlorine.

So, a single covalent bond is formed between hydrogen and chlorine by sharing one pair of electrons.

Question 5

Match the atomic numbers 4,8,10,15 and 19 with each of the following:

  1. Element which can form trivalent ion
  2. Element with four shells
  3. Element with 6 valence electrons
  4. Element which does not form ion 

Solution 5

  1. Atomic number 15
    Electronic configuration (15): 2,8,5
  1. Atomic number 19
    Electronic configuration (19): 2,8,8,1
  1. Atomic number 8
    Electronic configuration (8): 2,6
  1. Atomic number 10
    Electronic configuration (10): 2,8 

Question 6

If electrons are getting added to en element Y; then

(a) Is Y getting oxidized or reduced?

(b)What charge will Y migrate to during the process of electrolysis?

Solution 6

  1. Electrons are getting added to element Y, so, it is getting reduced.
  2. Y will migrate towards the positive charge.

Question 7

  1. Elements X,Y and Z have atomic numbers 6,9 and 12 respectively. Which one:

 i. Forms an anion

 ii. Forms a cation

  1. State the type of bond between Y and Z and give its molecular formula. 

Solution 7

  1.  

 i. Y = 9

 ii. Z = 12

  1. Ionic bond with molecular formula ZY2. 

Question 8

Taking MgCl2 as an electrovalent compound, CCl4 as a covalent compound, give four difference between electrovalent and covalent compounds

Solution 8

 

MgCl2 - Electrovalent compound

CCl4 - Covalent compound

They are hard crystalline solids consisting of ions.

These are gases or liquids or soft solids.

They have high melting and boiling points.

They have low melting and boiling points.

They conduct electricity in the fused or aqueous state.

They do not conduct electricity in the solid, molten or aqueous state.

These are soluble in inorganic solvents but insoluble in organic solvents.

These are insoluble in water but dissolve in organic solvents.

 

Question 9

Potassium chloride is an electrovalent compound, while hydrogen chloride is covalent compound, But, both conduct electricity in their aqueous solutions. Explain.

Solution 9

Potassium chloride is an electrovalent compound and conducts electricity in the molten or aqueous state because the electrostatic forces of attraction weaken in the fused state or in aqueous solution.

Polar covalent compounds like hydrogen chloride ionise in their solutions and can act as an electrolyte. So, both can conduct electricity in their aqueous solutions.

Question 10

Name two compounds that are covalent when taken pure but produce ions when dissolved in water.

Solution 10

HCl and NH3

Question 11

An element M burns in oxygen to form an ionic compound MO. Write the formula of the compounds formed if this element is made to continue with chlorine and sulphur separately.

Solution 11

Formula of compound when combined with sulphur - MS

Formula of compound when combined with chlorine - MCl2 

Question 12

Give orbital diagram of the following:

a) Magnesium chloride

b) Nitrogen

c) Methane

d) Hydrogen chloride

Solution 12

Orbital Diagram:

a) Magnesium chloride

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

b) Nitrogen

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

             Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 

c) Methane

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding

 

                    Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

d) Hydrogen chloride

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

           Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

Question 13

State the type of bonding in the following molecules.

  1. Water,
  2. Calcium oxide
  3. Hydrogen chloride 

Solution 13

  1. Polar covalent bond
  2. Ionic bond
  3. Polar covalent bond 

Question 14

Element M forms a chloride with the formula MCl2 which is a solid with high melting point. What type of bond is in MCl2 . Write the formula of the compound when M combine with sulphur, oxygen and nitrogen.

Solution 14

The bond formed between metal and nonmetal is ionic bond.

 

Bond formed between metal M and chlorine is ionic bond.

 

When metal M combines with sulphur – MgS

 

When metal M combines with  oxygen – MgO

When metal M combines with nitrogen – Mg3N2.

Question 15

  1. Mass of an atom is concentrated inside the nucleus of the atom.
  2. Atoms combine by transfer and sharing of electron(s).
  3. An element has atoms with different mass number.  
  4. Carbon-12 and carbon-14 both show similar chemical properties. 

Solution 15

  1. Mass of an atom is contributed by mass of protons and mass of neutrons present inside the nucleus of an atom. Electrons present outside the nucleus are of negligible mass. Therefore, the mass of an atom is concentrated inside the nucleus of an atom.
  2. Atoms combine because they have incomplete valence shells and tend to attain a stable electronic configuration. So, to attain a stable electronic configuration, atoms of elements gain or share their electrons with other atoms.
  3. Mass of an atom is contributed by mass of protons and mass of neutrons present inside the nucleus of an atom. Atoms of the same element contain the same number of protons but may differ in their number of neutrons. Therefore, an element has atoms with different mass number.
  4. Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. They have the same atomic number (6) and hence the same electronic configuration. Chemical properties are determined by the electronic configuration of an atom. So, carbon-12 and carbon-14 show similar chemical properties.

Question 16

  1. The characteristic of an electrovalent compound is that:

a. They are formed by sharing of electrons.

b. They are formed between metals and non-metals.

c. They are formed between two non-metals.

d. They often exist as a liquid.

 

  1. When a metal atom becomes an ion:

a. It loses electrons and is oxidised.

b. It gains electrons and is reduced.

c. It gains electrons and is oxidised.

d. It loses electrons and is reduced. 

Solution 16

(i) B. They are formed between metals and non-metals.

(ii) A. It loses electrons and is oxidised.

Question 17

Identify the following reactions as either oxidation or reduction:

 i. O + 2e- → O2-

  1. K - e- → K+
  2. Fe3+ + e- → Fe2+
  3. Zn → Zn2+ + 2e- 

Solution 17

  1. Reduction
  2. Oxidation
  3. Reduction
  4. Oxidation 

Question 18

  1. Name the charged particles which attract one another to form electrovalent compounds.
  2. In the formation of electrovalent compounds, electrons are transferred from one element to another. How are electrons involved in the formation of a covalent compound?
  3. The electronic configuration of nitrogen is (2, 5). How many electrons in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom are not involved in the formation of a nitrogen molecule?
  4. In the formation of magnesium chloride (by direct combination between magnesium and chlorine), name the substance that is oxidized and the substance that is reduced. 

Solution 18

  1. Cation and anion
  2. By mutual sharing of electrons
  3. Two
  4. Magnesium is oxidised and chlorine is reduced. 

Question 19

What is the term defined below?

  1. A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair.
  2. A bond formed by transfer of electron(s). 

Solution 19

  1. Single covalent bond
  2. Electrovalent bond 

Question 20

Name or state the following:

(a) An element having valency zero

(b) Metal with valency one

(c) Atoms of the same element differing in mass number

(d) Elements having same mass number but different atomic number

(e) Bond formed by transfer of electron(s)

(f) Ion formed by gain of electron(s)

Solution 20

(a) Helium

(b) Lithium

(c) Hydrogen: 11H, 21H, 31H

(d)  4018Ar and 4020Ca

(e) Ionic bond

(f) Anion

Question 21

An element X has 2 electrons in its M shell, it forms bond with an element Y which has 7 electrons in its third orbit.

  1. Write the formula of the compound formed.
  2. Which nearest inert gas electronic configuration will element X and Y acquire.
  3. Show by orbital diagram the formation of compound between X and Y. 

Solution 21

Element X has 2 electrons in its M shell.

The electronic configuration would be 2, 8, 2.

So, element X is Mg (12).

Element Y has 7 electrons in its third orbit.

The electronic configuration would be 2, 8, 7.

So, element Y is Cl (17).

  1. MgCl2
  2. The nearest inert gas electronic configuration for element X is 2,8, while that for element Y is 2,8,8.
  3. Orbital diagram showing the formation of the compound between X and Y:

Magnesium chloride:

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

Question 22

In the formation of (i) oxygen molecule (ii) carbon tetrachloride molecule, state the following:

  1. Electronic configuration of nearest inert gas attained.
  2. How many electrons are shared/transferred in bond formation
  3. Which type of bonds these compounds form?
  4. Draw their orbital diagrams. 

Solution 22

In the formation of

  1. Oxygen molecule
    1. Neon (10) 2,8
    2. Two pairs of electrons are shared.
    3. Covalent bond
    4. Orbital Diagram:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

  1. Carbon tetrachloride molecule
    1. Neon (10) 2,8
    2. Four pair of electrons are shared.
    3. Covalent bond
    4. Orbital Diagram:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Atomic Structure And Chemical Bonding 

 

 

 

Chemistry Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise Ex. 6(A)

Question 1

Justify the position of Hydrogen in the periodic table.

Solution 1

Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table. Its atomic number is 1, and it has only one electron in its valence shell. So, it belongs to the first group and the first period of the periodic table.

Question 2

Why does hydrogen show dual nature?

Solution 2

Hydrogen shows dual nature because it resembles the alkali metals of Group IA and the halogens of Group VIIA.

Question 3

Compare hydrogen with alkali metals on basis of:

  1. Ion formation
  2. Reducing power
  3. Reaction with oxygen
  4. Oxide formation 

Solution 3

  1. Each of them can form a cation by loss of an electron.

H → H+ + e-

Li →Li+ + e-

  1. Both alkali metals and hydrogen act as reducing agents.

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O

CuO + Na → Cu + Na2O

  1. Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns with a pop sound.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

Alkali metals also burn vigorously when heated in oxygen to form their respective oxides.

Lithium forms monoxide.

4Li + O2 → 2Li2O

  1. Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns with a pop sound.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

Alkali metals also burn vigorously when heated in oxygen to form their respective oxides.

Lithium forms monoxide.

4Li + O2 → 2Li2O

Question 4

In what respect does hydrogen differ from:

  1. alkali metals
  2. halogens? 

Solution 4

  1. Oxides of alkali metals are basic in nature, whereas the oxide of hydrogen H2O is a neutral oxide.
  2. Hydrogen atom has only one shell, but halogens have two or more shells. 

Question 5

Give the general group study of hydrogen with reference to

  1. valence electrons
  2. burning
  3. reducing power 

Solution 5

  1. Hydrogen has one valence electron in its outermost orbit.
  2. Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns with a pop sound.

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

  1. Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent.

CuO + H2 → Cu + H2

Question 6

Why hydrogen was called 'inflammable air'?

Solution 6

Hydrogen was called inflammable air because of its combustible nature.

Question 7

State some sources of hydrogen.

Solution 7

In the free state, hydrogen is found in traces in the earth's crust and atmosphere.

In the combined state, plant and animal tissues are made of compounds of hydrogen with carbon, oxygen and nitrogen.

Question 8

Compare hydrogen and halogens on the basis of:

  1. physical state
  2. ion formation
  3. valency 
  4. reaction with oxygen 

Solution 8

  1. Like halogens (fluorine and chlorine), hydrogen too is a gas.
  2. Both show a tendency to form anions because they are one electron short of the nearest inert gas configuration.

H + e- → H-

Cl + e- →Cl-

  1. Both have valency 1.
  2. Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form neutral oxide, H2O. Halogens react with oxygen to form acidic oxides like Cl2O and Cl2O7

Question 9

Which metal is preferred for preparation of hydrogen.

  1. from water?
  2. from acid? 

Solution 9

  1. Reactive metals such as potassium, sodium and calcium.
  2. Magnesium, aluminium, zinc and iron. 

Question 10

  1. Write the reaction of steam with red hot iron.
  2. Why this reaction is considered as reversible reaction?
  3. How the reaction can proceed continuously? 

Solution 10

  1. 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2
  2. The reaction is reversible because if hydrogen formed is not removed, then the iron oxide formed is reduced back to iron.
  3. Because the reaction is a reversible reaction, equilibrium is attained at 700°C. At this stage, the amount of reactants and products does not change. 

Question 11

Explain the unique nature of zinc and aluminium. Give balanced equations to support your explanation.

Solution 11

They react with acids and can even react with hot concentrated alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.

Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2

2Al + 6NaOH→ 2Na2Al O3 + 3H2

Oxides and hydroxides of zinc and aluminium are amphoteric. They react with both bases and acids to give salt and water.

ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O

ZnO + 2NaOH →Na2ZnO2 + H2O

Question 12

Write balanced equations for the following:

  1. Iron reacts with dil. HCl
  2. Zinc reacts with caustic soda solution
  3. Lead reacts with potassium hydroxide
  4. Aluminium reacts with fused sodium hydroxide 

Solution 12

  1. Fe +2 HC l → FeCl2 + H2
  2. Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
  3. Pb + 2KOH → K2PbO2 + H2
  4. 2Al + 6NaOH→ 2Na2Al O3 + 3H2 

Question 13

Write the balanced equations and give your observations when the following metals react:

 i. Sodium with cold water

 ii. Calcium with cold water

 iii. Magnesium with boiling water

 iv. Magnesium with steam

Solution 13

  1. The reaction is highly exothermic and vigorous with the evolution of hydrogen.

2Na + 2H2O →2NaOH + H2

  1. Calcium sinks in water and the reaction is less vigorous.

Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2

  1. Magnesium reacts slowly with boiling water and forms a base, magnesium hydroxide, liberating hydrogen gas.

Mg + 2H2O →Mg(OH)2 + H2O

  1. Magnesium burns in steam with an intense white light liberating hydrogen gas and white ash, i.e. magnesium oxide.

Mg + H2O → MgO + H2 

Question 14

  1. Under what conditions iron reacts with water.
  2. Give the balanced equation of the reaction.
  3. What is noticed if the products are not allowed to escape?

Solution 14

  1. Iron is less reactive than zinc, but red hot iron reacts with steam, forming triferric tetra-oxide and hydrogen gas.
  2. 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2
  3. If the product formed, i.e. hydrogen is not removed, then the iron oxide formed is reduced back to iron. 

Question 15

From the knowledge of activity series, name a metal which shows the following properties

  1. It reacts readily with cold water.
  2. It displaces hydrogen from hot water.
  3. It displaces hydrogen from dilute HCl.
  4. It forms a base which is insoluble in water. 

Solution 15

  1. Sodium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Zinc
  4. Calcium 

Question 16

 Complete the following word equations:

  1. Sodium hydroxide + zinc → hydrogen + _________
  2. Calcium + water → calcium hydroxide + _________

Solution 16

  1. Sodium hydroxide + zinc → hydrogen + sodium zincate
  2. Calcium + water → calcium hydroxide + hydrogen

Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise Ex. 6(B)

Question 1

Hydrogen can be prepared with the metal zinc by using:

  1. acid
  2. alkali
  3. water

Give an equation in each case.

Solution 1

  1. Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
  2. Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
  3. Zn + H2O → ZnO + H2 

Question 2

For laboratory preparation of hydrogen, give the following:

  1. materials used
  2. method of collection
  3. chemical equation
  4. fully-labelled diagram 

Solution 2

  1. Granulated zinc, dilute HCl or dil. H2SO4
  2. It is collected by the downward displacement of water.
  3. Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
  4.  

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element Hydrogen 

Question 3

  1. Name the impurities present in hydrogen prepared in the laboratory.
  2. How can these impurities be removed? 

Solution 3

  1. Hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, phosphine, arsine, carbon dioxide and water vapour are impurities present in the laboratory.
  2. The impurities can be removed from hydrogen by passing it through

1. Silver nitrate solution to remove arsine and phosphine.

    AsH3 + 6AgNO3 → Ag3As + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

    PH3 + 6AgNO3 → Ag3P + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

2. Lead nitrate solution to remove hydrogen sulphide.

    Pb(NO3)2 + H2S → PbS + 2HNO3

3. Caustic potash solution to remove sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.

    SO2 + 2KOH → K2SO3 + H2O

    CO2 + 2KOH→ K2CO3+ H2O

    2NO2 + 2KOH →KNO2 + KNO3 + H2O

4. A drying agent used to dry the gas. Common drying agents such as fused calcium chloride, caustic potash stick and phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour.

So, the gas is purified and dried and then collected over mercury because mercury does not react with it. 

Question 4

Which test should be made before collecting hydrogen in a gas jar?

Solution 4

Test: Collect some amount of gas in a test tube and take it to a flame.

If the gas burns quietly, then there is no more air in the flask.

Question 5

Why nitric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen?

Solution 5

Nitric acid is a powerful oxidising agent, and the oxygen formed due to its decomposition oxidises hydrogen to give water thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.

3Zn + 8HNO3 → 3Zn(NO3)2 + 4H2O + 2NO

Question 6

Why hot concentrated sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen?

Solution 6

Conc. sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen as it will produce sulphur dioxide.

Zn + 2H2SO4 →ZnSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

Question 7

Hydrogen is manufactured by 'Bosch Process'.

  1. Give the equations with conditions.
  2. How can you obtain hydrogen from a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide? 

Solution 7

  1. C + H2O Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element Hydrogen(CO + H2) - ∆

       (CO + H2) + H2O Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element HydrogenCO2 + 2H2 + ∆

  1. The mixture is passed through ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution in order to dissolve any uncombined carbon monoxide.

        CuCl + CO + 2H2O →CuCl.CO.2H2

Question 8

Give equations to express the reaction between:

  1. Steam and red hot iron
  2. Calcium and water 

Solution 8

  1. 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2
  2. Ca + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + H2 

Question 9

A small piece of calcium metal is put into a small trough containing water. There is effervescence and white turbidity is formed.

  1. Name the gas formed in the reaction. How would you test the gas?
  2. Write an equation for the reaction.
  3. What do you observe when a few drops of red litmus solution are added to the turbid solution.

Solution 9

  1. Hydrogen gas. When red litmus is introduced in the solution, it turns blue.
  2. Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
  3. The solution turns blue.
  4. If dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the turbid solution, then they react and neutralise each other, forming the soluble salt calcium chloride (CaCl2) and water.

        Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2

Question 10

Thin strips of magnesium,copper and iron are taken.

  1. Write down what happens when these metals are treated as follows:
    1. Heated in presence of air
    2. Heated with dil.HCl
    3. Added to an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate
  1. Arrange these metals in descending order of reactivity. 

Solution 10

  1.  
    1. On heating thin strips of magnesium, copper and iron, they form oxides.
    2. Magnesium and iron react with HCl liberating hydrogen and forming their respective salts. Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals which are below it in the activity series of metals (such as copper) because only metals which are more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from acids.
    3. Only magnesium will displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution because magnesium is more reactive than zinc in the activity series of metals. No reaction takes place in case of copper and iron because they are less reactive than zinc.
  1. Mg > Fe > Cu 

Question 11

Choose the correct option:

  1. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. HNO3 on
    A. Fe B. Cu C. Mg D. Zn
  1. Which metal absorbs hydrogen?
    A. Al B. Fe C. Pd D. K
  1. The composition of nucleus of deuterium is
    A. 1 e- and 1P B. 1 P and 1 A
    C. 1 n and 1 eD. 2P and 1 e-
  1. Elements which show unique nature in the preparation of hydrogen are:
    A. Na, K, Li B. Mg, Ca, Ba
    C. Al, Zn, Pb D. Fe, Cu, Ag

Solution 11

  1. C. Mg 
  2. C. Pd 
  3. C. 1 n and 1 e-
  4. C. Al, Zn, Pb  

Question 12

Give reasons for the following:

  1. Zinc granules are used in lab preparation of hydrogen.
  2. Purified and dried hydrogen is collected over mercury.
  3. The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under acid
  4. Dilute sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated acid in the preparation of hydrogen.

 

Solution 12

  1. Zinc granules are preferred over pure zinc in the lab preparation of hydrogen because the impurity present in granulated zinc is copper, whose catalysing effect speeds up the rate of the reaction.
  2. Purified and dried hydrogen is collected over mercury because mercury has no reaction with it.
  3. The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under acid so as to prevent the gas from escaping from the thistle funnel.
  4. Dilute sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated acid in the preparation of hydrogen because it is a strong oxidising agent and it will produce sulphur dioxide.

Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise Ex. 6(C)

Question 1

  1. Where does hydrogen occur in free state?
  2. How did the name 'hydrogen' originate? 

Solution 1

  1. In the free state, hydrogen is found in traces in the earth's crust and atmosphere. Volcanic gases contain 0.025%, the earth's crust 0.98%, the earth's atmosphere 0.01% and the atmosphere of the Sun and stars 1.1%.
  2. The name 'hydrogen' originated on account of its ability to form water. 

Question 2

Hydrogen can be prepared with the help of cold water. Give a reaction of hydrogen with:

  1. A monovalent metal
  2. A divalent metal 

Solution 2

  1. 2K + 2H2O →2KOH + H2
  2. Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 

Question 3

Which metal is preferred for collecting hydrogen from:

  1. Cold water
  2. Hot water
  3. Steam

Solution 3

Metal preferred for collecting hydrogen from

  1. Cold water: Sodium
  2. Hot water: Magnesium
  3. Steam: Aluminium

Question 4

Hydrogen may be prepared in the laboratory by the action of a metal on an acid.

  1. Which of the metals copper, zinc, magnesium or sodium would be the most suitable?
  2. Which of the acids dilute sulphuric, concentrated sulphuric, dilute nitric acid and concentrated nitric acid would you choose? Explain why you would not use the acids you reject.
  3. How would you modify your apparatus to collect dry hydrogen? Which drying agent would you employ for this purpose? 

Solution 4

  1. Zinc is the most preferred metal in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.
  2. Dilute sulphuric acid.

Conc. nitric acid, even in its dilute form, is not used in the preparation of hydrogen from metals because it is a powerful oxidising agent and oxygen formed due to its decomposition oxidises hydrogen to give water, thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.

Conc. sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen as it will produce sulphur dioxide.

  1. The gas is collected by the downward displacement of water.

Common drying agents such as fused calcium chloride, caustic potash stick and phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour. 

Question 5

Why are the following metals not used in the lab. preparation of hydrogen?

  1. calcium
  2. iron
  3. aluminium 
  4. sodium 

Solution 5

  1. Calcium is expensive.
  2. Iron has to be heated, and hydrogen thus produced contains impurities such as hydrogen sulphide and sulphur dioxide.
  3. Aluminium forms a protective coating of Al2O3 due to its great affinity for oxygen. So, it does not give hydrogen with acid after the reaction has occurred for some time.
  4. Sodium reacts violently with acid. 

Question 6

Based on the reactions of water on metals, arrange the following metals in increasing order of reactivity: iron, sodium, magnesium, zinc, calcium

Solution 6

Increasing order of reactivity of metals:

Iron < Zinc < Magnesium < Calcium < Sodium

Question 7

Hydrogen is evolved when dilute HCl reacts with magnesium, but nothing happens in the case of mercury and silver. Explain.

Solution 7

Hydrogen is evolved when dilute HCl reacts with magnesium which is placed above hydrogen in the activity series. However, this does not occur for metals below hydrogen such as mercury and silver. This is because only metals which are more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from HCl.

Question 8

Steam can react with metal and non-metal to liberate hydrogen. Give necessary conditions and equations for the same.

Solution 8

  1. With metals:

3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2

  1. With non-metals:

Steam is passed over hot coke (1000°C) in furnaces of a special design called inverters giving water gas.

C + H2O Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element Hydrogen(CO + H2) - ∆

 

Water is mixed with excess steam and passed over heated ferric oxide which acts as a catalyst and chromic oxide which acts as a promoter.

(CO + H2) + H2O Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element HydrogenCO2 + 2H2 + ∆

 

The above mixture CO2 + H2 is formed through cold water under pressure (30 atm) or through caustic potash solution, which dissolves the more soluble carbon dioxide leaving hydrogen.

2KOH + CO2 →K2CO3 + H2O

 

The mixture is passed through ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution in order to dissolve any uncombined carbon monoxide.

CuCl + CO + 2H2O →CuCl.CO.2H2

 

Question 9

Hydrogen is obtained by displacement from:

  1. dilute sulphuric acid
  2. dilute hydrochloric acid

Write equations using zinc and iron.

Why does copper not show similar behavior?

Solution 9

  1. Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
  2. Fe + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2

Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals which are below it in the activity series of metals such as copper because only metals which are more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from acids. 

Question 10

Give reason for the following:

  1. Though lead is above hydrogen in the activity series, it does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid.
  2. Potassium and sodium are not used for reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid in laboratory preparation of hydrogen. 

Solution 10

  1. It forms an insoluble coating of lead sulphate or lead chloride. So, further reaction is prevented.
  2. Potassium and sodium react violently with acid. Hence, potassium and sodium are not used for reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen. 

Question 11

Name two alkalies that can displace hydrogen. Give balanced equations for the same. Why are the metals you have used considered to have unique nature?

Solution 11

NaOH and KOH

Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2

Zn + 2KOH → K2ZnO2 + H2

Metals such as zinc, lead and aluminium have a unique nature. They react with acids and can even react with hot alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.

Question 12

Complete and balance the following reactions.

  1. Na + H2O →_____________ +___________
  2. Ca + H2O →_____________ +___________
  3. Mg + H2O →_____________ +___________
  4. Zn + H2O →_____________ +___________
  5. Fe + H2O →_____________ +___________
  6. Zn + HCl →_____________ +___________
  7. Al + H2SO4 →_____________ +___________
  8. Fe + HCl →_____________ +___________
  9. Zn + NaOH →_____________ +___________
  10. Al + KOH + H2O→_____________ +___________ 

Solution 12

  1. 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
  2. Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
  3. Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2
  4. Zn + H2O → ZnO + H2
  5. 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2
  6. Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
  7. 2Al + 3H2SO4 →Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2
  8. Fe +2HCl →FeCl2 + H2
  9. Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
  10. 2Al + 2KOH + 2H2O →2KAlO2 + 3H2 

Question 13

If the following are kept in closed vessels at over 400°C, what would happen to them?

  1. iron filing and steam
  2. hydrogen and magnetic oxide of iron? 

Solution 13

  1. Iron oxide is formed with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
  2. Hydrogen reduces heated magnetic oxide of iron. 

Question 14

  1. A metal in the powdered from reacts very slowly with boiling water, but it decomposes in steam. Name the metal.
  2. Write a balanced equation for the reaction occurring in (a). 

Solution 14

  1. Magnesium
  2. Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2

Mg + H2O →MgO + H2 

Question 15

What do you observe when hydrogen gas is passed through a soap solution?

Solution 15

On passing hydrogen gas through soap solution, soap bubbles filled with hydrogen fly high and burst. This behavior proves that hydrogen is lighter than air.

Question 16

Under what conditions can hydrogen be made to combine with?

  1. nitrogen?
  2. chlorine?
  3. sulphur?
  4. oxygen?

Name the products in each case and write the equation for each reaction.

Solution 16

  1. Three volumes of hydrogen and one volume of nitrogen react at temperature 450-500°C and pressure 200-900 atm in the presence of finely divided iron catalyst with molybdenum as promoter to give ammonia.

N2 + 3H2 2NH3 

  1. Equal volumes of hydrogen and chlorine react slowly in diffused sunlight to form hydrogen chloride.

H2 + Cl2 →2HCl

  1. Hydrogen gas on passing through molten sulphur reacts to give hydrogen sulphide.

H2 + S → H2S

  1. Hydrogen burns in the presence of electric spark with a 'pop' sound in oxygen and with a blue flame forming water.

2H2 + O2 →2H2

Question 17

When hydrogen is passed over a black solid compound A, the products are a 'colourless liquid' and a 'reddish brown metal B'.

Substance B is divided into two parts each placed in separate test tubes.

Dilute HCl is added to one part of substance B and dilute HNO3 to the other.

  1. Name the substances A and B.
  2. Give two tests for the colourless liquid formed in the experiment.
  3. What happens to substance A when it reacts with hydrogen? Give reasons for your answer.
  4. Write an equation for the reaction between hydrogen and substance A.
  5. Is there any reaction between substance B and dilute hydrochloric acid? Give reasons for your answer.  

Solution 17

  1. A = CuO, B = Cu
  2. Blue and red litmus paper when dipped in the colourless liquid do not change colour. This confirms the liquid formed is neutral and is water.

It changes white anhydrous copper sulphate to blue salt.

  1. Black copper oxide (A) on heating with hydrogen reduces copper oxide to reddish brown copper and itself gets oxidised to water.

Hydrogen is a strong reducing agent and removes oxygen from less active metals, i.e. it removes oxygen from heated metal oxides when passed over them and itself gets oxidised to water.

  1. CuO + H2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Study Of The First Element Hydrogen Cu + H2O
  2. Cu + HCl →No reaction

Copper is less reactive than hydrogen and hence cannot displace it from HCl. 

Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise Ex. 6(D)

Question 1

Describe briefly the ionic concept of oxidation and reduction. Give an equation to illustrate.

Solution 1

In the electronic concept, oxidation is a process in which an atom or ion loses electron(s).

Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-

Oxidation is also defined as a chemical process which involves

  1. Addition of oxygen
  2. Addition of electronegative ion
  3. Removal of hydrogen
  4. Removal of electropositive ion (element)

In the electronic concept, reduction is a process in which an atom or ion gains electrons.

Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu

Reduction is also defined as a chemical process which involves

  1. Removal of oxygen
  2. Addition of electropositive ion
  3. Addition of hydrogen
  4. Removal of electronegative ion 

Question 2

Is it essential that oxidation and reduction must occur side by side in a chemical reaction? Explain

Solution 2

In a chemical reaction, if one substance is oxidised, the other substance must necessarily be reduced. This is because the electrons lost during oxidation are simultaneously gained during reduction and vice versa.

For example: Zinc reacts with copper sulphate to form zinc sulphate and copper.

CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu

Cu + 2SO42- + Zn →Zn + 2SO42- + Cu

Writing the half reaction,

Zn → Zn2+ + 2e- (Oxidation)

Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu (Reduction)

They occur simultaneously as

Cu2+ + Zn→ Zn2++ Cu

Thus, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously. 

Question 3

State, giving reasons, whether the substances printed in bold letters have been oxidized or reduced.

  1. PbO + CO → Pb + CO2
  2. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
  3. H2S + Cl2→ 2HCl + S
  4. Cl2 + H2S → 2HCl + S 

Solution 3

  1. PbO in the given reaction is reduced to Pb by losing oxygen.
  2. Magnesium undergoes oxidation by loss of electrons (Mg - 2e- → Mg2+).
  3. H2S undergoes oxidation by loss of hydrogen to give sulphur.
  4. Chlorine undergoes reduction by the addition of hydrogen to form HCl. 

Question 4

State whether the following conversions are oxidation or reduction:

  1. PbO2 + SO2→ PbSO4 
  2. Cu2+ + 2 e-→ Cu 
  3. K → K+ + e- 
  4. 2Cl- - e-→ Cl2 

 

Solution 4

  1. Oxidation
  2. Reduction
  3. Oxidation
  4. Oxidation 

Question 5

In the following reaction: A+ + B → A + B+. Write half reactions for this reaction and name:

  1. oxidizing agent
  2. substance oxidized
  3. reducing agent 

Solution 5

Half reaction:

A+ + e-→ A (Reduction)

B → B + e- (Oxidation)

a. A

b. B

c. B 

Question 6

Divide the following reactions into oxidation and reduction half reactions:

  1. Zn + Pb2+ Pb + Zn 2+
  2. Zn + Cu2+ Cu + Zn 2+
  3. Cl2 + 2Br-  Br2 + 2Cl-

Solution 6

  1. Zn + Pb2+ → Pb + Zn 2+
    Zn → Zn 2+ + 2
    e- ---- Oxidation
    Pb2+ + 2 e → Pb ---- Reduction
  1. Zn + Cu2+ Cu + Zn 2+
    Zn
    Zn 2+ + 2 e- ---- Oxidation
    Cu2+ + 2 e → Cu ---- Reduction
  1. Cl2 + 2Br-  Br2 + 2Cl
    Cl2
     2Cl- + 2 e- ---- Oxidation
    2Br + 2 e → Br2---- Reduction

Question 7

  1. Write the equation in the ionic form

CuSO4(aq)  + Fe(s)→ FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

  1. Divide the above equation into oxidation and reduction half reactions.

 

Solution 7

  1. Equation in the ionic form:

Cu2+ SO42-   + Fe → Fe2+  SO42- + Cu

  1. Fe → Fe2+  2 e- ---- Oxidation  

Cu2+ + 2 e → Cu ---- Reduction 

Question 8

Give reasons:

  1. Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of water and not of air, even though it is lighter than air.
  2. A candle brought near the mouth of a jar containing hydrogen gas starts burning but is extinguished when pushed inside the jar.
  3. Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should be air tight and away from a naked flame.

Solution 8

  1. Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of air because
    i. It is insoluble in water.
    ii. It forms an explosive mixture with air and therefore cannot be collected by the downward displacement of air even though it is lighter than it.
  1. Hydrogen is combustible, but it does not support combustion. So, the candle burns in air or oxygen when brought near the mouth of a jar containing hydrogen but is extinguished when pushed inside the jar as the supply of oxygen is cut off.
  2. Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should be airtight and away from a naked flame because a mixture of hydrogen and air explodes violently when brought near a flame.

Question 9

Select the odd one out and justify your answer.

  1. Zn, Fe, Mg and Na
  2. SO2, H2S, NH3 and CO3
  3. Fe, Zn, Cu and Mg
  4. Fe, Pb, Al and Zn 

Solution 9

  1. Na

The other metals react with dil. HCl liberating hydrogen gas, while sodium reacts violently with acid.

  1. NH3 is basic in nature.
  2. Cu

Metals more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from acids.

  1. Pb

Lead reacts with dilute sulphuric acid or HCl and forms an insoluble coating of lead sulphate or lead chloride.

The others react with dilute sulphuric acid or HCl to liberate hydrogen. 

Question 10

  1. Helium is preferred to hydrogen for filling balloons because it is:
    1. lighter than air
    2. almost as light as hydrogen
    3. non-combustible
    4. inflammable
  1. Reacting with water, an active metal produces
    1. oxygen
    2. nitric acid
    3. a base
    4. none of these

c. A metal oxide that is reduced by hydrogen is

 i. Al2O3

 ii. CuO

 iii. CaO

 iv. Na2O

  1. Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect?
    1. It is an inflammable gas
    2. It is the lightest gas.
    3. It is not easily liquefied
    4. It is a strong oxidizing agent.
  1. For the reaction PbO + H2→ Pb + H2O, which of the following statements is wrong?
    1. H2 is the reducing agent.
    2. PbO is the oxidizing agent.
    3. PbO is oxidized to Pb.
    4. H2 is oxidized to H2O.
  1. Which metal gives hydrogen with all of the following: water, acids, alkalis?
    1. Fe
    2. Zn
    3. Mg
    4. Pb
  1. Which of the following metals does not give hydrogen with acids?
    1. Iron
    2. Copper
    3. Lead
    4. Zinc

Solution 10

a. non-combustible

b. base

c. CuO

d. It is a strong oxidising agent.

e. (iii) PbO is oxidised to Pb.

f. (ii) Zn

g. (ii) Cu

Question 11

Choose terms from the options given in brackets to complete these sentences.

  1. When CuO reacts with hydrogen,………………… is reduced and ……………….is oxidized to ………………… .

(CuO, H2,Cu,H2O)

  1. Hydrogen is ………………… soluble in water.

(sparingly, highly, moderately)

  1. Metals like …………….. , ……………… and ……………… give H2 with steam.

(iron, magnesium, aluminium, sodium , calcium)

  1. Sodium ………………. reacts smoothly with cold water.

(metal, amalgam, in the molten state)

  1. A metal …………….. hydrogen in the activity series gives hydrogen with …………… acid or …………… acid.



Solution 11

  1. CuO, H2, H2O
  2. sparingly
  3. magnesium, iron and aluminium
  4. amalgam
  5. above, dilute hydrochloric, dilute sulphuric acid 

Question 12

Correct the following statements:

  1. Hydrogen is separated from CO by passing the mixture through caustic potash solution.
  2. All metals react with acids to give hydrogen.
  3. Hydrogen is dried by passing it through conc. H2SO4.
  4. Very dilute nitric acid reacts with iron to produce hydrogen.
  5. Conc. H2SO4 reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen. 

Solution 12

  1. Hydrogen is separated from CO by passing the mixture through caustic potash solution.
  2. All metals above hydrogen in the activity series react with acids to give hydrogen. 
  3. Hydrogen is dried by passing it through calcium chloride, caustic potash and phosphorous pentoxide. 
  4. Very dilute nitric acid reacts with magnesium and manganese to produce hydrogen.
  5. Dil. H2SO4 reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen.

Question 13

Name:

  1. an oxidizing agent that does not contain oxygen.
  2. a substance that oxidizes concentrated HCl to chlorine.
  3. a substance that will reduce aqueous Iron(III)ions to Iron(II)ions.
  4. a liquid that is an oxidizing agent as well as a reducing agent.
  5. a gas that is an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.
  6. a solid that is an oxidizing agent. 

Solution 13

  1. Chlorine
  2. MnO2
  3. H2S
  4. Hydrogen peroxide
  5. MnO2 

 

 

 

 Class-9 Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise Ex. 5(A)

Question 1

What is the need for classification of elements?

Solution 1

It is impossible for a chemist to study all the elements and their compounds. Hence, classification is a must.

Following are the reasons for the classification of elements:

  1. To study elements better
  2. To correlate the properties of the elements with some fundamental properties which are characteristic of all the elements
  3. To reveal relationships between elements 

Question 2

What was the basis of the earliest attempts made for classification and grouping of elements?

Solution 2

The first classification of elements was into 2 groups-metals and non-metals.

Question 3(a)

A, B and C are the elements of a Dobereiner's triad. If the atomic mass of A is 7 and that of C is 39, what should be the atomic mass of B?

Solution 3(a)

At. wt. of A = 7, At. wt. of C = 39

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - The Periodic Table 

At. wt. of B = 23

i.e. Average of weights of A and C.

Question 3(b)

Why was Dobereiner's triad discarded?

Solution 3(b)

  1. Döbereiner failed to arrange all the known elements in the form of triads.
  2. In the triad of fluorine (19), chlorine (35.5) and bromine (80), it is observed that the mean of the atomic masses of fluorine and bromine is ½(19 + 80) = 49.5, not 35.5. 

Question 4

Explain 'Newland's Law of Octaves.' Why was the law discarded?

Solution 4

Elements when arranged in the increasing order of their atomic weights are similar to the eighth and the first note of the musical scale. For example, the eighth element from lithium is sodium. Similarly, the eighth element from sodium is potassium. Thus, lithium and sodium provide any specific place for hydrogen.

  1. This classification did not work with heavier elements.
  2. Newland adjusted two elements Cobalt (Co) and Nickel (Ni) in the same slot.
  3. Fe, which resembles Co and Ni in properties, has been placed far away. 

Question 5

Did Dobereiners triads also exist in the columns of Newland's Octaves? Compare and find out.

Solution 5

Yes, Döbereiner's triads also exist in the columns of Newland's octaves. For example, the second column of Newlands classification has the elements Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K), which constitute a Döbereiner's triad.

Question 6(a)

Lithium, sodium and potassium elements were put in one group on the basis of their similar properties. What are those similar properties?

Solution 6(a)

Elements of lithium, sodium and potassium have the following similar properties:

  1. All these have one electron in the outermost shell.
  2. They form unipositive ions.
  3. They are good reducing agents.
  4. They are soft metals.
  5. They impart colour to the flame.
  6. Common name of the group is alkali metals [Group 1A]. 

Question 6(b)

The elements calcium, strontium and barium were put in one group or family on the basis of their similar properties.

What were those similar properties?

Solution 6(b)

  1. All of them are metals.
  2. Oxide of each of them is alkaline in nature.
  3. Each has valency 2. 

Question 7(a)

What was Mendeleev's basis for classification of elements?

Solution 7(a)

Mendeleev's basis for periodic classification:

  1. Similarities in the chemical properties of elements.
  2. Increasing order of atomic weights of elements. 

Question 7(b)

Mendeleev's contributions to the concept of periodic table laid the foundation for the Modern Periodic Table. Give reasons.

Solution 7(b)

Mendeleev laid the foundation for the modern periodic table by showing periodicity of the properties of the elements by arranging the elements (63) then known into 8 groups, by leaving gaps for undiscovered elements and predicting their properties. He made separate groups for metals and non-metals. He also created periods in which the element gradually changes from metallic to non-metallic character. He was also able to show that the element in the same sub-group had the same valency.

Question 8

State Mendeleev's periodic law.

Solution 8

Mendeleev's periodic law: The physical and chemical properties of all the elements are a periodic function of their atomic masses.

Question 9(a)

Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formula of hydrides of carbon and silicon.

Solution 9(a)

C is in Group 4. So, the hydride will be CH4 (Methane).

Si is in Group 4. So, the hydride will be SiH4 (Silane).

Question 9(b)

Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formula of oxides of potassium, aluminium and barium.

Solution 9(b)

K is in Group 1. So, the oxide will be K2O (Potassium oxide).

Al is in Group 3. So, the oxide will be Al2O3 (Aluminium oxide).

Ba is in Group 2. So, the oxide will be BaO (Barium oxide).

Question 10

Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original periodic table?

Solution 10

Anomalous pairs of elements were missing from Mendeleev's periodic table.

Question 11

State the merits of Mendeleev's classification of elements.

Solution 11

Merits of Mendeleev's classification of elements:

  1. Grouping of elements
  2. Gaps for undiscovered elements: Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for subsequent inclusion of elements not known at that time.
  3. He predicted the properties of the then unknown elements on the basis of properties of elements lying adjacent to the vacant slots (eka-aluminium and eka-silicon). 

Question 12

Why did Mendeleev's leave some gaps in his periodic table os elements? Explain your answer with an example.

Solution 12

He left gaps in the table for the undiscovered elements. He discovered the properties of such elements with the help of neighboring elements.

He discovered eka-silicon with atomic mass of 72 which was later named Germanium with atomic mass 72.6.

Question 13

The atomic number of an element is more important to the chemist than its relative atomic mass. Why?

Solution 13

Henry Moseley found that when cathode rays struck anodes of different metals, the wavelength of these metals was found to decrease in a regular manner of changing the metal of anode in the order of its position in the periodic table. By this, he concluded that the number of positive charges present in the nucleus due to protons (atomic number) is the most fundamental property of the element.

So, Henry Moseley found that the atomic number is a better fundamental property of an element compared to its atomic mass. This lead to the modern periodic law.

This law gave explanations for anomalies in Mendeleev's classification of elements such as

  1. Position of isotopes with the same atomic number can be put in one place in the same group.
  2. Position of argon and potassium: Potassium with higher atomic number should come later, and argon with lower atomic number should come first. 

Question 14

Consider the following elements: Be, Li, Na, Ca, K. Name the elements of (a) same group (b) same period.

Solution 14

 

 

Element

At. No.

Electronic distribution

Be

4

2, 2

Li

3

2, 1

Na

11

2, 8, 1

Ca

20

2, 8, 8

K

19

2, 8, 8, 2

 

  1. Same IA group (Li, Na, K) and IIA group (Be, Ca)
  2. In the second period (Be, Li) and in the fourth period (K, Ca) 

Question 15(a)

Name an element whose properties were predicted on the basis of its position in Mendeleev's periodic table.

Solution 15(a)

Eka-silicon

Question 15(b)

Name two elements whose atomic weights were corrected on the basis of their positions in Mendeleev's periodic table.

Solution 15(b)

Gold and Platinum

Question 15(c)

How many elements were known at the time of Mendeleev's classification of elements?

Solution 15(c)

Only 63 elements were discovered at the time of Mendeleev's classification of elements.

Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise Ex. 5(B)

Question 1(a)

State the modern periodic law.

Solution 1(a)

Modern periodic law: The physical and chemical properties of all elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

Question 1(b)

How many periods and groups are there in the modern periodic table?

Solution 1(b)

Eighteen groups and seven periods

Question 2

What is the main characteristic of the last elements in the periods of a periodic table? What is the general name of such elements?

Solution 2

Last elements of each period have their outermost shell complete, i.e. 2 or 8 electrons.

The general name is inert gases or noble gases.

Question 3(a)

What is meant in the periodic table by a group?

Solution 3(a)

Vertical columns in a periodic table which have the same number of valence electrons and similar chemical properties are called a group.

Question 3(b)

What is meant in the periodic table by a period?

Solution 3(b)

In a periodic table, elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic numbers in horizontal rows called periods.

Question 4

From the standpoint of atomic structure, what determines which elements will be the first and which the last in a period of the periodic table?

Solution 4

Atomic number determines which element will be the first and which will be the last in a period of the periodic table.

Question 5(a)

What are the following groups known as?

  1. Group 1
  2. Group 17
  3. Group 18 

Solution 5(a)

  1. Group 1 is known as the alkali metals.
  2. Group 17 is known as the halogens.
  3. Group 18 is known as the transition elements. 

Question 5(b)

Name two elements of each group.

Solution 5(b)

  1. Group 1: Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na)
  2. Group 17: Chlorine (Cl), Iodine (I)
  3. Group 18: Helium (He), Neon (Ne) 

 

Question 6(a)

What is the number of elements in the 1st period?

Solution 6(a)

There are two elements in the first period.

Question 6(b)

What is the number of elements in the 3rd period, of the modern periodic table?

Solution 6(b)

There are eight elements in the third period.

Question 7(a)

How does number of (i) valence electrons (ii) valency; vary on moving from left to right in the second period of a periodic table?

Solution 7(a)

  1. The valence electrons in the same shell (outermost shell) increase progressively by one across the period. The first element hydrogen has one valence electron and helium has two valence electrons.
  2. On moving from left to right in a period, valency increases from 1 to 4, then falls to one and ultimately to zero in the last group. 

Question 7(b)

How does number of (i) valence electrons (ii) valency; vary on moving from left to right in the third period of a periodic table?

Solution 7(b)

  1. Valence electrons in the same shell (outermost shell) increase progressively by one across the period. The first element sodium has one valence electron and magnesium has two valence electrons.
  2. On moving from left to right in the third period, valency increases from 1 to 7 and ultimately to zero in the last group. 

Question 8

How do atomic structures (electron arrangements) change in a period with increase in atomic numbers moving left to right?

Solution 8

The size of atoms decreases when moving from left to right in a period. Thus, in a particular period, the alkali metal atoms are the largest and the halogen atoms are the smallest.

Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F

Question 9(a)

This question refers to elements of the periodic table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

 

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

I

J

K

L

M

N

O

P

 

Which of these is:

  1. a noble gas?
  2. a halogen?
  3. an alkali metal?
  4. an element with valency 4?

 

Solution 9(a)

  1. H and P are noble gases.
  2. G and O are halogens.
  3. A and I are alkali metals.
  4. D and L have valency 4. 

Question 9(b)

This question refers to elements of the periodic table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

 

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

I

J

K

L

M

N

O

P

 

If A combines with F, what would be the formula of the resulting compound?

 

Solution 9(b)

Li2O. A stands for lithium and F stands for oxygen. The valence of lithium is +1 and the valence of O is -2, i.e. A2F.

Question 9(c)

This question refers to elements of the periodic table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are not the usual symbols of the elements.

 

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

A

B

C

D

E

F

G

H

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

I

J

K

L

M

N

O

P

 

What is the electronic configuration of G?

 

Solution 9(c)

G has atomic number 9; therefore, its electronic arrangement is 2, 7.

Question 10

Sodium and aluminium have atomic numbers 11 and 13, respectively. They are separated by one element in the periodic table, and have valencies 1 and 3 respectively. Chlorine and potassium are also separated by one element in the periodic table (their atomic numbers being 17 and 19, respectively) and yet both have valency 1. Explain. 

 

Solution 10

Na and Al have the capacity to donate an electron due to which the valency is positive, whereas Cl and K can only gain or lose one electron due to which their valency is -1 and +1, respectively. This is the only difference between these two.

Question 11

Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common.

Solution 11

These elements have a full outermost subshell, which results in high stability. They only react with other elements in extreme circumstances.

Question 12(a)

In which part of a group would you separately expect the elements to have the greatest metallic character?

Solution 12(a)

The greatest metallic character can be expected at the bottom of the group.

Question 12(b)

In which part of a group would you separately expect the elements to have the largest atomic size?

Solution 12(b)

The largest atomic size can be expected at the lower part of the group.

Question 13

What happens to the number of valence electrons in atoms of elements as we go down a group of the periodic table?

Solution 13

The number of valence electrons remains the same as we go down a group.

Question 14(a)

The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic table are shown below:

 

Group 1

Group 2

Group 17

Group 18

 

 

 

D

 

B

C

 

A

 

 

E

 

State which are metals, non-metals and noble gas in this table.

 

Solution 14(a)

Metals: A and B; Non-metals: C; Noble gases: D and E

Question 14(b)

 

The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic table are shown below:

 

Group 1

Group 2

Group 17

Group 18

 

 

 

D

 

B

C

 

A

 

 

E

 

State which is most reactive (i) metal (ii) non-metal

 

Solution 14(b)

Most reactive

(i) Metals: Alkali metals (Group I); Caesium

(ii) Non-metals: Halogens (Group 17); Fluorine

Question 14(c)

 

The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic table are shown below:

 

Group 1

Group 2

Group 17

Group 18

 

 

 

D

 

B

C

 

A

 

 

E

 

Which type of ion will be formed by element A, B and C.

 

Solution 14(c)

Element A will form a positive ion 1+ (cation).

Element B will form a positive ion 2+ (cation).

Element C will form a negative ion 1- (anion).

Question 14(d)

 

 The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic table are shown below:

 

Group 1

Group 2

Group 17

Group 18

 

 

 

D

 

B

C

 

A

 

 

E

 

Which is larger in size (i) D or E (ii) B or C

 

Solution 14(d)

  1. E

Question 15

Write the electronic configuration of element 17T35.

  1. What is the group number of T?
  2. What is the period number of T?
  3. How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T?
  4. What is the valency of T?
  5. Is it a metal or non-metal?
  6. State number of protons and neutrons in T.

Solution 15

K L M

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7

  1. VIIA
  2. Third period
  3. Seven
  4. Valency of T = -1
  5. Non-metal
  6. Protons = 17, Neutrons = 18

 

Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise Ex. 5(C)

Question 1

Element P has atomic number 19. To which group and period, does P belong? Is it a metal or a non-metal? Why?

Solution 1

Atomic number of P = 19

Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1

Group no. of the element = 1A

Period no. of the element = 4

P is a metal.

Question 2

An element belongs to the third period and Group IIIA (13) of the periodic table. State:

  1. the number of valence electrons,
  2. the valency,
  3. if it is a metal or non-metal?
  4. the name of the element. 

Solution 2

  1. 3
  2. +3
  3. Metal
  4. Aluminium 

Question 3

Name and state the following with reference to the elements of the first three periods of the periodic table.

  1. Noble gas with duplet arrangement of electrons.
  2. Metalloid in Period 3.
  3. Valency of elements in Group 14 and 15.
  4. Noble gas having electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8.
  5. Group whose elements have zero valency.
  6. A covalent compound formed by an element in period 2 and ahalogen.
  7. Non-metallic element present in Period 3 of Groups 15 and 16
  8. An electrovalent compound formed by an alkaline earth metal and a halogen.
  9. Bridge elements of Period 3 of Group 1,2 and 3.
  10. Alkali metal in period 3 that dissolves in water giving a strong alkali.
  11. Typical elements of Groups 14 and 15.
  12. Alkaline earth metal in period 3.

 

Solution 3

  1. Helium
  2. Silicon
  3. 4, 3
  4. Argon
  5. Noble gases
  6. Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
  7. Silicon, Phosphorus
  8. Sodium chloride (Na+Cl-)
  9. Li and Mg; Be and Al; B and Si
  10. Sodium
  11. Typical elements of Period 2 belonging to Group 14 and 15 are carbon and nitrogen.

       Typical elements of Period 3 belonging to Group 14 to 15 are silicon and phosphorus.

  1. Beryllium

 

Question 4

Match column A with column B

 

Column A

Column B

(a) Element short by 1 electron in octet

(i) Transition elements

(b) Highly reactive metals

(ii) Noble gases

(c) Non-reactive elements

(iii) Alkali metals

(d) Elements of groups 3 to 12

(iv) Alkaline earth metals

(e) Radioactive elements

(v) Halogens

(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

(vi)Actinides

 

 

Solution 4

 

Column A

Answers

(a) Element short by 1 electron in octet

(v) Halogens

(b) Highly reactive metals

(iii) Alkali metals

(c) Non-reactive elements

(ii) Noble gases

(d) Elements of Groups 3 to 12

(i) Transition elements

(e) Radioactive elements

(vi) Actinides

(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit

(iv) Alkali earth metals

 

 

Question 5

Complete the table:

 

Atomic number

Element

Electronic configuration

Select element of the same group

11

Sodium

 

(Ca/N/K)…

15

Phosphorus

 

(Ba/N/Rb)…

16

Sulphur 

 

(F/Cl/O)…

9

Fluorine

 

(Ca/Cl/K)…

 

 

Solution 5

 

 

Atomic number

Element

Electronic configuration

Select element of the same group

11

Sodium

2, 8, 1

K

15

Phosphorus

2, 8, 5

N

16

Sulphur 

2, 8, 6

O

9

Fluorine

2, 7

Cl 

 

 

 

Question 6

Write down the word that will correctly complete the following sentences:

  1. Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is approximately_____ its atomic number.
  2. The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called _____ .
  3. Going across a period left to right, atomic size _____ .
  4. Moving left to right in the second period, number of valence electrons _____ . 
  5. Moving down in the second group, number of valence electrons___________.

Solution 6

  1. Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is approximately 20 its atomic number.
  2. The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called periods.
  3. Going across a period left to right, atomic size increases.
  4. Moving left to right in the second period, number of valence electrons increases from 1 to 8
  5. Moving down in the second group, number of valence electrons remain same.

Question 7(a)

Name the alkali metals, How many electron(s) they have in their outermost orbit.

Solution 7(a)

Name of the alkali metals: Lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, cesium and francium

Electrons in the outermost orbit: 1 

Question 7(b)

Take any one alkali metal and write its reaction with (i)oxygen (ii)water (iii)acid.

Solution 7(b)

  1. Reaction of alkali metal with oxygen - React rapidly with oxygen

        4Na + O2 → 2Na2O

 

  1. Reaction of alkali metal with water - React with water violently and produce hydrogen

       2M + 2H2O → 2MOH + H2

 

  1. Reaction of alkali metal with acid - React violently with dil. HCl and dil. H2SO4 to produce hydrogen

      2M + 2HCl → 2MCl + H2

 

Question 8(a)

Name the method by which alkali metals can be extracted.

Solution 8(a)

Alkali metals can be extracted by the electrolysis of their molten salts.

Question 8(b)

What is the colour of the flame of sodium and potassium?

Solution 8(b)

The colour of the flame of sodium is golden yellow, and the colour of the flame of potassium is pale violet.

Question 9

An element A has 2 electrons in its fourth shell. State:

  1. its atomic number
  2. its electronic configuration
  3. its valency
  4. position in the periodic table
  5. is it a metal or non metal
  6. is it an oxidising or reducing agent 

Solution 9

  1. Ca
  2. 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
  3. 2
  4. Group 2 Period 4
  5. Metal
  6. Reducing agent

 

Question 10(a)

Name the first three alkaline earth metals.

Solution 10(a)

The first three alkaline earth metals are Beryllium, Magnesium and Calcium.

Question 10(b)

Write the reactions of first three alkaline earth metals with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Solution 10(b)

Reactions of the first three alkaline earth metals with dilute hydrochloric acid:

Be + 2HCl → BeCl2 + H2

Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2

Ca + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2

Question 11(a)

How do alkaline earth metals occur in nature?

Solution 11(a)

Alkaline earth metals occur in nature in the combined state and not in the free state as they are very reactive.

Question 11(b)

Write the electronic configuration of the first two alkaline earth metals.

Solution 11(b)

Electronic configuration of the first two alkaline earth metals:

4Be: 1s22s2

12Mg: 1s22s22p63s2

Question 12

 Give reasons:

  1. Alkali metals are kept in inert solvent.
  2. Alkali metals and halogens do not occur free in nature.
  3. Alkali and alkaline earth metal compounds usually form electrovalent compound.
  4. Inert gases do not form compounds.

Solution 12

  1. Due to the reactive nature of alkali metals, they are kept in inert solvents.
  2. Alkali metals and halogens are very reactive; hence, they do not occur in the free state in nature.
  3. Alkali metals and alkaline earth metals have 1 and 2 valence electrons, respectively, in their outermost shell.
    They can lose electrons to atoms of non-metals to form an electrovalent compound.
  1. Inert gases have 2 or 8 electrons (duplet/octet) in their outermost orbit. That is their electronic arrangement is very stable, so they are unreactive and do not form compounds.

Question 13

Arrange the following:

  1. Elements of group 1, in increasing order of reactivity
  2. Elements of group 17, in decreasing order of reactivity
  3. He, Na, Mg ( increasing order of melting point)
  4. Chlorine, sodium, magnesium (increasing reducing character)

Solution 13

  1. Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
  2. F > Cl > Br > I
  3. He < Na < Mg
  4. Cl < Mg < Na

Question 14(a)

State the nature of compounds formed when group 17 elements combine with (i) metals (ii) non-metals.

Solution 14(a)

  1. Group 17 elements react with metals to form metal halides which are neutral in nature.
  2. Group 17 elements react with non-metals to form acidic compounds such as hydrogen halides. 

Question 14(b)

Why group 17 elements are highly reactive?

Solution 14(b)

Group 17 elements are highly reactive because of their closeness to the noble or stable gas configuration. They can easily achieve a noble gas electron structure.

Question 15(a)

How many electrons do inert gases have in their valence shells?

Solution 15(a)

All the noble or inert gases have 8 electrons in their valence shell except helium which has two electrons in its valence shell.

Question 15(b)

Name an element of group 18 which can form compounds.

Solution 15(b)

Xenon or krypton from Group 18 can form compounds.

Question 16

Name the gas used in:

  1. Filling balloons
  2. Light bulbs
  3. Bright colour advertising light works

Solution 16

  1. Helium
  2. Argon
  3. Neon

Question 17(a)

What is the name given to group 17 elements? Why are they called so?

Solution 17(a)

Group 17 elements are called halogens. The name halogens is from Greek halo (sea salt) and gens (producing, forming) and thus means 'sea salt former'.

Question 17(b)

Comment on the (i) reactivity (ii) colour (iii) physical state of group 17 elements.

Solution 17(b)

Group 17 elements or halogens:

  1. Reactivity: Halogens are the most reactive non-metals, their reactivity decreases down the group. Fluorine is the most reactive halogen and iodine is the least reactive halogen.
  2. Colour: Fluorine is a pale yellow gas, chlorine is a greenish yellow gas, bromine is a reddish brown liquid and iodine is a violet solid.
  3. Physical state: Gaseous 

Question 18

Two elements P and Q belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in the group 1 and group 2, respectively. Compare the following characteristics in the tabular form.

  1. Number of electrons i
  1. n their atoms
  2. Their tendency to lose electrons
  3. Formation of their oxides
  4. Formulae of their chlorides

Solution 18

As elements P and Q belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in group 1 and group 2, they belong to alkali metals and alkaline earth metals, respectively.

Characteristic

Alkali metals (Element P)

Alkaline earth metals (Element Q)

(a) Number of electrons in their atoms

Valence electron = 1

Valence electrons = 2

(b) Their tendency to lose electrons

Can easily lose electrons

They will lose electrons easily but not as easily as alkali metals can.

(c) Formation of their oxides

React rapidly with oxygen in air

4Na + O2 → 2Na2O

Less reactive than alkali metals

(d) Formulae of their chlorides

NaCl, KCl, CsCl

MgCl2, CaCl2, BaCl2

 

 

 

 Class 9

Biology chapter-7

Solution A

1. (c) in which glucose is broken down into pyruvate

2. (b) Stomata and lenticels 

3. (d) Baker's yeast

Question B.1

Do the plants respire all day and all night or only at night? 

Solution B.1

Respiration is an essential life process for all living organisms. Therefore, plants also respire all day and all night. 

Solution B.2

(a) ATP 

(b) Respiration 

(c) Fungus 

(d) Glycolysis

(e) Oxygen

(f) Soda lime

Solution B.3

(a) False. Aerobic respiration of one mole of glucose yields 38 ATP.

(b) False. Anaerobic respiration in plants yields ethanol. 

(c) True

(d) False. All leaves of a green plant normally respire aerobically at night. 

Question C.1

What happens to the energy liberated in respiration?

Solution C.1

The energy liberated in respiration is stored in the form of ATP inside the cells. Some part of it is lost as heat to the surroundings.

Question C.2

Why is it usually difficult to demonstrate respiration in green plants?

Solution C.2

During day time, both photosynthesis and respiration takes place in green plants. Evolution of COis an indicator to demonstrate respiration in living organisms. CO2 produced during respiration in plants gets utilized during photosynthesis and thus, there is no evolution of CO2. Therefore, it is difficult to demonstrate respiration in green plants as there is no evolution of CO2 during day time. 

Question C.3

Explain why respiration is said to be the reverse of photosynthesis.

Solution C.3

Respiration is said to be the reverse of photosynthesis due to the following reasons: 

(1) In respiration, the organic food is broken down into its inorganic compounds, i.e., CO2 and H2O, while in photosynthesis the organic food is synthesized from its inorganic components, i.e., CO2and H2O. 

(2) In respiration, CO2 is given out, while in photosynthesis CO2 is consumed. 

(3) In respiration, O2 is consumed, while in photosynthesis O2 is released or evolved.

(4) In respiration, energy is liberated, while in photosynthesis energy is absorbed.

Question C.4

How is tilling of the soil useful for the crops growing in it?

Solution C.4

Tilling makes the soil porous and airy. The underground parts of the plants get sufficient amount of oxygen for respiration. In this way, tilling helps the crops to grow faster. 

Question C.5

Write the full forms of ATP and ADP.

Solution C.5

ATP: Adenosine triphosphate

ADP: Adenosine diphosphate 

 Question C.6

Can cell respiration occur in any organism at a temperature of about 65C? Give reason.

Solution C.6

Cell respiration cannot occur in any organism at a temperature of about 65C because the enzymes involved in respiration become inactivated at high temperatures.

Solution C.7

(a) Lenticels

(b) Cytoplasm

(c) Glucose

(d) Photosynthesis, respiration

(e) Pyrogallate of potash

(f) KOH (caustic potash)

 

Question D.1

What is respiration? How are respiration and burning similar and how are they different? 

Solution D.1

Oxidation of organic food particularly carbohydrates in living cells to release energy is called respiration. 

Similarities between respiration and burning: 

(i) Both require oxygen  

(ii) Both produce energy 

(iii) Both result in the formation of CO2 and water 

Differences between respiration and burning:  

Respiration

Burning 

1. Occurs in a series of

 chemical steps

1. Occurs in a single

step

2. Carried out by

 enzymes

2. Carried out by heat

3. Biochemical process

 

3. Physico-chemical

process

4. Energy is liberated

 in the form of ATP and

 some heat

4. Energy is liberated

in the form of heat and

light

5. No light energy is

produced

5. Light energy is

produced

6. Cellular process

6. Non-cellular process

7. Occurs at body

 temperature

7. Occurs at high

 temperature (at

ignition point)

8. No supply of heat

 energy is required

8. Supply of heat

 energy is required

9. The organic

 compound is oxidized

 to carbon dioxide and

 water.

9. The organic

 compound initially

 chars and later burns,

 producing a flame.

Question D.2

How are aerobic and anaerobic respiration different in plants?

Solution D.2

Difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration in plants: 

Aerobic respiration in

 plants

Anaerobic respiration

 in plants

1. Also

 called oxybiotic respiration

1. Also

 called anoxybiotic respiration

2. Proceeds in the

 presence of oxygen

2. Proceeds in the

 absence of oxygen

3. Occurs in

 mitochondria

3. Occurs in cytoplasm

4. Complete breakdown

 of glucose

4. Incomplete

 breakdown of glucose

5. End-products are

carbon dioxide and

water

5. End-products are

 ethyl alcohol and

 carbon dioxide

6. Large quantity of

 energy is liberated

(38ATP) from one mole

 of glucose 

6. Small quantity of

 energy is liberated

 (2ATP) from one mole

 of glucose

7. Occurs normally

 throughout the life

7. Occurs temporarily

 for short periods

Question D.3

Describe one experiment each of you would perform to demonstrate the following phenomena: The germinating seeds (a) produce heat, (b) give out carbon dioxide, (c) can respire even in total absence of air.

Solution D.3

(a) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds produce heat.

(1) Take two thermos flasks 'A' and 'B'. (2) Take about 200 bean or pea seeds and soak them in water for more than 24 hours. (3) Divide the seeds into two equal groups. Kill one group of seeds by boiling them and then, wash them with dilute formalin to prevent bacterial decay. Place the live germinating seeds in flask A and the killed one in flask B. (4) Insert a thermometer in each of the flasks and plug their mouths with cotton wool. Note the initial reading in the thermometer. (5) After few hours, the thermometer in flask A will show a higher reading indicating that the germinating seeds produce heat. There will not be any rise in the temperature of flask B. 



(b) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds give out carbon dioxide.

(1) Take two flasks 'A' and' B'. (2) Place some wet cotton wool at the bottom of both the flasks. (3) Place some soaked seeds of pea in flask A and an equal number of boiled or dead seeds in flask B. Add some carbolic acid to flask B to prevent the growth of bacteria on dead seeds. (4) Cork the flasks and keep them undisturbed for few days. (5) After few days, the seeds in flask A will have germinated and the seeds in flask B do not show any signs of germination. (6) The gases in each of the flasks are then tested by removing the cork and tilting the flask over a test tube containing limewater and then shaking up the test tube. (7) The expected CO2 present in flask A will turn limewater milky showing that germinating seeds give out CO2, while the gas in flask B will show no effect on limewater. 



(c) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds can respire even in total absence of air.

(1) Take few soaked and peeled off pea seeds and push them into the mouth of a test tube filled with mercury and inverted in a beaker of mercury. The seeds will float to the top and will be completely surrounded by mercury. (2) After few days, the level of mercury falls and the presence of some gas in the test tube can be detected. (3) Add some KOH to the test tube. The gas present in the test tube will be absorbed and the level of mercury will again rise showing that the gas was CO2. Hence, we can prove that germinating seeds respire even in the total absence of air. 

Question D.4

How do the following structures help in respiration in plants? 

(a) Lenticels _____________

(b) Stomata _____________

(c) Root hairs ____________

Solution D.4

(a) Lenticels help the stem to participate in respiration. 

(b) Stomata help the leaves to participate in respiration. 

(c) Root hairs help the roots to participate in respiration. 

Question E.1

Given below is a set of six experimental set-up (A-F), kept in this state for about 24 hours.

 

(a) In how many flasks, the different plant parts have been kept under observation? 

(b) What is the purpose of keeping a test-tube containing limewater in each flask? 

(c) In which tube/tubes the limewater will turn milky? 

(d) What is the purpose of the set-up F? 

(e) What conclusion can you draw from this experiment? 

Solution E.1

(a) Five flasks (A-E) are having different plant parts for observation. 

(b) Limewater absorbs CO2 present in the flasks. If CO2 is produced, limewater turns milky. 

(c) All the five flasks (A-E) containing plant parts will show respiration and thus, the tubes containing limewater will turn milky. The flask F does not contain any plant part. So, there is no respiration and hence, there is no change. 

(d) Set-up F acts as a control for the experiment, where all the conditions are similar except for the plant part, which is missing.

(e) It can be concluded from this experiment that CO2 is produced during respiration.

Question E.2

The following two chemical reactions are supposed to indicate a certain process occurring in the green plants under two different conditions: 

(a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + ____ + 38 ATP 

(b) C6H12O6 _____ + 2CO2 + 2 ATP 

(i) Fill in the blank in each reaction. 

(ii) Name the process represented by the two reactions. 

(iii) What are the conditions under which the two reactions (a) and (b) are occurring respectively? 

Solution E.2

(i) (a) 6H2O (b) C2H5OH 

(ii) (a) Aerobic respiration; (b) Anaerobic respiration 

(iii) Reaction (a) can be completed only in the presence of oxygen, while reaction (b) can be completed in the absence of oxygen.

Question E.3

The following diagram refers to an apparatus which is used to demonstrate a physiological process: 

(a) What is the purpose of keeping potassium hydroxide solution in test tubes X and Y? 

(b) Why has the coloured water risen in tubing 1? 

(c) What is the purpose of keeping boiled peas soaked in a disinfectant in test tube Y?

(d) Name the biological process which causes the above rise. 

(e) Define the biological process shown in the experiment.

Solution E.3

(a) Potassium hydroxide solution is kept in test tube X and Y to check the presence of CO2, as KOH can absorb CO2, if it is produced. 

(b) When the process of respiration takes place in test tube X, the O2 present in the test tube is consumed. The CO2 produced due to respiration is absorbed by the KOH present in the test tube. Hence, a space is developed due to consumption of oxygen and hence, the coloured water rises in tubing 1. 

(c) In test tube Y, boiled peas soaked in disinfectant are kept because the boiled seeds are dead and cannot respire. Therefore, the process of respiration does not take place in test tube Y.

(d) Respiration is the cause of the above rise. 

(e) The catabolic process of releasing energy from simple sugars for carrying out life processes is called respiration.

Question E.4

In order to study and prove a particular physiological process in plants, the following experiment was set up. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow: 

 

(a) Name the physiological process being studied. 

(b) What is the function of soda lime in the bottle 'A' and why is limewater placed in bottle 'B'? 

(c) What change would you expect to observe in bottle 'D'? 

(d) Represent the physiological process named in (a) above in the form of a chemical equation. 

(e) In order to obtain accurate results, the bottle 'C' should be covered with a black cloth. Why? 

(f) If bottle 'C' was fitted with a 3-holed rubber stopper and a thermometer was introduced in such a way that its bulb reaches close to the germinating seeds, what would you observe? Why? 

Solution E.4

(a) The experiment was set up to study that CO2 is given off from living plant material which performs respiration. 

(b) Soda lime is kept in bottle 'A' so as to check the (presence of) passage of CO2 present in bottle 'B'. This is because soda lime has a tendency to absorb CO2 present in air. 

The limewater present in bottle 'B' shows that no CO2is entering bottle C with the air passing through bottle C. 

(c) The bottle 'D' having limewater will show that CO2is produced due to respiration taking place in bottle 'C' having germinating seeds in it. Due to the CO2produced in bottle C, the limewater turns milky, which passes through bottle 'D'. 

(d) C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38ATP (Energy)

(e) The bottle 'C' when covered with black cloth will have no scope for photosynthesis. Hence, only the process of respiration can be observed. 

(f) By introducing a thermometer in bottle 'C', the change in temperature is checked or observed. If respiration takes place, there will be a rise in temperature and if there is no rise in temperature, no respiration occurs. Therefore, a three-holed rubber stopper and a thermometer were introduced.

 Geography

Ch. 6 ROCKS AND ROCK CYCLE         

                EX. A       Answer the following questions

1. Sedimentary Rocks formed from material derived from pre - existing rocks and from organic sources by the process of denudation.

Igneous Rocks are formed by the process of solidification of molten rock material which called magma .

2. On the basis of occurrence igneous rocks are divided into 1.           Intrusive  and  2. Extrusive .

3.  The three rock forming minerals are iron ore, silver, zinc,          gold, lead etc.

4. Batholith is a large mass of igneous rocks covering about 100 sq. km area. Its floor is not visible.

5. Metamorphism : Alteration of the minerals and textures of a rock by changes in temperature and pressure and by a gain or loss of chemical components.

Metamorphism may be caused due to

1. volcanic  eruptions

2. the mountain  building  movement

3. endogenetic  forces

 4.  contact with  undergoing  water

6. Characteristics of sedimentary rocks :

1. The material of sedimentary rocks is derived from the pre-        existing rocks.

2. The sedimentary rocks contain layers or strata.

3. Most of the sedimentary rocks are permeable and porous.

4. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.

7. The major types of metamorphic rocks are slate, schist, gneiss, marble, quartzite etc.

8. The agents involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks are air, water, wind and glacier.

9. Same ans. 7th.

10. Sills-When lava solidifies before coming out between the horizontal layers of parent rocks it forms sills.

   Dykes-When magma solidifies in vertical columns of the bed rocks they are called dykes.

11. Sedimentary rocks called stratified rocks because it contain strata or layers.

12. Igneous rocks are formed through the cooling  and solidification of magma.

13. Rock cycle is a model representing the interrelationships among the three rock-forming processes: igneous ,sedimentary and metamorphic.

14. Rock- An assemblage  of minerals bound  together like granite.

 15. Three main types of rocks according to their origin:

1. Igneous Rock

2. Sedimentary Rock

3. Metamorphic Rock

16. Intrusive Rocks: Magma that solidifies below the Earth’s surface and remain surrounded by pre-existing rock  called intrusive rock.

17. Extrusive Rocks: Rocks formed by the solidification of magma  above the Earth’s surface are called extrusive rocks.

18. Important of rocks are:

1. Rocks contain minerals which directly or indirectly help in manufacturing  industries.

2. They also supply a wide variety  of minerals which become the main raw material in manufacturing industries.

3. They are used as building materials.

4. The entire automobile industry uses petrol for their transport system.

 EX. B Define the terms:

1. Minerals: A mineral has definite chemical composition with  its own chemical physical properties.

2. Rocks:  same ans. 14th

3. Sills:  same ans. 10th

4. Dykes: same ans. 10th

5. Conglomerate: Conglomerate consists of rounded sub- rounded fragments, cemented together by a matrix  of calcium carbonate, silica, etc.

EX.C  Distinguish between the following terms:

1. ROCKS:

1.Rocks are aggregates f mineral elements.

2.Rocks are heterogeneous in their composition

3. A rock has no definite chemical composition

MINERALS:

1. Minerals are naturally occurring solid inorganic substance.

2. Minerals are homogeneous in form.

3. Minerals have a definite chemical composition.

2. VOLCANIC  ROCKS: are formed when lava cools and solidifies on the Earth’ s surface.

PLUTONIC ROCKS: are formed when magma cools and solidifies below  the Earth’s surface.

3. THERMAL METAMORPHISM: When the changes takes place due to high temperature, the new rock formed is due to thermal metamorphism.

DYNAMIC METAMORPHISM: When the change are caused due to high pressure, it is called dynamic metamorphism.

EX. D GIVE REASON:

1. Because all other types of rocks are directly or indirectly formed from igneous rock.

2.  Because cooling of these rocks are take place very rapidly.

 3. Because rocks contain variety of  minerals which become the main raw material in the manufacturing industries.

EX. E  DIAGRAM:

1. Volcanic  on ( page no.63 fig. 7.3)  Igneous pg. no. 54 fig. 6.2

2.Rock Cycle page. No. 59 fig. 6.6

 

Chapter 3 -  Chemistry Water Exercise Ex. 3(A)

Question 1

Water exists in all three states. Discuss.

Solution 1

In the free state, water occurs in the solid, liquid and gaseous states.

a.   Solid state: A large amount of fresh water is found in the form of snow or ice.

b.  Liquid state: Most of the water present in oceans and found in streams, rivers, lakes, ponds and springs on land is water in the liquid state.

c.   Gaseous state: Water vapour present in the air is in the gaseous state. Water vapour condenses in the sky to form clouds. Mist and fog are also examples of water in the gaseous form.

Question 2

Why is water considered a compound?

Solution 2

Water is considered a compound because it is made of two elements hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1:8 by mass.

Mass ratio of elements H2O

 H : O, 2 × 1 : 16 × 1 = 1 : 8

(Atomic mass of H = 1, O = 16)

Components of water cannot be separated by physical methods but can be separated by electrolysis of water. 

Question 3

a.   Why does temperature in Mumbai and Chennai not fall as low as it does in Delhi?

b.  Give the properties of water responsible for controlling the temperature of our body.

Solution 3

a) The temperature in Mumbai and Chennai do not fall as low as in Delhi because these cities are situated in the coastal areas. Due to high specific heat capacity, the presence of a large amount of water is able to modify the climate of the nearby land areas making them warmer in winter and cooler in summer. So, the temperature does not fall as low as it does in Delhi.

b) Our body is almost 65% of water, and it has the property of specific heat. Due to high specific heat capacity, the presence of a large amount of water is able to modify the climate of the body and control the temperature of our body, which is warm in winter and cool in summer.

Question 4

'Water is the universal solvent'. Comment.

Solution 4

Water dissolves many substances forming an aqueous solution. It can dissolve solids, liquids and gases. When a solid dissolves in water, the solid is the solute, the water is the solvent and the resultant liquid is the solution. So, it is said that water is a universal solvent. In other words, water can dissolve nearly every substance. 

Question 5

What causes the violence associated with torrential rain?

Solution 5

The sudden release of the latent heat of condensation causes the violence associated with torrential rain. 

Question 6

a.   Which property of water enables it to modify the climate?

b.  Density of water varies with temperature. What are its consequences?

c.   What is the effect of impurities present in the water on the melting point and boiling point of water?

Solution 6

a.   Due to the high specific heat capacity, the presence of a large amount of water is able to modify the climate.

 

b.  The property of anomalous expansion of water enables marine life to exist in the colder regions of the world, because even when water freezes on the top, it is still liquid below the ice layer, as the density of water is greater than that of ice.

 

c.   The boiling point of water increases due to the presence of dissolved impurities.

The freezing point of water decreases due to the presence of dissolved impurities.

 

Question 7

How do fishes and aquatic animals survive when the pond gets covered with thick ice?

Solution 7

Water has an unusual physical property. When cooled, it first contracts in volume, as do other liquids, but at 4°C (maximum density), it starts expanding, and continues to do so till the temperature reaches 0°C, the point at which it freezes into ice.

The property of anomalous expansion of water enables marine life to exist in the colder regions of the world, because even when the water freezes on the surface, it is still liquid below the ice layer.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 

Formation of ice on the water surface of a pond 

 

Question 8

The properties of water are different from the properties of the elements of which it is formed. Discuss.

Solution 8

Properties of water are different from the properties of elements from which it is formed.

Property

Water

Elements - Oxygen and Hydrogen

Nature

It is a clear, colourless, odourless, tasteless and transparent liquid.

These are colourless, odourless, tasteless and non-poisonous gases.

Solubility

It can dissolve many substances and is called a universal solvent.

Oxygen and hydrogen are slightly soluble in water.

Density

Pure water has maximum density at 4°C.

Oxygen is heavier than air, and hydrogen is the lightest of all the known gases.

 

Question 9

How is aquatic life benefited by the fact that water has maximum density at 4oC?

Solution 9

The property of anomalous expansion of water enables aquatic life to exist because water freezes on the surface of the water body, but it is still liquid below the ice layer. 

Question 10

What are the observations and conclusions when tap water is boiled and evaporated? 

Solution 10

When tap water is boiled and evaporated:

Observations:

• A number of concentric rings of solid matter are seen on the watch glass after evaporation of tap water.

Conclusion:

• Tap water contains dissolved salts, minerals and impurities.

Question 11

What is the importance of dissolved salts in water?

Solution 11

Importance of dissolved salts in water:

  • Dissolved salts provide specific taste to water.
  • Dissolved salts act as micronutrients for the growth and development of living beings.

Question 12

State the importance of the suitability of CO2 and O2 in water.

Solution 12

They add taste to water for drinking purposes.

Question 13

How is air dissolved in water different from ordinary air?

Solution 13

Oxygen is more soluble in water than nitrogen. Air dissolved in water contains a higher percentage of oxygen (30-35%). Oxygen is only 21% in ordinary air. In this way, air dissolved in water is different from ordinary air. 

Question 14

Explain what you understand from the following diagram:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 

Solution 14

     i.            When a solid changes into a liquid, it absorbs heat equal to the latent heat of fusion. When a liquid changes into a solid, it loses heat equal to the latent heat of solidification.

  ii.            When a liquid changes into a gas, it absorbs heat equal to the latent heat of vaporisation. When a gas condenses into a liquid, it loses heat equal to the latent heat of condensation.

Question 15

Explain why:

a.   Boiled or distilled water tastes flat.

b.  Ice at zero degrees centigrade has greater cooling effect than water at 0oC.

c.   Burns caused by steam are more severe than burns caused by boiling water.

d.  Rivers and lakes do not freeze easily?

e.   Air dissolved in water contains a higher proportion of oxygen.

f.    If distilled water is kept in a sealed bottle for a long time, it leaves etchings on the surface of the glass.

g.  Rain water does not leave behind concentric rings when boiled.

Solution 15

a.   Boiled water tastes flat because it does not contain dissolved matter such as air, carbon dioxide and other minerals.

 

b.  Ice at 0°C gives more cooling effect than water at 0°C because at 0°C ice absorbs 336 J per gram of energy to melt to 0°C water.

 

c.   Burns caused by steam are more severe than burns caused by boiling water because of high specific latent heat of condensation. 2268 J/g of heat is released when 1 g of steam condenses to form 1 gm of water.

d.  Due to the high specific latent heat of solidification of water, rivers and lakes do not freeze easily.

 

e.   Air dissolved in water contains a higher percentage of oxygen because the solubility of oxygen in water is more than that of oxygen in air.

 

f.    If distilled water is kept in a sealed bottle for a long time, it etches the surface of glass because substances which are apparently insoluble in water actually dissolve in minute traces in water.

 

g.  Rain water does not leave concentric rings when boiled because rain water does not contain dissolved solids.

Chapter 3 - Water Exercise Ex. 3(B)

Question 1

Explain the terms:

a.   Solution

b.  Solute

c.   Solvent

Solution 1

a.   Solution: A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, the components of which cannot be seen separately.

b.  Solute: A solute is the substance which dissolves in a solvent to form a solution.

c.   Solvent: A solvent is the medium in which a solute dissolves.

 Solution = Solute + Solvent

 

Question 2

Explain why a hot saturated solution of potassium nitrate forms crystals as it cools.

Solution 2

Solubility of nitrates decreases with a fall in temperature. Thus, when a hot saturated solution of potassium nitrate cools, it forms crystals as it separates from the solution. 

Question 3

Give three factors which affect the solubility of a solid solute in a solvent.

Solution 3

Three factors on which the solubility of a solid depend:

     i.            Temperature

  ii.            Nature of the solid

iii.            Nature of the solvent

Question 4

(a) If you are given some copper sulphate crystals, how would you proceed to prepare its saturated solution at room temperature?

 

(b) How can you show that your solution is really saturated?

Solution 4

a.   Take 100 g of distilled water in a beaker. Add to this one gram of copper sulphate crystals.

b.  Stir this mixture with the help of a glass rod and dissolve the copper sulphate crystals. Similarly, go on dissolving more copper sulphate (1 gram at a time) with constant and vigorous stirring. A stage is reached when no more copper sulphate dissolves. It is called a saturated solution at this temperature.

Question 5

a.   Define (i) Henry's law and (ii) Crystallisation.

b.  State the different methods of crystallisation.

Solution 5

a.    

                             i.            Henry's law: At any given temperature, the mass of a gas dissolved in a fixed volume of a liquid or solution is directly proportional to the pressure on the surface of a liquid.

                          ii.            Crystallisation: It is the process by which crystals of a substance separate out on cooling its hot saturated solution.

 

b.  In the laboratory, crystals may be obtained by the following methods: 

                             i.            By cooling a hot saturated solution gently

                          ii.            By cooling a fused mass

                      iii.            By sublimation

                       iv.            By slowly evaporating a saturated solution

Question 6

What would you observe when crystals of copper (II) sulphate and iron (II) sulphate are separately heated in two test tubes?

Solution 6

Action of heat on copper (II) sulphate crystals

When copper (II) sulphate crystals are heated in a hard glass test tube, the following observations are observed:

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 

Action of heat on copper (II) sulphate 

 

     i.            The crystals are converted to a powdery substance.

  ii.            The crystals lose their blue coloration on further heating.

iii.            Steaming vapours are produced inside the tube which condense near the mouth of the tube to form a colourless liquid.

iv.            On further heating, steam escapes from the mouth of the tube and water gets collected in a beaker placed under the mouth of the tube.

  v.            On further heating, the residue changes to a white powder and steam stops coming out.

CuSO4.5H2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water CuSO4 + 5H2O

 

Action of heat on iron (II) sulphate

When iron (II) sulphate is heated in a test tube, the following is observed:

     i.            The crystals crumble to a white powder and a large amount of steam and gas are given out.

  ii.            On strong heating, a brown residue of ferric oxide (Fe2O3) is produced and a mixture of SO2 and SO3 is given off.

FeSO4.7H2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water FeSO4 + 7H2O

 

2FeSO4  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water Fe2O3 + SO2  + SO3

 

Question 7

Give the names and formulae of two substances in each case:

a.   Hydrated substance

b.  Anhydrous substance

c.   Liquid drying agent

d.  A basic drying agent

Solution 7

a.    

 i. Washing soda crystals: Na2CO3.10H2O

 ii. Blue vitriol: CuSO4.5 H2O

b.   

 i. Table salt: NaCl

 ii. Nitre: KNO3

c.   Sulphuric acid: H2SO4

d.  Quick lime: CaO

Question 8

What is the effect of temperature on solubility of KNO3 and CaSO4 in water?

Solution 8

Solubility of potassium nitrate (KNO3) in water increases with an increase in temperature.

Solubility of calcium sulphate (CaSO4) in water decreases with an increase in temperature. 

Question 9

Solubility of NaCl at 40oC is 36.5 g. What is meant by this statement?

Solution 9

Solubility of NaCl at 40°C is 36.5 g means that 36.5 g of NaCl dissolves in 100 g of water at a temperature of 40°C. 

Question 10

Which test will you carry out to find out if a given solution is saturated or unsaturated or supersaturated?

Solution 10

1.  A solution in which more of a solute can be dissolved at a given temperature is an unsaturated solution.

2.  A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a given temperature is a saturated solution at that temperature.

3.  A solution in which some solute separates on cooling slightly is a super saturated solution.

Question 11

What is the effect of pressure on solubility of gases? Explain with an example.

Solution 11

With an increase in pressure, the solubility of a gas in water increases.

With an increase in temperature, the solubility of a gas in water decreases.

For example, the solubility of carbon dioxide in water under normal atmospheric pressure is low, but when the water surface is subjected to higher pressure, a lot more of CO2 gas gets dissolved in it.

Similarly, in case of soda water, on opening the bottle, the dissolved gas rapidly bubbles out because the pressure on the surface of the water suddenly decreases. 

Question 12

State the term:

a.   A solution where solvent is a liquid other than water.

b.  When a substance absorbs moisture on exposure to moist air and dissolves in the absorbed water and turned to solution.

c.   A substance which contains water of crystallisation.

d.  When a substance absorbs moisture from the atmosphere but does not form a solution.

e.   When a compound loses its water of crystallisation on exposure to dry air.

f.    The substance that can remove hydrogen and oxygen atoms in the ratio of 2:1(in the form of water) from the compound.

Solution 12

a.   Non-aqueous solution

b.  Deliquescence

c.   Hydrated substance

d.  Hygroscopy

e.   Efflorescence

f.    Dehydrating agent

Question 13

Explain why:

a.   Water is an excellent liquid to use in cooling systems.

b.  A solution is always clear and transparent.

c.   Lakes and rivers do not suddenly freeze in the winters.

d.  The solute cannot be separated from a solution by filtration.

e.   Fused CaCl2 or conc. H2SO4 is used in a desiccator.

f.    Effervescence is seen on opening a bottle of soda water.

g.  Table salts become sticky on exposure to humid air during the rainy season.

Solution 13

a.   Water is an excellent liquid to use in cooling systems because of its high specific heat.

 

b.  A water-soluble solid disappears in a solution where the solvent is water, and water has the property of being clear and transparent. So, the solution is also clear and transparent.

 

c.   Lakes and rivers do not freeze suddenly in winters because of the high specific latent heat of solidification, i.e. the amount of heat released when 1 g of water solidifies to form 1 g of ice at 0°C. It is about 336 J/g or 80 cal/g.

 

d.  The component which dissolves in a solvent is known as a solute. So, it cannot be separated from a solution by filtration. However, filtration is used when the solute is insoluble in the solution.

 

e.   Fused CaCl2 or concentrated H2SO4 is deliquescent in nature, i.e. it absorbs moisture, and hence, these are used in desiccators as drying agents.

 

f.    Carbon dioxide is dissolved in soda water under pressure. On opening the bottle, the pressure on the surface of water suddenly decreases; therefore, the solubility of CO2 in water decreases and the gas rapidly bubbles out.

 

g.  Table salt becomes sticky on exposure during the rainy season, because it generally contains a small percentage of magnesium chloride and calcium chloride as impurities. These impurities absorb moisture from the monsoon air due to their deliquescent nature, and thus, table salt become sticky.

Question 14

Normally, solubility of crystalline solid increases with temperature. Does it increase uniformly in all cases? Name a substance whose solubility:

a.   Increases rapidly with temperature.

b.  Increases gradually with temperature.

c.   Increases slightly with temperature.

d.  Initially increases then decreases with rise in temperature.

Solution 14

a.   Potassium nitrate

b.  Potassium chloride

c.   Sodium chloride

d.  Calcium sulphate

Question 15

What are drying or desiccating agents? Give examples.

Solution 15

These are substances which can readily absorb moisture from other substances without chemically reacting with them.

Examples:

Phosphorous pentoxide (P2O5), quick lime (CaO) 

Question 16

Complete the following table:

Common Name

Chemical Name

Formula

Acid, base or salt

Efflorescent,

hygroscopic or deliquescent substance

Solid caustic potash

 

 

 

 

Quick lime

 

 

 

 

Oil of vitriol

 

 

 

 

Washing soda

 

 

 

 

Solid caustic soda

 

 

 

 

Blue vitriol

 

 

 

 

 

Solution 16

 

 

Common Name

Chemical Name

Formula

Acid, base or salt

Efflorescent,

hygroscopic or deliquescent substance

Solid caustic potash

Potassium hydroxide

KOH

Base

Deliquescent substance

Quick lime

Calcium oxide

CaO 

Base

Hygroscopic substance

Oil of vitriol

Sulphuric acid

H2SO4

Acid

Hygroscopic substance

Washing soda

Hydrated sodium carbonate

Na2CO3.10H2O

Salt

Efflorescent substance

Solid caustic soda

Sodium hydroxide

NaOH

Base

Deliquescent substance

Blue vitriol

 Copper sulphate

 CuSO4

 Salt

 Efflorescent substance

 

Question 17

In which of the following substances will there be

a.   Increase in mass

b.  Decrease in mass

c.   No change in mass when they are exposed to air?

 

1.  Sodium chloride

2.  Iron

3.  Conc. sulphuric acid

4.  Table salt

5.  Sodium carbonate crystals

Solution 17

a.   Increase in mass: Iron and conc. sulphuric acid

b.  Decrease in mass: Sodium carbonate crystals

c.   No change in mass: Sodium chloride

Question 18

State the methods by which hydrated salts can be made anhydrous.

Solution 18

Hydrated salts can be converted to anhydrous substances by heating and also when exposed to dry air.

Example:

Glauber's salt becomes powdery anhydrous sodium sulphate when exposed to dry air.

 

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water

Chapter 3 - Water Exercise Ex. 3(C)

Question 1

What is the composition of water? In what volume its elements combine?

Solution 1

The composition of water is 2 atoms of hydrogen with 1 atom of oxygen (H2O).

By number of atoms, they combine in the ratio 2:1.

Question 2

What is the use of solubility of oxygen and carbon dioxide in water?

Solution 2

Air dissolved in water is biologically very important.

• Oxygen dissolved in water is used by marine life like fish for respiration, and thus, marine life is sustained.

• Aquatic plants make use of dissolved carbon dioxide in photosynthesis to prepare food.

• Carbon dioxide dissolved in water reacts with calcium carbonate to form calcium bicarbonate.

Marine organisms such as oysters and snails extract calcium carbonate from calcium bicarbonate to build their shells.

Question 3

Hot saturated solution of sodium nitrate forms crystals as it cools. Why?

Solution 3

Solubility of sodium nitrate decreases with a fall in temperature. Thus, when a hot saturated solution of sodium nitrate cools, it forms crystals as it separates from the solution. 

Question 4

What are hydrous substances? Explain with examples.

Solution 4

Substances which contain water molecules along with salt are hydrated substances.

Examples: Sodium carbonate decahydrate: Na2CO3.10H2O

 Copper sulphate pentahydrate: CuSO4.5H2O

Question 5

Name three methods by which hydrous substances can be made anhydrous.

Solution 5

Methods by which hydrous substances can be made anhydrous:

  • By heating
  • Exposure to dry air

Question 6

What is the importance of dissolved impurities in water?

Solution 6

The dissolved impurities in water are salts and minerals.

  • Dissolved salts provide specific taste to water.
  • Salts and minerals are essential for growth and development.
  • They supply the essential minerals needed by our body.

Question 7

State two ways by which a saturated solution can be changed to unsaturated solution.

Solution 7

  • On heating, a saturated solution becomes unsaturated and more solute can be dissolved in the solution.
  • By adding more solvent, a saturated solution can be made unsaturated.

Question 8

What do you understand by

a.   Soft water

b.  Hard water

c.   Temporary hard water

d.  Permanent hard water

Solution 8

a.   Water is said to be soft when the water containing sodium salts easily gives lather with soap.

b.  Water is said to be hard when it does not readily form lather with soap.

c.   Water which contains only hydrogen carbonates of calcium and magnesium is called temporary hard water.

d.  Water containing sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium is called permanent hard water.

Question 9

What are the causes for

a.   Temporary hardness

b.  Permanent hardness

Solution 9

a.   The presence of hydrogen carbonates of calcium and magnesium makes water temporarily hard.

b.  The presence of sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium makes water permanently hard.

Question 10

What are the advantages of (i) soft water and (ii) hard water?

Solution 10

     i.            Advantages of soft water:

    • When the water is soft, you use much less soap and fewer cleaning products. Your budget will reflect your savings.
    • Plumbing will last longer. Soft water is low in mineral content and therefore does not leave deposits in the pipes.
    • Clothes last longer and remain bright longer if they are washed in soft water.

  ii.            Advantages of hard water:

    • Water free from dissolved salts has a very flat taste. The presence of salts in hard water makes it tasty. So, hard water is used in making beverages and wines.
    • Calcium and magnesium salts present in small amounts in hard water are essential for bone and teeth development.
    • Hard water checks the poisoning of water by lead pipes. When these pipes are used for carrying water, some lead salts dissolve in water to make it poisonous. Calcium sulphate present in hard water forms insoluble lead sulphate in the form of a layer inside the lead pipe and this checks lead poisoning.

 

Question 11

What are stalgmites and stalactites? How are they formed?

Solution 11

In some limestone caves, conical pillar-like objects hang from the roof and some rise from the floor. These are formed by water containing dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate continuously dropping from the cracks in the rocks. Release of pressure results in the conversion of some hydrogen carbonate to calcium carbonate.

Ca(HCO3)2 → CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O

This calcium carbonate little by little and slowly deposit on both roof and floor of the cave.

The conical pillar which grows downwards from the roof is called stalactite and the one which grows upward from the floor of the cave is called stalagmite.

These meet after a time. In a year, some grow less than even a centimetre, but some may be as tall as 100 cm.

CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Ca(HCO3)2

MgCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Mg(HCO3)2

If the water flows over beds of gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O), a little bit of gypsum gets dissolved in water and makes it hard.

Question 12

Name the substance which makes water (i) temporarily hard and (ii) permanently hard.

Solution 12

     i.            Hydrogen carbonates of calcium and magnesium

  ii.            Sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium

Question 13

Give equations to show what happens when temporary hard water is

a.   Boiled

b.  Treated with slaked lime

Solution 13

a.   Ca(HCO3)2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water CaCO3 + H2O + CO2

Mg(HCO3)2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water MgCO3 + H2O + CO2

b.  Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 2CaCO3 + 2H2O  

Mg(HCO3)2+ Ca(OH)2  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water MgCO3 + 2H2O  

 

Question 14

State the disadvantages of using hard water.

Solution 14

  • It is more difficult to form lather with soap.
  • Scum may form in a reaction with soap, wasting the soap.
  • Carbonates of calcium and magnesium form inside kettles. This wastes energy whenever you boil a kettle.
  • Hot water pipes 'fur up'. Carbonates of calcium and magnesium start to coat the inside of pipes which can eventually get blocked.

Question 15

What is soap? For what is it used?

Solution 15

Soap is chemically a sodium salt of stearic acid (an organic acid with the formula C17H35COOH) and has the formula C17H35COONa.

Soap is used for washing purposes.

Question 16

What is the advantage of a detergent over soap?

Solution 16

Detergents are more soluble in water than soap and are unaffected by the hardness of water as their calcium salts are soluble in water.

Question 17

Why does the hardness of water render it unfit for use in a (i) boiler and (ii) for washing purposes.

Solution 17

     i.            Steam is usually made in boilers which are made of a number of narrow copper tubes surrounded by fire. As the cold water enters these tubes, it is immediately changed into steam, while the dissolved solids incapable of changing into vapour deposit on the inner walls of the tubes. This goes on and makes the bore of the tubes narrower. The result is that less water flows through the tubes at one time and less steam is produced. When the bore of the tube becomes very narrow, the pressure of the steam increases so much that at times the boiler bursts.

  ii.            If hard water is used, calcium and magnesium ions of the water combine with the negative ions of the soap to form a slimy precipitate of insoluble calcium and magnesium usually called soap curd (scum).

Formation of soap curd will go on as long as calcium and magnesium ions are present. Till then, no soap lather will be formed and cleaning of clothes or body will not be possible. Moreover, these precipitates are difficult to wash from fabrics and sometimes form rusty spots if iron salts are present in water.

Question 18

Explain with equation, what is noticed when permanent hard water is treated with

a.   Slaked time

b.  Washing soda

Solution 18

a.   Slaked lime

Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 2CaCO3 + 2H2O  

Mg(HCO3)2+ Ca(OH)2  Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water MgCO3 + CaCO3 + 2H2O  

Lime is first thoroughly mixed with water in a tank and then fed into another tank containing hard water. Revolving paddles thoroughly mix the two solutions. Most of the calcium carbonate settles down. If there is any solid left over, it is removed by a filter. This is known as Clarke's process.

b.  Washing soda

When washing soda or soda ash is added to hard water, the corresponding insoluble carbonates settle down and can be removed by filtration.

Ca(HCO3)2 + Na2CO3 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water CaCO3 + 2NaHCO3 

Mg(HCO3)2+ Na2CO3 Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water MgCO3 + 2NaHCO3

Question 19

Explain the permutit method for softening hard water.

Solution 19

Permutit is an artificial zeolite. Chemically, it is hydrated sodium aluminium orthosilicate with the formula Na2Al2Si2O8.XH2O. For the sake of convenience, let us give it the formula Na2P.

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - Water 

A tall cylinder is loosely filled with lumps of permutit. When hard water containing calcium and magnesium ions percolates through these lumps, ions exchange. Sodium permutit is slowly changed into calcium and magnesium permutit, and the water becomes soft with the removal of calcium and magnesium ions.

When no longer active, permutit is regenerated by running a concentrated solution of brine over it and removing calcium chloride formed by repeated washing.

CaP + 2NaCl → Na2P + CaI2

 

Class – 9  Biology Progress check(pg8)

 Ans1.(i)Simple microscope

(ii)Concave mirror

 

Ans2(i)2,000times

(ii)200,000times

 Progress check(pg11)

 Ans1(i)Amoeba, Bacteria

(ii)Nerve cells

(iii)WBCs

(iv)Amoeboid

 Ans2Nutrients, metabolic waste and respiratory gases

 Progress check(pg18)

 Ans1(i) Cytoplasm

(ii)Nucleus

(iii)Cell wall

 Ans2(i)Already done in chapter3

(ii)Plastids are present in plant cell but absent in animal cell

 Ans3(i)Golgi apparatus

(ii)Chloroplasts

(iii)Ribosomes

(iv)Lysosome

(v)Mitochondria

 Ans4(i)Cell wall

(ii) Endoplasmic reticulum

(iii)Vacuoles

(iv)Chromosomes

 Ans5(i)False,smaller

(ii)True

(iii)False,eukaryotes

(iv)False,no cellorganelle but possess ribosomes

 Progress check (pg20)

 Ans1(i)Cell division

(ii) Gland cells give out sweat for evaporation

(iii) Contactility of cells

(iv)Cells devour germs

 Ans2.Nucleus is the key to the life of the cell as it controls various life processes of the cell and without it, cell dies.

 Ans3.A cell has organelles like mitochondria (respiration centre)and lysosomes(suicidal bags) which shows that cells have a lifespan and death like an organism.E.g old skin cells die and replaced by new cells.

 Ans4.Since the cell is living,it also excretes wastes.E.g Amoeba(whose body is made up of single cell) have contractile vacuole that collects wastes and water generated by the body,swells up,and come to the surface to liberate the contents outward.

 Ans5.Yes,a cell also needs food like an organism to get energy to carry out various functions like digestion, movement,etc.

              Review Questions

 Ex.A multiple choice type

 1.(a)ribosomes-synthesis of proteins

2(b)a single cell

3(d) cell membrane

4(a)absence of centrosome

5(c)cellulose

6(a)mitochondria

  Ex.B Very short answer type

 Ans1.

(a) Mitochondria

(b) Ribosomes

(c)Chromosomes

(d)Centrosome

(e)lysosomes

(f)cell membrane

 Ans2.

(a)false,all animals cells contain a cell membrane.

(b)false,the cell wall is made of cellulose.

(c)true

(d)true

(e)false, cytoplasm is the part of the cell which surrounds the nucleus.

(f)true

(g)true

 Ans3.23 pairs of chromosomes found in human cells.

 Ans4.The name of chemical substance is DNA(Deoxyribonucleic acid)

 Ans5.(a)covered by tonoplast

(b)forms RNA

(c) intracellular digestion

(d) dissolved in the cytoplasm

(e) respiratory enzymes

 Ans6.

(a) Lysosomes

(b) Centrioles

(c)cell membrane/plasma membrane

(d) insects

(e)genes

(f)leucoplast

 Ex.C Short Answer Type

 

Ans1.Protoplasm cannot be analysed chemically because of two reasons:

(1)The chemical composition of protoplasm is very complex.

(2)It ceases to be protoplasm as soon as it is removed from the organism.

 Ans2.Already done in chapter 3

 Ans3.The cellsize is independent of the size of an organism.The cell size of a rat and that of an elephant are the same.However,what varies is the number of cells.No of cells in an elephant is much more compared to that of a rat.

 Ans4

(a) protoplasm:

1.It is the living matter of the cell i.e nucleus and cytoplasm.

2.It includes nucleus

cytoplasm:

1.It is the semi liquid substance present inside the cell where organelles are present

2.It excludes nucleus.

 (b) Nucleolus

1.It is present in the nucleus.

2.It helps in protein synthesis.

Nucleus

1.It is an organelle present in the cytoplasm.

2.It controls the transmission of hereditary characters.

 (c) Centrosome

1.It is an organelle present near the nucleus.

2.It initiates cell division.

Chromosome

1.They are the condensed chromatin fibres present in the nucleus.

2.They help in the transmission of hereditary characters.

 (d)Cell wall

1.It is the outer covering of plant cell.

2.It is freely permaeble.

Cell membrane

1.It is the outer covering of animal cell.

2.It is selectively permeable.

(e)plant cell and animal cell

Given in the book.

(f) Prokaryotes and eucaryotes

Given in the book

 Ans5.Features found only in plant cells are

 presence of large vacuoles ,presence of plastids and presence of cell wall.feature found in animal cell is presence of centrosome.

 Ans6.Cells are generally of a small size because of two reasons:

(1)To communicate effectively between the different regions of a cell 

(2)To increase the surface area volume ratio for greater diffusion of substances in and out of the cell.

 Ex.D Long answer type

 

Ans1.Schwann and Schleiden propounded the cell theory in1839. Later in 1858,Rudolf Virchow made an addition to the cell theory.The three points of the cell theory are:

(1)The cell is the smallest unit of structure of all living things.

(2)The cell is the unit of function of all living things.

(3)All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

 Ans2.Living cell:

(1)It is living and flexible.

(2)It performs various functions.

(3)It needs nutrition.

Brick:

(1)It is  non-living and .rigid.

(2)It is non-functional.

(3)It doesn't need nutrition.

 Ans3(a)plastid-Chromoplast,pigment -Xanthophyll.

(b)Plastid-Chromoplast, pigment-Carotene.

(c)plastid-Chloroplast,pigment-Chlorophyll

(d)Plastid-Leucoplast, pigment-no pigment.

 Ans4.Learn the functions from the book(given in the table).

(g)Asters of centosome:They surround the centriole and help in spindle fibres formation during cell division.

(h) Chromosomes:They help in the transmission of hereditary characters from parents to offsprings.

 Ans5.Six features found both in plant and animal cells are presence of cell membrane, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus, ribosomes and golgi apparatus.

 

 Ex.E Structured/Application/Skill type

(a)fig B is a plant cell because it has a cell wall and larger vacuole.

(b) The cell structure common to both the types are cell membrane, nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus.

(c)The structure found only in plant cells are cell wall,plastids and large vacuoles.and The structure found only in animal cells are centosome.

 

Physical Education (9th Class)

 NOTE:

FIRST TERM 3 GAMES

BASKETBALL

BADMINTON

AND

VOLLEYBALL

  

BASKETBALL

 

1.

(a) It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass. It is passed with both hands which are flexed initially and later extended towards passing.

 

(b) Player passes the ball with a bounce to his teammates after faking defender. It should reach at normal height.

 

(c) To start the game in the beginning, ball is tossed and players jump for the collection of the ball. They are not allowed to push or hit the opponent player, usually performed by a tall player. For the next time it continues with throw-in.

 

(d) It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around keeping one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of body while one foot maintains the contact with floor.

 

(e) This is the most common shot for 3 points. In this one hand is used to push the ball and other directs the ball towards the basket with the jump. Hand extends over the head with full accuracy.

 

(f) It is a defensive dribble to keep the control over the ball when opponent is close. The ball is bounced at low height up to knee and body shields the opponent, body is slightly crouched.

 

(g) After faking opponent, the player takes two steps to reach near the ring and places the ball inside the ring.

 

(h) After faking opponent, the player reaches near the ring and pushes the ball inside the ring with hand.

 

(i) It is a personal contact which impedes the progress of opponent player with or without the ball.

 

(j) It is a violation in which illegal movement of ball by dribbling i.e. player moves without the bounce, passes or collects ball while running.

 

(k) It is a violation given when any player dribbles the ball with both the hands at the same time. Throw-in is awarded to the opponent team.

 

(l) It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more than one minute. It can be taken one time in 1st,2nd and 3rd quarter and two times in 4th quarter by each team.

 

(m) It is illegal attempt to delay or prevent opponent player who does not control the ball from reaching desired position.

 

(n) There are two team foul indicators, one for each team. It is shown by table official which indicates that how many fouls are done by each team in ongoing quarter.

 

(o) It is the apparatus used to count 24 seconds which raises its alarm after 24 seconds. It starts with the possession of ball to each team.

 

(p) It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With new changes, throw-in(by turn) is taken from nearest side or end line.

 

(q) When any offensive Player stays inside opponent's restricted area consecutively for more than 3 seconds, else 3 seconds violation will be given and throw-in will be awarded to opponents. 3 seconds violation is not given during basket attempts or rebounds.

 

(r) The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or more opponents to receive the ball.

 

(s) It is attempting an unhindered shot from the position behind the free throw line. Opponent players can not interrupt the player who is taking free throw. Each successful free throw carries 1 point. One,two or three free throws can be awarded to fouled player according to situation.

 

(t) It is an offensive move in which one player who is placed/standing close to the opponent ring, immediately after rebound, basket or throw-in,ball is quickly passed to him by teammate. It is a easy basket before defence can set up.

 

2. Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith,a physical education teacher in YMCA training school at Springfield,USA in 1891. It was played as demonstration game in 1924 at Paris Olympics. It was officially introduced in 1936 Berlin Olympics games. In 1950, Federation International de Basketball Association (FIBA) was founded. In India, Basketball Federation of India (BFI) was constituted in 1950. Americans have developed a new form of basketball named as National Basketball Association (NBA). In India, United Basketball Alliance of India (UBA) started in 2016.

 

3. Two teams of 5 players each try to score points by tossing the ball into opposing team's basket. Players must use only their hands to control the ball. Players are not allowed to run while holding the ball. A field goal counts for 2 or 3 points. Free throw counts for 1 point. In case of common ball, teams are given throw-in from side in alternate turn-wise.

 

4. Draw from book with all dimensions.

 

5. 180cm x 105cm(120cm inside the end line). It is made up of transparent fibre glass. To check ball air pressure,ball is dropped from 1.5m and it should bounce back up to height of 1m.

 

6.

Time Rules(explanation is given in book)

 

:- Playing time(explain)

:-Extra time(explain)

:- 24 seconds rule(explain)

:- 8 seconds rule (explain)

:- 5 seconds rule (explain)

:- 3 seconds rule (explain)

:- Charged time out(explain)

 

Game Clock(to record overall game duration of playing time)

 

Stop Watch(to record small breaks in between the playing time).

 

7. BFI chest numbers are from 4 to 15.

 

8. Chest pass, Bounce pass, Long pass, One hand pass, One hand side pass, Underhand pass, Baseball pass, Oulet pass , No Look pass etc.

 

9. Charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding opponent, pushing opponent, illegal screening, using abusive language, Arguing, misbehavior etc.

 

10.

Dribble (It is pumping of ball with hands so that it bounces back by which the movement of ball takes place by a player.

 

Pivoting (It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around keeping one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of body while one foot maintains the contact with floor.

 

11.

Playing Time (explain from book).

 

Game lock starts immediately after jump ball, when referee tosses the ball in air in the beginning of the game.

 

12.

Time outs(explain charged time out from book)

 

Each time out duration is 1 minute.

 

13. Match equipments (All the equipments, given in tips to remember)

 

14. From book, in the end of the chapter.

 

15. From book,in the end of the chapter.

 

16. Explain both separately from book, under FOULS heading.

 

17.

After Held Ball(Alternate throw-in is taken from nearest side line or end line by each team according to their turn.

 

After the Basket (Throw-in is taken from end line by defending team)

 

18. Records play time, records stoppage of time,  records breaks time in-between each quarter, records extra time, records charged time out etc.

 

19.

A player is substituted,  when any player is injured, when he commits more than 5 fouls(Player is expelled), when he is not playing well, when he is tired etc.

 

How a player is substituted (A coach demands substitution from officials,only when ball is not in play(dead ball). A substituted player should enter the court only when the other player has moved out of the court boundaries.

 

20. Then,  points will be awarded to opponent team according to shooting area i.e. 2 or 3 points.

 

21. Then, two free throws will be awarded to opponent team followed by side throw-in.

 

22. Then, match will be awarded to opponent team according to forfeit rule.

 

23. It was an old rule,not followed now a days. Earlier if any player gets 2 free throws on foul from free throw line, if player misses either of the free throw from the 2, he gets a bonus 1 more free throw.

 

24. Records personal fouls, records technical fouls, records team scores, records individual player scores and records chest numbers of players while baskets, fouls, substitutions etc.

 

25. Extra period (Extra time) In case of tie during normal time period of 40 minutes, the game is extended for 5 minutes. It can further be extended, till the tie breaks.

 

26. Can be explained in class only.

 

27. According to Forfeit rule, matching is awarded to one team and other team looses the match. There are certain conditions when Forfeit rule is applied like when one team reaches late on match venue, when one team shows unsportsman behaviour, when one team have less number of players than required, when any team is loosing the match badly and coach of that team himself requests for stopping the match etc.

 

28. Done

 

29.

:- After jump ball

:- During Lay-up shot

:- During Dribbling

 

30.

Unsportsman like foul(It is an intentional personal foul done by a player, whether there is a struggle for snatching the ball from each or even without the ball. In this foul, the one who commits goes physical with the opponent player. Two free throws are given to opponent player followed by a throw-in from side line.

 

Disqualifying Fouls(When any bench player or a coach shouts or uses abusive language from outside for referee or opponent players and disturbs the game momentum and after repeated warnings also they continue, then officials disqualify such person and send away from the playing area for the rest of the match.

 

31. 

:- Free throw for 1 point, from free throw line.

 

:- Lay-Up shot for 2 points, from just under ring i.e. inside the three points line.

 

:- Jump Shot for 3 points, from behind the three points line.

 

 

9th BIOLOGY

CHAPTER-6

SEED STRUCTURE AND GERMINATION

                                 

Solution 1

1. (c) Maize grain ______ coleoptile

2. (d) do not get enough oxygen


Solution 2

(a) F (False). Monocotyledonous seeds contain one cotyledon and dicotyledonous seeds contain two cotyledons.

(b) T (True) 

(c) T (True)

(d) T (True)


Solution 3

(a) Maize

(b) Pyrogallic acid

(c) Shoot

(d) Rhizophora

(e) Aleurone layer

(f) Bean



Solution 4

(a) plumule, above

(b) Coleorhiza,  coleoptile

(c) seed coat, testa

(d) micropyle

(e) starch

Solution 5

(a) Micropyle, 1st male gamete, egg cell, zygote, embryo

(b) Allogamy, fusion of gametes, zygote, embryo, seed

(c) Seed coat bursts, radicle grows downward, hypocotyls form loop above the soil, epicotyls elongate

  

Question 6

What is the difference between an embryo and a seed?

Solution 6

A seed is a mature ovule after fertilization. It contains a tiny living-plant called the embryo. The embryo within the seed remains in an inactive or dormant state, until it is exposed to favourableconditions, when it germinates.



Question 7

Give any two examples each of endospermic (albuminous) seeds, and non-endospermic (exalbuminous) seeds.

Solution 7

Endospermic (albuminous) seeds: E.g. Castor, Maize, Poppy

Non-endospermic (exalbuminous) seeds: E.g. Bean, Gram, Pea


Question 8

Germinated grams are considered highly nutritive. What is the reason for this belief?

Solution 8

Germinated grams are considered highly nutritive because the cotyledon of the seed absorbs food from the endosperm, making it nutritive. It is rich in starch and its outermost layer is rich in protein. 

Question 9

Why do we not use the terms maize fruit and maize seed? What do we say instead?

Solution 9

Maize grain is actually a fruit in which the fruit wall and the seed coat are fused together to form a protective layer. Therefore, we do not use the terms maize fruit and maize seed. Instead, we call such fruits as grains. 



Solution 10

(a) Seed coat: It protects the delicate inner parts of the seed from injury and the attack of bacteria, fungi and insects. 

(b) Micropyle: During germination, micropyle allows water to enter the seed through its pore. 

(c) Cotyledons: They contain food for the embryo.

(d) Radicle: It forms the future root. 

(e) Plumule: It forms the future shoot. 

Question 11

Suggest an experiment to prove that a suitable temperature is necessary for germination.

Solution 11

Aim: To prove that a suitable temperature is necessary for germination.

Apparatus: Two beakers, wet cotton wool, refrigerator

Procedure: 

(1) Take two beakers and label them as A and B. 

(2) Place some gram seeds on wet cotton wool in each of the beakers. 

(3) Keep beaker A at ordinary room temperature and beaker B in the refrigerator. 

(4) In 1-2 days, the seeds in beaker A will germinate, showing the importance of a suitable temperature for germination. Seeds in beaker B may not show the signs of germination or may germinate after several days, though not to the extent as the seeds in beaker A. 

Inference: Seeds require a suitable temperature for germination.



Solution 12

Yes, we call it germination because all the changes leading to the formation of a seedling collectively constitute germination. During germination, either the epicotyl or the hypocotyl elongates.



Solution 13

(a) Epigeal germination and Hypogeal germination

Epigeal germination

Hypogeal germination

1. Cotyledons are pushed above the ground

1. Cotyledons remain underground

2. Hypocotyl elongates

2. Epicotyl elongates

(b)  Coleorhiza and Coleoptile

Coleorhiza 

Coleoptile 

1. Protective sheath of radicle

1. Protective sheath of plumule

2. Present towards the pointed end of embryonic region

2. Present towards the upper broader side of the embryonic region

(c) Bean seed and Maize grain

Bean seed

Maize grain

1. Two cotyledons

1. One cotyledon

2. No endosperm

2. Large endosperm present

 

Question 14

Differentiate between germination and  vivipary.

Solution 14

Germination

Vivipary 

When the embryo in the seed becomes activated and begins to grow into a new plant, then it is known as germination. 

Vivipary is known as the germination of seed within the fruit, while it is still attached to the parent plant.

Question 15

Justify the statement that the maize grain is a 'one seeded fruit'.

Solution 15

A fruit is the enlarged ripened ovary in which the ovarian wall forms the fruit wall and encloses the seed. The fruit protects the seed and helps in seed dispersal. 

The maize grain is regarded as a 'one-seeded fruit' because the fruit wall and the seed coat are fused to form a protective layer. Such a fruit is called grain.

Question 16

What is the role played by the hypocotyl in epigeal germination?

Solution 16

Germination of a seed which takes place above the ground is called epigeal germination. In epigeal germination, the hypocotyl grows forming a loop above the soil. It then straightens pushing the cotyledons above the ground.

Solution 17

(a) The 'micropyle' serves two important functions:

·          Allows absorption of water and makes it available to the embryo for germination.

·          Enables diffusion of respiratory gases for the growing embryo

(b) The embryo of the seed grows into the seedling.

(c) Structure of embryo

 

  

(d) The cotyledons of the seed provide nutrition for the growing seedling or the embryo.



 

 

  

BIOLOGY   CHAPTER 4     FLOWER   

C. SHORT TYPE ANSWER 

2. Distinguish

 (a). Flower—- flower is a specialised shoot in which the leaves are modified into floral structures . 

 Inflorescence—- Inflorescence is the mode of arrangement of flowers on the axis of the plant.

 (b). Petals—- a non-reproductive part of the flower, usually brightly Coloured.

 Petaloid sepals—- In some flowers sepals are coloured like petals are called petaloid sepals. 

 (C). Polyandraus—- when stamens are many and free.

 Polyadelphous—— when the filaments are united in many groups with their anthers remaining free. 

                              BIOLOGY CHAPTER- 5   

POLLINATION AND FERTILIZATION   

             A. MULTIPLE CHOICE 

 1.    (c). Stigma and anther mature at the same time

 2.    ( b). Pollen grain

 B.  Very Short Answer Type 

 1.  (a).  Butterflies 

 (b).  Wind

 (c).  Water

 2.  Match 

 (a). Male nuclei

 (b). Pollen tube

 (C). Rough

 (d).  Endosperm

 (e).  Testa

 (f).   Fertilization 

 3.  Fill ups

 (a).  Self pollination 

(b).  Dichogamy

(C).  Vallisneria

 4.  Name the parts

 (a).  Ovule

(b).  Ovary

(c).  Ovarian wall

 5.   One word

 (a).  Bisexual flower 

(b).  Inflorescence 

(C).  Autogamy

(d).  Dichogamy

(e).   Heterostyly

(f).  Entomophilous

(G).   Ornithophily

 C.  Short Answer Type 

 1.  Explain

 (a).  Ornithophily— pollination of flowers by birds. 

 (b).  Elephophily— pollination of flower by elephant. 

 (c).  Artificial Pollination— when man himself transfers pollen to the stigma. 

 2.  What happen to following....

 (a).  Ovule— become seed

 (b). Calyx— may either fall off or may remain intact in a dried and shrivelled form

(C). Petal— wither and generally fall off

 (d). Stamen— wither and generally fall off

 3.  Ans— (1) unisexuality 

                  (2) Dichogamy 

 D.  LONG ANSWER TYPE 

 1. Advantages of following 

 (a). Ans— to trap the pollen grains 

 (b). Ans— to attract insects 

 (C). Ans— to get easily carried away by wind

 (d). Ans— so that slightest wind can carry the pollens 

 (e). Ans— to attract insects 

 2. Ans— ADVANTAGES 

   (1) the offsprings are healthier

   (2) the seeds produced are abundant and  viable

    (3). New varieties may be produced 

     DISADVANTAGES 

(1). The pollination is not always certain 

(2). The pollen has to be produced in large quantity

(3). The process is uneconomical for the plant

 

Class 9  Chemistry-Chemical Changes and Reactions 

Question 1

(a)   What is a chemical reaction?

(b)  State the conditions necessary for a chemical change or reaction.  

Answer 1

(a)   A chemical reaction is the process of breaking the chemical bonds of the reacting substances (reactants) and making new bonds to form new substances (products).

(b)  Conditions necessary for a chemical change or reaction are

(i)       Evolution of gas

(ii)    Change of colour

(iii)  Formation of precipitate

(iv)Change of state

Question 2

Define the following terms

(a). Chemical bond

(b). Effervescence

(c). Precipitate

Answer 2 

(a). A chemical bond is the force which holds the atoms of a molecule together as in a

compound.

(b). Formation of gas bubbles in a liquid during a reaction is called effervescence.

(c). Chemical reactions which are characterised by the formation of insoluble solid substances are called precipitates.

Question 3

Give an example of a reaction where the following are involved

(a)   Heat

(b)  Light

(c)   Electricity

(d)  Close contact

(e)   Solution

(f)    Pressure

(g)  Catalyst

Answer 3 

 

Question 4

Define

(a) Photochemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction Give an example in each case.

Answer4

(a)   It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of light energy.

(b)  It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of electrical energy.

Question 5

Give an example of each of the following chemical changes:

(a) A photochemical reaction involving

(i) Silver salt (ii) water

(b)A reaction involving

(i)     Blue Answer

(ii)  Formation of dirty green precipitate

(c)Two gases combine to form white solid

(d)Two solids combine to form a liquid

(e)A reaction where colour change is noticed 

REFER THE BOOK CHAPTER OF NOTES PROVIDED

Question 6

Write the chemical reaction where the following changes are observed.

(a)  Gas is evolved

(b)  Colour change is noticed (c) Precipitate is formed

(d) Physical state is changed

Answer 6 REFER THE BOOK CHAPTER OF NOTES PROVIDED

 

Question 7

Give reason for the following:

(a)   Silver nitrate Answer is kept in coloured bottles.

(b)  Molybdenum is used in the manufacture of ammonia.

(c)   Blue Answer of copper sulphate changes to green when a piece of iron is added to this

solution.

(d)  Colourless concentrated sulphuric acid in a test tube changes to blue on adding a small piece of copper to it.

Answer 7

(a)Silver nitrate Answer is kept in brown bottles in the laboratory because it decomposes in the presence of light.

(b)Molybdenum increases the efficiency of the catalyst iron used in the manufacture of ammonia.

(c)This is because the blue colour of the copper sulphate Answer fades and eventually turns into light green due to the formation of ferrous sulphate.

(d)Copper displaces hydrogen from sulphuric acid and forms blue-coloured copper sulphate and hydrogen gas is evolved.

Exercise-2(B), Chapter-2 

Question 1

Complete the following statements:

(a)The chemical change involving iron and hydrochloric acid illustrates a _________________ reaction.

(b)In the type of reaction called_______________, two compounds exchange their positive and negative radicals.

(c)A catalyst either ______ or _____________ the rate of a chemical change but itself remains ______________ at the end Of the reaction.

(d)On heating, hydrated copper sulphate changes its colour from ________ to __________.

Answer 1

(a)Displacement

(b)Double decomposition

(c)Accelerates, decelerates, unaffected

(d)Blue, white

Question 2

When hydrogen burns in oxygen, water is formed; when electricity is passed through water, hydrogen and oxygen are given out. Name the type of chemical change involved in the two cases.

Answer 2

When hydrogen burns in oxygen, water is formed – Combination Reaction.

When electricity is passed through water, hydrogen and oxygen are given out – Decomposition Reaction.

Question 3

Explain, giving one example for each of the following chemical changes:

(a)   Double decomposition

(b)  Thermal decomposition

(c)   Reversible reaction

(d)  Displacement

Answer 3

(a)  Double decomposition reaction

This is a type of chemical change in which two compounds in solution to form two new compounds by mutual exchange of radicals

(b)  Thermal decomposition

A decomposition reaction brought about by heat is known as thermal decomposition.

2HgO(s) 2Hg(s) +O2(g)  

(c) Reversible reaction

A chemical reaction in which the direction of a chemical change can be reversed by changing the conditions under which the reaction is taking place is called a reversible reaction.

CuSO4.5H2O(s)  CuSO4(s) + 5H2O (g)  

(d) Displacement Reaction

It is a chemical change in which a more active element displaces a less active element from its salt solution.

CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu

Question 4 

(a)   What is synthesis?

(b)  What kind of chemical reaction is synthesis? Support your answer by an example.

Answer 4

A reaction in which two or more substances combine together to form a single substance is called a synthesis or combination reaction.

A + B → AB

In the above reaction, substances A and B combine to give a molecule of a new substance, AB. Carbon burns in oxygen to form a gaseous compound, carbon dioxide.

C + O2 == CO2

Question 5

Decomposition brought about by heat is known as thermal decomposition. What is the difference between thermal dissociation and thermal decomposition?

Answer 5

A decomposition reaction brought about by heat is known as thermal decomposition.

2HgO(s) —- 2Hg(s) + O2 (g)

A simultaneous reversible decomposition reaction brought about only by heat is thermal dissociation.

NH4Cl  NH3 +HCl

Question 6

(a)Define neutralization reaction with an example.

 (b)Give balanced equation for this reaction.

(c)Give three applications of neutralization reactions.

Answer 6 

(a)The reaction between an acid and a base to form salt and water only is referred to as a neutralisation reaction.

(b)NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

(c) Applications of neutralisation reactions:

(i) When someone is stung by a bee, formic acid enters the skin and causes pain, which can be relieved by rubbing the spot with slaked lime or baking soda, both of which are bases. (ii) Acid which is accidentally spilled on to our clothes can be neutralised with ammonia solution.

(iii) If soil is somewhat acidic and thus unfavourable for growing of certain crops, slaked lime is added to neutralise the excess acid.

Question 7

What do you understand by precipitation reaction? Explain with an example.

Answer 7

A chemical reaction in which two compound in their aqueous state react to form an insoluble salt (a precipitate) as one of the product is known as precipitation reaction.

For example: BaCl2 (aq) +NaSO4 (aq) →BaSO4(s) white ppt + 2NaCl (aq).

Question 8

(a)What are double displacement reactions?

(b) Give an example of double displacement reaction, where a gas is evolved.

Answer 8

(a)This is a type of chemical change in which two compound in a solution react to form two compound by mutual exchange of radicals Double decomposition reaction is also called double displacement reaction.

AB +CD→ AD +CB

(b) Double displacement reaction, gas evolved are

FeS(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + H2S

Question 9

(a)What is a decomposition reaction?

(b) Decomposition reaction can occur by (i) heat

(ii) Electricity and (iii) sunlight

Give two balanced reaction for reaction

Answer 9

(a)The chemical reaction in which a compound splits into two or more simpler substance (elements or compound) is called decomposition reaction. 1 2HgO(s) —- 2Hg(s) + O2 (g)

2)DECOMPOSITION OF WATER BY PASSING CURRENT  3)    DECOMPOSITION OF

SILVER NITRATE

Question 10

State the type of reactions each of the following 

Answer 10

(a)     Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2                   Displacement reaction

(b)    NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O              Neutralisation reaction

(c)     2HgO → 2Hg + O2                                           Decomposition reaction

(d)    Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu                Displacement reaction

(e)     PbO2 + SO2 → PbSO4                       Combination reaction

(f)      2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2                     Decomposition reaction

(g)    2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2                           Decomposition reaction

(h)    KNO3 + H2SO4→ HNO3 + KHSO4       Double decomposition reaction

(i)      CuO+H2 → Cu+ H2O                            Displacement reaction

(j)      CaCO3 → CaO+ CO2                         Decomposition reaction

(k)    NH4Cl → NH3 + HCl                         Decomposition reaction

(l)      PbO + 2HNO3 → Pb(NO3) + 2H2O     Neutralisation reaction

(m)  AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3    Double decomposition reaction

 

Question 12  Multiple choice

(a) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a chemical change?

(i)     It is irreversible.

(ii)  No net energy change is involved.

(iii). New substance is formed.

(iv)Involves absorption or liberation of energy.

(b) A reaction of a type: AB + CD → AD + CD, involves

(i)       No chemical change

(ii)    Decomposition of AB and CD

(iii)  . Exchange of ions of AB and CD

(iv)   Combination of AB and CD

  (c) The reaction BaCl2(aq)+ H2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2HCl(aq) is

(i)       Displacement reaction

(ii)    Neutralisation reaction

(iii)  . Decomposition reaction

(iv)   Double displacement reaction

 (d) Thermal decomposition of sodium carbonate will produce

(i)       Carbon dioxide

(ii)    Oxygen

(iii)  Sodium hydroxide

(iv)   No other product

 Answer 12

(a)   (ii) No net energy change is involved

(b)  (iii) Exchange of ions of AB and CD

(c)   (iv)double displacement reaction

(d)  (i) Carbon dioxide

Exercise -2 (C), 

Question 1

What is a chemical change? Give two examples of chemical change?

Answer 1 

A chemical change is a permanent change in which the chemical composition of a substance is changed and a new substance is formed.

Examples:

Heating of copper carbonate

Formation of curd from milk

Question 2

Why energy is involved in a chemical change?

Answer 2 

In every chemical change, change in energy is involved.

There is a difference between the chemical energies of the reactants and products. It involves the breaking up of chemical bonds between the atoms resulting in the absorption of energy in the form of heat and simultaneous formation of bonds with the release of energy. Question 3 

What do you understand by ‘chemical reaction’?

Answer 3 

A chemical reaction is the process of breaking the chemical bonds of the reacting substances (reactants) and making new bonds to form new substances (products).

A chemical change or chemical reaction occurs when particles collide. Collisions occur when reactants are in close contact or by supply of energy.

Question 4

Give an example of a reaction where the following are involved

(a)   Evolution of heat

(b)  Absorption of heat

(c)   High pressure is required

Answer 4

(a)   C + O2 → CO2 + Heat

(b)  C + 2S → CS2

(c)   N2 + 3H2→ 2NH3

Question 5

State the main characteristics of chemical reactions. Give at least one example in each case.

Answer 5

(i)                 Evolution of gas Example:

Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

[Zinc] + [dil.sulphuricAcid] [zinc sulphate] [hydrogen] 

(ii)              Change of colour Example:

Fe + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 + Cu

[Iron] [Blue solution] [Green Solution] [copper]  (iii) Formation of precipitates: Example:

AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(ppt) + NaNO3(aq)

Question 6 

Give an example of each of the following chemical changes.

(a) A reaction involving

(i)     Change of state

(ii)  Formation of precipitate

(b)  An exothermic and an endothermic reaction involving carbon as one of the reactants.

(c)   A reaction where colour change is noticed.

Answer 6

(a) (i) Change of state

Ammonia gas reacts with HCl gas to give solid ammonium chloride.

NH3 (g) + HCl(g)  NH4Cl(s)

 (ii) Formation of precipitate

When a Aq, sol.of silver nitrate is added to a Aq, sol.of sodium chloride, a white insoluble substance, silver chloride, is formed.

AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (ppt) + NaNO3 (aq) (b) Exothermic reaction:

When carbon burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, a lot of heat is produced. C + O2 → CO2 + Heat Endothermic reaction:

When carbon is heated with sulphur at high temperature, liquid carbon disulphide is formed.

C + 2S CS2

 (c) Colour change

A few pieces of iron are added into a blue coloured copper sulphate solution; the blue colour of copper sulphate fades and eventually turns into light green due to the formation of ferrous sulphate.

Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu

Question 7 

Define exothermic and endothermic changes. Give two examples in each case.

Answer 7 

Exothermic reaction:

A chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called an exothermic reaction. Example:

When carbon burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, a lot of heat is produced.

C + O2 → CO2 + Heat

When hydrogen is burnt in oxygen, water is formed and heat is released.

2H2 + O2---à 2H2O + Heat

Endothermic reaction:

A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.

Example:

When carbon is heated with sulphur at high temperature, liquid carbon disulphide is formed.

C + 2S---à CS2

When nitrogen and oxygen are heated together to a temperature of about 3000°C, nitric oxide gas is formed.

N2   + O2 ---à+ 2NO 

Question 8 

State the effects of endothermic and exothermic reactions on the surroundings.

Answer 8

Exothermic reactions are spontaneous and warm their surroundings with the release of heat energy.

Endothermic reactions absorb heat energy from their surroundings and cause their surroundings to cool down.

Question 9  Define:

(a)   Photochemical reaction

(b)  Electrochemical reaction     Give one example in each case.

Answer 9 

(a)   It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of light energy.

Example: Photosynthesis

(b)  It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of electrical energy.

Example: Acidulated water breaks into hydrogen and oxygen

Answer 10

(a)   NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(aq) + NaNO3(aq)

(b)  Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI →2KNO3 + PbI2

(c)   CuCO3 CuO(s) + CO2 (g)

(d)  2Pb (NO3)2 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2

(e)   4NH3 + 5O2 4NO +6H2O

Question 11

What do you observe? When (a)Lead nitrate is heated.

(b)Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.

(c)Hydrogen peroxide is exposed to sunlight.

(d)H2S gas is passed through copper sulphate solution. (e)Barium chloride is added to sodium sulphate solution (f)Water is added to the quick lime.

(g)Sodium chloride Answer is added to silver nitrate solution.

Answer 11

(a)Lead nitrate decomposes on heating, leaving a yellow residue of lead monoxide, and brown nitrogen dioxide and colourless oxygen gases are evolved.

(b)Due to thermal decomposition, silver chloride breaks down into silver and chloride.

(c)Hydrogen peroxide breaks down to form water and oxygen gas along with heat energy.

(d)When hydrogen sulphide is passed through a blue Answerof copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained, and sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution.

(e)A white insoluble precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.

(f)Quick lime reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime, i.e. calcium hydroxide. (g)When sodium chloride is added to the silver nitrate solution, a white curdy precipitate of silver chloride is formed.

Question 12 

(a)  a carbonate which do not decompose on heating.

(b)  a nitrate which produces oxygen as the only gas. (c) a compound which produces carbon dioxide on heating (d) a nitrate which produces brown gas on heating.

Answer 12

(a)   Sodium carbonate

(b)  Sodium nitrate

(c)   Zinc carbonate

(d)  Lead nitrate

 Class 9 subject Biology chapter3 "Tissues"

Ans1.Meristematic tissue and Permanent tissue.

Ans2.(i) permanent tissue.

(ii) parenchyma.

(iii) Collenchyma.

(iv) Xylem and phloem.

Ans3.(i)True.

(ii)True.

(iii)True.

(iv) false, The Sclerenchyma consists of dead cells.

 Progress Check(pg-30)

 Ans1(i) Epithelial tissue

(ii) Glandular epithelium

(iii)Muscular tissue

(iv) Nervous tissue

 Ans2(i)Ciliated columnar epithelium is located in the lining of the windpipe(trachea).

(ii)Elastic cartilage is located at the tip of the nose and external ear.

(iii) Unstrained muscles are located in the walls of the intestine and muscles of the iris of the eye.

 Ans3(i)cartilage: It is elastic, on-porous and has no blood vessels and nerves.

(ii)bone: It is hard, porous and has rich supply of blood vessels and nerves

(iii) striated muscles: They are under the control of our will. They are made of long fibres which are nucleated and striated.

(iv)cardiac muscles: They are involuntary in function and found only in the walls of the heart.

 Ans4(i)true

(ii)false, axons bundled together form a nerve

(iii)false, cardiac muscles do not 

get tired soon.

(iv)false, epithelial cells leave no space in between

(v)false, perikaryon is the cell body of a nerve cell

(vi)false, muscles of the iris of the eye are involuntary type.

(vii)true

 Review questions

 Ex. A

1(c)parenchyma

2(a)fibrous connective tissue

3(a)meristem-actively dividing cells

4(d) chlorenchyma

5(d)layers of xylem in a stem

6(d) sclerenchyma

7(c)tendon

8(d) involuntary and striated

 Ex. B Very short answer type:

And1(a)Apical meristem

(b)protective tissue

(c) glandular epithelium

(d)connective tissue (ligament)

(e) conducting tissue

(f) sclerenchyma

 Ans2.Parenchyma is the least specialized tissue located in plants.

 Ans3.(a) tissue

(b)parenchyma

(c)lateral meristem or cambium

 Ans4(a)At the tips of roots, stem and branches

(b)At the tip of nose and ear

(c)in the mouth and nasal cavity

(d)in stems and veins of leaves

(e)in the lining of windpipe (trachea)

(f)at the end of two bones

 And5(a) epithelial tissue

( b)cuboidal epithelium

(c)nerve cell(neuron)

(d)ciliated epithelium

 Ex. C Short answer type

 Ans1Ciliated epithelium is found in the inner lining of windpipe(trachea).

The cilia present in it keep lashing and move the materials out which enter these regions.

 Ans2 Nervous tissue: It is made up of elongated cells called neurons. This tissue is concerned with the perception and responses of animals.

Nervous system: It consists of brain, spinal cord and the nervous tissue. This system controls and coordinates all the systems and parts of your body.

 Ans3Tissues found in human heart are:

Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue and nervous tissue

Ans4.No, we cannot consider because tissue is a group of cells performing a particular function but cluster of eggs cannot perform a specific function rather they perform it individually

 Ans5.The three types of muscles found in the human body are:

(1)Striated muscles: found in arms and legs.

(2)Unstrained  muscles: found in intestine and stomach.

(3)Cardiac muscles: found in heart.

  Ex D Long answer type

 An1(a)Cell and tissue:

Cell: It is the structural and functional unit of life.

E.g. nerve cell

Tissue: It is the group of similar cells performing a specific function.

E.g. connective tissue

 (b)organ and organism:

Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform function within your body.

E.g. heart, liver

Organism: several organ system make up an organism.

E.g. humans, animals

 (c)Organ and organelle

Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform function within your body.

E.g. heart, liver

Organelle: little organs found within the cell. They perform function within the cell

E.g. ribosomes, mitochondria.

 (d)Organ and Organ system.:

Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform function within your body.

E.g. heart, liver

Organ system: several organs together performing a specific life process form an organ system

E.g. circulatory system

 And(a)Parenchyma and collenchyma:

Parenchyma: They are the thin walled cells which may be oval, or round in shape. These cells help in the storage of food.

Collenchyma: They are the elongated cells with thickened cell wall at the corners. These cells give mechanical support to the parts of the plant

(b)Meristematic tissue and permanent tissue:

Meristematic tissue: These are made up of actively dividing cells. Cells are small usually cuboidal.

Permanent tissue: These are made up of cells which have lost their ability to divide.

 (c) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma:

Sclerenchyma: They are made up dead cells. Here, cell wall is thick. They give strength to the parts of the plants.

Parenchymal: They are made up of living cells. Here, cell wall is thin. These cells help in the storage of food.

 (d)cells of involuntary muscles are spindle shaped with tapering ends. Dark and light bands are not present.

These muscles don't work according to our will while cells of voluntary muscles are long. Striations that is dark and light bands are present in these cells. These muscles work according to our will.

 (e)fibres of voluntary muscles are long cells constituting voluntary muscles. They are not branched. They are found in arms, legs, face, neck, etc.

Cardiac muscles are made up of short cells but they are branched They are found in the heart. 

 Ans. E Structured/application questions

 1  (a)The given diagram is the phloem tissue of plant as it contains the cellular components of phloem.

 (b)1.sieve cell or sieve tube

2.phloem parenchyma cells

3.companion cells

4.sieve plate

 (c)This tissue is likely to be found in the stem and leaves of plants.

 (d)sieve tubes helps in the transport of food from leaves to storage organs and other parts of the plant.

Phloem parenchymal helps in the storage of starch and fats.

Companion cells help in the functioning of the sieve tubes.

Sieve plate allows the transportation of food as it contains perforations.

 Ans2(a)This cell is nerve cell or neuron.

 (b)1-Cellbody 

2-Axon

3-Nucleus

4-Nissl granule

5-Neurolemma

6-Axon endings

 

(c) This cell is likely to be found in nervous system. Nerve cells conduct impulses from one part of the body to other. 

 Class 9 physics chapter2  Motion in one dimension.

Exercise 2 (a)

  Q1. Differentiate between scalar and vector quantities, giving two examples of each.

Ans Scalar quantities: These are physical quantities which are expressed only by their magnitudes.

    Examples:length and mass.

    Vector quantities:These physical quantities requires the magnitude as well as direction to express them.

    Examples:Force and weight.

Q2. when is a body said to be at rest?

Ans A body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with respect to it's surroundings.

Q3  When is a body said to be in motion?

Ans A body is said to be in motion if it change it's position with respect to it's surroundings.

Q4  What do you mean by motion in one direction?

Ans When a body moves along a straight line path, it's motion is said to be one dimensional motion.

Q5  Define displacement. State it's unit.

Ans The shortest distance from the initial to the final position of the body. It's S. I. Unit is metre(m).

Q6  Differentiate between distance and displacement.

Ans from book, page no. 29.

Q7  Can displacement be zero even if distance is not zero? Give one example to explain your answer.

Ans yes ,displacement can be zero even if distance is not zero. For example: if a body moves in a circle,    then displacement in one rotation is zero but distance covered in one rotation is circumfrence of the    circular path.

Q8 Define velocity. State it's s. I. Unit.

AnsThe velocity of a body is the distance travelled per second by the body in a specified direction. Its S.    I unit is ms-1.

 Q9  Define speed. What is its S. I. Unit?

Ans The speed of a body is the rate of change of distance with time. Its S. I. Unit is ms-1.

Q10 Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Ans from book, page no. 32.

Q11 When is the instantaneous speed same as the average speed?

Ans When the body moves with uniform speed.

Q12 Distinguish between uniform velocity and variable velocity.

Ans uniform velocity:1when a body covers equal distance in a straight line, in equal interval of time.

2.  in this case, direction of motion remains same.

3. eg.a body moving with a constant speed in a straight line has uniform velocity.

   Variable velocity:1.when a body covers unequal distance in equal intervals of time in a straight line.

2. in this case, direction of motion changes.

3. eg.circular motion is example of variable velocity.

Q13 Distinguish between average speed and average velocity.

Ans Average speed:

1. it is the ratio of total distance travelled by the body to total time taken to travel that distance.    Thus,

   Average speed=total distance travelled/total time taken.

2. It is a scalar quantity.

   Average velocity:

1. if the velocity of a body moving in a particular direction changes with time, the ratio of displacement    to time taken in the entire journey is called its average velocity. Thus,

   Average velocity=Displacement/total time taken

2. it is a vector quantity.

Q14 Give an example of motion of a body moving with a constant speed, but with variable velocity. Draw a     diagram to represent such a motion.

Ans The motion of a body  in a circular path even with constant speed, but with variable velocity because in     a circular path, the direction of motion of body continuously changes with time. Its velocity changes at a uniform rate. At any instant, it's velocity is along the tangent to the circular path at that point. Fig. 2.5 from book

Q15Give an example of motion in which average speed is not zero, but average velocity is zero.

Ans if a body starts its motion from a point and comes back to the same point after a certain time, the displacement is zero, so the average velocity is also zero, but total distance travelled is not zero so the average speed is not zero.

Q16Define acceleration. State it's S. I. Unit.

Ans Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time. Its S. I. Unit is ms-2.

Q17Distinguish between acceleration and retardation.

Acceleration (1). Rate of change of velocity with time is called acceleration.

(2). A body falling towards the earth has positive acceleration.

Retardation (1). When velocity of body decreases with time, the motion is said to be decelerated or retarded.

(2). A ball thrown vertically upward has retardation.

Q18Differentiate between uniform acceleration and variable acceleration.

Ans Uniform acceleration:(1) The acceleration is said to be uniform when equal change in velocity take place in equal interval of time.

(2) The motion of body under gravity is an example of uniform acceleration.

Variable acceleration:(1) if change in velocity is not same  in the same interval of time, the acceleration is said to variable.

(2) The motion of vehicle on a crowded road is with variable acceleration.

Q19What is meant by the term retardation? Name its   S. I unit.

Ans Negative acceleration is called retardation. Its S. I. Unit is ms-2.

Q20 Give example of each type of the following motion:(a) uniform velocity:The rain drops reach on earth's surface falling with uniform velocity.

(b) variable velocity:the motion of a body in a circular path.

(C) variable acceleration:the motion of a vehicle on a crowded or hilly road.

(d) uniform retardation:if brakes are applied on a train approaching a station to stop it.

Q21 Define the term acceleration due to gravity. State its average value.

Ans When a body falls freely under gravity, the acceleration produced in the body due to earth's     gravitational attraction is called acceleration due to gravity(g). The average value of g is 9.8ms-2.

 

 Exercise 2 (b)

 Q1   What  informations about the motion of a body are obtained from the displacement time graph?

Ans (1)The slope of displacement-time graph gives the velocity.

(2) The displacement-time graph is a straight line inclined to the time axis. It shows linear relationship     between the displacement and time.

(3) The displacement time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis mean the body is at rest.

Q2. (a)   What does the slope of a displacement time graph represent?

Ans The slope of a displacement time graph gives velocity.

(b) Can displacement time sketch be parallel to the displacement axis? Give reason to your answer.

Ans No, the displacement time graph can never be a straight line parallel to the displacement axis because     such a line would mean that the distance covered by the body in a certain direction increases without     any increase in time(I.e.velocity of the body is infinite) which is impossible.

Q3  Draw a displacement time graph for a boy going to school with a uniform velocity.

Ans from the book at page no 37 figure 2.8

Q4  State how the velocity time graph used to find (1) the acceleration of a body

Ans: acceleration=velocity÷time, if slope is positive mean accelerated motion. If slope is negative mean      retardation. If slope is zero means acceleration is zero.

(2) the distance travelled by the body in a given time(3) the displacement of a body in a given time.

Ans The distance travelled by the body in a given time can be obtained by finding area enclosed between the     velocity time graph and X axis gives displacement of the body. Total distance travelled by body is their     arithmetic sum(without sign)

    The total displacement is obtained by adding them numerically with proper sign.

Q5  Draw a velocity time graph for a body moving with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a. Use     this graph to find distance travelled by the body in time t.

Ans from book at page no. 51,figure 2.45.

    Distance travelled by body in time t=area of Trapezium OABD

    =area of rectangle OAED+area of triangle ABE

    Or S=OA*OD+1/2*BE*AE=ut+1/2(v-u) *t

            =ut+1/2at2.

Q6 Draw the shape of the velocity time graph for a body moving(a) uniform velocity, (b) uniform       acceleration.

Ans from book at page no. 40,fig 2.13 for part a   and fig 2.14 for part b.

Q7 Draw a  graph for acceleration against time for a uniformly accelerated motion. How can it be used to       find the change in speed in certain interval of time?

Ans fig. 2.19 at page no. 42

    Since acceleration=velocity÷time

    therefore, acceleration×time=change in speed. So in the given graph the area enclosed between the         acceleration time sketch and time axis gives change in speed of the body.

Q8  Draw a velocity time graph for the free fall of a body under gravity, starting from rest. Take g=10ms-2.

Ans figure 2.22 at page no. 43

Q9  A body falls freely from a certain height. Show graphically the relationship between the distance            fallen and square of time. How will you determine g from this graph?

Ans  fig. 2.24 at page no. 44

     The value of g can be obtained by doubling the slope of the S-t2  graph for a freely fallig body.

                Please learn and write on your copies.

                                                            

           History Class 9  -  Chapter 2  structured questions   

 ( based on 2019 edition)

1. With reference to the sources of information about the Vedic age...... 

a. The Vedas.  b. The Epic  c.  Role of iron implements

Ans- a. The social, economic, political and religious aspects of the life of the people came to be reflected in the Vedic literature. Thus, Vedas became the storehouse of knowledge. The Vedic literature was written in Sanskrit. The term, Veda' has been derived from the Sanskrit word, 'vid' which means knowledge.

b. The Epics serve as the main source of information on the political institutions and the social and cultural organisation of the Epic Age 

(ii) They provide information on various Aryan Kingdoms, their armies and the weapons they used.

 iii.They reveal the high ideals of family life of the Aryans.

c.  i. Agriculture: Discovery of iron gave the Aryans new implements like axes to clear the forest and cultivate the land.

(ii) Occupation: The use of iron gave rise to new trades by providing durable implements like saws, chisels, hammers, nails and tongs.

(iii) Defence: Because of its durability and easy availability, iron was extensively used in making weapons like swords, armours and shields.

2. With reference to Vedic Literature, answer the following questions:

 (a) List the categories into which Vedic literature is divided. 

(b) Give a brief account of the four Vedas. 

(c) What are known as Brahmanas and Aranyakas? 

Ans- a. The Vedic literature can be classified into the following categories: (i) The four Vedas, i.e., the Rig, Sama, Yajur and Atharva Vedas and their Samhitas. (ii) The Brahmanas attached to each Samhita (iii) The Aranyakas (iv) The Upanishads.

b. i. The Rig Veda : It is the oldest religious text of the world. It is said to have been composed during the early Vedic Period . The hymns are dedicated by the sages to Gods

ii. 

) The Sama Veda: In this veda some of the hymns are borrowed from the Rig Veda, These hymns were meant to be sung at the time of the sacrifice by the priests] 

 (iii) The Yajur Veda: (It deals with hymns recited during the performance of Yajnas 

(iv) The Atharva Veda: The hymns contained in this Veda deal with magic and charm. Most of the hymns are taken from the Rig Veda.

c. The Brahmanas 

Written after the Vedas as their simple commentary, the Brahmanas are in prose. They explain the social and religious importance of rituals as well as the value of sacrifices.

The Aranyakas 

They are known as forest books' written for the guidance of the hermits and the students living in forests.

3. With reference to the Society during the Vedic Age, answer the following

 (a) Explain briefly the class divisions that existed in the society. (b) Explain the four stages in the life of an Aryan.

 (c) State the position of women in the Vedic period.

a. People followed different professions which became hereditary in course of time. This resulted in the division of society into occupational stages classes. Gradually, this took the form of caste and the present caste system emerged. In the Later Vedic Period, Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and Shudras became four distinct castes or Varnas.

b.  i. The The Brahmacharya Ashrama lasted upto the age of 25 years. During this period, the pupil was expected to acquire knowledge in the gurukul and observe strict discipline.

 ii.Grihastha Ashrama,25 to 50 years

 Man was supposed to marry and raise a family. As a householder, he was to take responsibility of maintaining his family. 

iii. The third stage was Vanaprastha Ashrama,50 to 75 years.

 During this period man was expected to retire from worldly life and acquire spiritual and philosophical knowledge. 

iv. The Sanyasa Ashrama,75 to 100 years.

 This was the period of renunciation. Man had to leave everything forever and go into meditation in order to attain moksha or salvation.

c. POSITION OF WOMEN 

During the Rig Vedic Period women were respected. The institution of marriage had become sacred. The daughters were given freedom to choose their husbands. 

In the Later Vedic Period, there was significant decline in the status of women.They did not enjoy the right to property. The freedom to choose husbands by women was curtailed.

4. With reference to economic organisation of the people in the Vedic Period, answer te following questions:

 (a) State the methods used by the Aryans in agriculture.

(b) Why was domestication of animals important to the Aryans? (c) How was trade managed during this period? 

Ans- a. Agriculture: Discovery of iron gave the Aryans new implements like axes to clear the forest and cultivate the land. Thus, agriculture became their important occupation. With the use of iron plough-heads, sickles and hoes, they could bring vast tracts of land under cultivation. The production of more rice, wheat, barley, vegetables and fruits improved their standard of living.

b. In the beginning the main occupation was domestication agriculture was secondary. Cattle was the important source of wealth.Cows were domesticated and milk and milk products like curd, butter, ghee, etc. were used.

c.Trade:During the Later Vedic phase agricultural surplus led to trade, giving rise to markets from which developed towns and cities. Thus, trade became the pivot around which the whole town and city life moved. Although the Aryans had introduced coins, barter system was still dominant in trade with other countries.

 

5. With reference to the picture given, answer the following questions: 

(a) Identify this ancient education system. Persons belonging to which ashrama of life attended this? 

(b) Describe briefly the life in this ancient education institution.

 (c) What do you think are the advantages and disadvantages of studying in this educational setup?

Ans- a. This system was known as Gurukul system of education.

The person belonged to the Brahamacharya Ashrama.

b. The student was required to do household chores for his teacher. He had to get up early in the morning, take a bath and chant the Vedic mantras. Most of the teaching was done orally. At the completion of the education, a student used to give guru dakshina – a gift to his teacher.The main object of education was to bring about physical, mental and spiritual development of the pupils.

c. Advantages;

i. It was focused on all round development of a student like mental, physical etc.

ii. Pupils learnt to live a disciplined life.

Disadvantages;

i. Pupils had to left the home at tender age which deprived them from parental love.

ii. There was no formal system of evaluation.

 History Chapter 1 structured questions

Q1

Answer

a.  The great bath: it indicates the following

1. the art of building had reached a high degree of perfection.

2. There might have existed a ruling class that could mobilize labour.

3. The importance attached to ceremonial bathing

4. The efficient planning in the structural features relating to water supply

b.  The seals:

1.  These are used by the Harappans to show their artistic skills.

2.  These provide useful information about script, trade, religion and beliefs.

3.  These were used by the traders to stamp their goods.

C. script : the harappans used a script which is regarded as pictographic since its signs represent birds, fish and varieties of the human form. The number of signs of harappan is known to be between 375 and 400.

 Q2. answer:

a.  In 1921, dayaram sahni an officer in the archaeological department. Survey of India got ruins dug out, around harappa. In 1922, R.D Banerjee along with a biddhist monk found the city of mohenjo daro under a mound. Later, sir john marshall ordered large scale excavations.

b.  The entire area of the harappan civilization is triangular in shape covering an area of about 1,299,600 sq. km, extending from  sutkagendor in balochistan in the west to alamgirpur, in ganga yamuna doab and from manda in jammu in north to bhagatrav in narmada estuary in the north.

c.   Manda, banawali, kalibangan, alamgirpur, lothal rupar and rangpur.

Q3. answer:

a.  Town planning: it is the most remarkable feature of the Harappan civilisation. The indus cities were set up on a grid-pattern, consisting of regular planning with division, alignment of streets, planning of the houses and public building with the provision of thoroughfares.

b.   Special features of the houses: the houses at street corners were rounded to allow carts to pass easily and the house drains emptied all waste water into the street drains.

c.   Common elements:  given on page no. 9 shaded portions.

Q4. answer:

a.  A large number of stone images have been found; out of these the statue of a yogi draped with a shawl is well-known. Bronze statues of  a dancing girl, animals and carts etc. are noteworthy.

b.  Harappans produced their own characteristics pottery which was made glossy and shining. Earthen vessels and pottery crafted on the potter’s wheel, were decorated with black geometrical designs.  The large jars with narrow necks and red pots with black decoration bear evidence of their artistic skill.

c.   The sculpture in metal was done through the special lost wax process. In this process wax figures were covered with a coating of clay. Then the wax was melted by heating and the hollow mould thus created was filled with molten metal which took the original shape of the object.

Q5 answer:

a.  The seal given in the picture is a pashupati seal.

The seals were used for trade in the vast area of indus valley, as these have been found from various spots spread over the civilisation sites. The seals with short inscriptions gave some message which cannot be deciphered yet.

b.  The seals were made of terra-cotta, steatite, agate etc.

c.   The seals reveal the mythical and religious beliefs. The figures carved in the seals depict the worship of mother goddess and Pashupati and various animals, trees etc.

Q6 answer:

a.  The picture is of a great bath.

1.  It has a large rectangular tank in a courtyard surrounded by a corridor on all four sides.

2.  There are two flights of steps one in the north and the other in the south leading into the tank.

b. . same as first a.

C. the citadel: the raised area of each city was called the citadel. It owed its height to the buildings constructed on mud brick platforms. The citadel had the houses of the ruling class and important buildings like the great bath, the granary, the assembly hall and the workshops.

 Chapter 3 jainism and buddhism

Q1 answer

a.  Same as 1 short answer.

b.  Same as 2 short answer.

c.   Jatakas : the jatakas tales written in pali language refer to the previous birth of lord buddha. They also throw light on the political, economic and social conditions ranging from the fifth to second century.

Q2. answer:

a.  Monopoly of the priests, expensive rituals, difficult sanskrit language and rigid caste system universally affected the life and feelings of the common people. Some kings had also realised certain social evils and  so patronised Jainism and Buddhism for a better pattern of life and simple rules for spiritual uplift. Ahimsa and the safety of animals were also prefered by farmers.

b.  Causes for the rise of jainism and buddhism :

1.  Corruption in the religion: in order to extract money, priests encouraged ordinary people to perform yajnas and conduct household rites beyond their means.

2.  Rigid caste system: the division of society becomes rigid. It did not allow any mobility. A person of one caste could not become a member of another society.there were restrictions on the basis of caste.

3.  Difficult language: vedic literature was written in sanskrit which was very difficult to understand and it gave birth to the monopoly of brahmins over religion. They started exploiting other castes.

4.  Political impact: the republics of shakays, vajjis, and mallas embraced buddhism ashoka and kanishka made buddhism their state religion.

 c  . when bhadrabahu took jainism to karnataka; at the same time sthulibhadra in magadh spread jainism with different ideas. So after the first jain council held around 300BC, jainism was divided into two groups or sects.

 Q3. answer:

a.  Mahavira was the twenty fourth and the last of the tirthankaras. He made Jainism popular and systematic. Mahavira was born in kundagram near vaishali in bihar in the 2nd half of the 6th century B.C.

b.  He got absorbed in spiritual pursuits from early childhood. At the age of thirty, after the death of his parents,Mahavira renounced the world and became ascetic. He practised severe penance for 12 years and attained supreme knowledge.

c.   Mahavira conquered all worldly desires and was named as jina, which means the conqueror.

 Q4. answer:

a.  Nine truths:

1.  Punya (results of good deeds).

2.  Pap (sin)

3.  Ashrav (good deeds)

4.  Sanvar (hindrance in the way of karma)

5.  Nirjara (destruction of the karmas)

6.  Moksha (salvation)

7.  Jiva (living things)

8.  Ajiva (non living things)

9.  Bandha (bondage).

b. . doctrines:

1)  triratnas : right faith, right knowledge, right conduct.

2)  Karma: good deeds provide moksha.

3)  Equality: universal brotherhood.

4)  Eternal soul: soul is immortal.

5)  Belief in penance: sacrifice of physical desires,

6)  Salvation: freedom from life and death.

C. causes

1)  Jainism preached rigid austerity.

2)  The religion did not spread to the foriegn countries.

3)  Jainism did not get royal patronage.

4)  Hinduism revived during the Gupta period.

Q5

a.  Gautam buddha was the son of sakya king, suddhodana of kapilvastu. He was born in 563 B.C at lumbini. After studying under renowned teachers of rajgriha, he went to gaya and practised severe penance and at the age of thirty -five he attained enlightenment.

b.  After enlightenment he preached his first sermon at deer park sarnath this incident is known as dharmachakrapravartana.

c.   He established a bodh sangha at magadha. He received the patronage of several rulers of magadha, kosala and kosambi and followed by a large number of followers from all classes of society.

Q6

Answer:

a.  Membership: the members of monastic order required to renounce the world before joining the sangha. The members had to take the oath, they also had to undergo training for 10 years.

b.   1. To speak the truth.

2. Not to harm the creatures.

3. Not to keep money.

 c.   The principles of Buddhism have a deep effect on social life. Which gave impetus to weaker sections of the society to fight for their rights and survival. The social-religious reform movements were the plus points and the solid political ground.

Q7 answer:

a.  1) Gautam buddha founded Buddhism. 2) Mahavira founded the jainism.

b.  Main teachings

1.  Ahimsa i.e non violence.

2.  Asateya i.e not stealing.

3.  Satya i.e not telling a lie.

4.  Apargriha i.e not possessing property.

5.  Brahamcharya i.e practising chastity.

Four noble truths:

1.  The world is full of suffering.

2.  The suffering has a cause.

3.  Desire is the cause of suffering

4.  If desire is stopped, suffering can also be stopped.

C. similarities:

1.  Both did not accept the vedas.

2.  Non-violence was their creed.

Dissimilarities:

1.  Buddhism followed a middle path but Jainism believed in hard penance.

2.  It is silent about the existence of god whereas jainism denies the existence of god.

 

GEOGRAPHY

STD  IX  CHAPTER 5

LANDFORM OF THE EARTH

Ans 1 Plains are comparatively flat and a level surface of land with least

 in its highest and lowest points

 Ans 2The process of mountain building that occurs on large scale. Literally, the birth of mountain.

Ans 3 The different types of mountains are fold mountain, block mountain and volcanic mountain.

Fold mountain- These mountains have been formed due to the sedimentary deposits and large scale earth movements caused by tectonic force . e.g. Himalayas,   Alps, Andes etc.

Block mountain – These mountain have been formed due to faulting in the ground surface. E.g. Vosges and black forest Mt.

Volcanic mountain- These mountain have been formed by the accumulation of lava around the crater which is thrown out during a volcanic eruption.e.g.fujiyama and Mauna loo.

Ans 4 An extensive almost flat topped region is called plateau.

Ans 5 The various typed of plateaus are:

[1] Intermundane plateau eg Columbia plateau in north America.

[2] Piedmont plateau eg Patagonian plateau in south America.

[3] Volcanic plateau eg Deccan plateau in India.

Ans 6 Advantages of plains are :

1-    They are extensive area of lowland.

2-    Many of them are smooth or have a gentle undulating surface.

Ans 7 Following are the types of depositional plains.

1 Alluvial plains These are formed by the depositional work of rivers and are divided into three categories.

a-piedmont alluvial plains-These are formed at the foothill of the mountains, due to the deposition of the material like cobbles, pebbles, boulders

B-Flood plains- A low lying area near a stream.

C – Delta plains-These are formed at the mouth of a river in the lower valley

2-Loess plains- These are formed by the depositional work of wind.

3-Glacial depositional plains-these plains are formed by the depositional work of glaciers

Ans 8 The main uses of mountains are ­–

1-They are the storehouse of minerals like coal, iron ore, gold etc.

2-They are the source of rivers.

3-They are important for their natural vegetation.

4 They are a natural barrier and also form an important political boundary

5 They have a great impact on the climate.

Ans 9-The difference between intermundane plateau and volcanic plateau;

INTERMONTAIN PLATEAU are surround by mountain. Their surface show an variety of topographic features for eg. Plateau of Tibet and Mexican plateau.

VOLCANIC PLATEAUS are formed by lava flow from volcanic eruption for eg. The plateau of peninsular India.

Ans 10 Plains are flat and level surface of land with least difference in its highest and lowest point .They are extensive area of low land.

AND Plateau is an extensive flat topped region.

Ans 11 A mass of very high rock rising to great height above the surrounding areas is called mountains.

Ans 12 CHARACTERISTICS OF YOUNG FOLG MOUNTAIN:

[1] These have been formed in the most recent phase OF Mountain building.

[2] They have rugged relief feature.

Ans 13 The mountains of young fold type are characterized by ruggedness of relief and rounded contours of mountain areas which have been subjected to weathering agents for long period of time.eg. the alps and the Scottish highlands.

Ans 14 Alluvial plains are formed by the depositional work of river.

Ans 15: [1] Fold mountains eg Himalayas.

[2] Block mountains eg African rift valley.

[3] Volcanic plateau eg Deccan plateau.

[4] Structural plain eg. The great plain of USA.

[B] DEFINE THE FOLLOWING :

[1] same as ans 9

[2] Block mountain- see ans 3.

[C] DIAGRAMS:

[1] FIG 5.5

[2]FIG 5.11

 Class-9 Geography Ch-2 Latitudes and Longitudes Ex-A

Answers the following:-

1]We need to locate places on earth because earth is a huge planet & to know it properly
we need to locate place.

2]The latitude of a place is the angular distance of that place north or south of the
equator,as measured from the centre of the earth.

3]Pg.-30 from technical terms.

4]Because there is no land mass beyond 90° north & 90° south.

5]These lines are called meridians,meaning "mid-day" as all the places on the same
meridians have their noon at the same time.

6]pg-29,content analysis 4th point

7]phg-29-30,content analysis 6th point

8]The distance between each latitude,is approximately 111KM,as earth represent 360°
and the circumference of te earth is approximately 40000KM. THUS,40000/360°Pg-30
content b=111KM

9]The north temperate lies between 23 1/2° N to 66 1/2° N and south temperate
zone 23 1/2° S to 66 1/2°.stretch from torrid zone to frigid zone

10]Because torrid zone receives direct rays of the sun.

11]Because of inclination of earth's axis and recieve very slant rays of the sun.

12]Local time of a place is that time when sun is overhead to meridian.It is fixed by
the apparent movement of the sun.

13] YES

14] 1°=4min
30°=4x30=120min or 2hrs
12noon +2hrs=14hrs or 2pm

15]If each city werre to keep the time of its own meridian,there would be much diffrence
in local time betweeen one city and another.Therefore, a system ofr standard time is
observed by all countries

16]Pg-30 from technical terms.We have 24 time zones.

17]Because singapore lies in the torrid zone and london lies in the temperate zone.

18]pg-30 content analysis g point.international date line is a line concerned with
the dates of the calender and adopted international.

19]Due to its large east west extent.

20]Except the equator,other parallels of latitudes are known small circle.

21]Because these latitudes do not divide the earth into two equal half.

22]If each town,village anf city in the world had kept its on time it would have cause
utter confusion,as the clocks and watches would have to be constantly altered as one
travelled from one place to another.

23]Pg-30 from technical terms.

24]Earthosthens.

25]Important climatic zones of the world are- The Torrid or Tropical zone,Temperate zone
and Frigid zone.

26]The earth takes 24 hrs to run throw 360 degrees.The sun appears to moves at the rate
of 15° in 1hr or 360°in 24hrs or 1°in 4 minutes.

27]The intrection of latitude and longitude at right angle is the extact position of a
place on the earth's surface.latitude give us the location of any place in northen
and southern hemisphere while longitude help us locate the place in eastern or
western hemisphere.with the help of these intersecting line we can locate the
position of any place on the globe or map.

28]
1-Latitude
2-Longitude
3-40°North

29]
A-Local Time-Local time of a place is that time when sun is overhead to the meridian.
it is fixed by the appearent movement of the sun.

Standard Time-Most country adopt their standard from the local time of their central
meridian.for eg-India follows the local time of its central meridian 82 1/2° East
which passes throw Allahabad.

B-Parallel run from east to west and never intersect with each other whereas
meridians run from north to south and intersect at north and south poles.

C-Equator separates the Northern and Southern hemispheres.The equator is at 0°latitude.
the prime meridian separates the Eastern nad Western hemispheres.The prime meridian
run through Greenwich,England and is at 0°Longitude.

ex-B,Define the terms:-
1,2,3,4 from technical terms pg-30
5,6 same ans 29a

7-In india the longitude 82 1/2° East is selected as standard meridian,which passes
which passes through Allahabad.since its local time is taken as standard Time,the
whole country follows it,it is called indian standard time.

8-pg-30 content analysis F point
9-same ans 18

10-The 0°Latitude is known as great circle.It divides the earth into two equal halves

11-same ans 20

12-Same ans 23

Ex-c
Distinguish between the following:-
1-pg-29 table 2.1

2-from ex-b 10 and 11 define

3-from ex-b 8 & 7 define

EX-D
Give reasons:-
1-Because latituides are angular distance of a place north and south to the equator and
longitude are the angular distance of a place east and west to the prime meridian.

2-Due to large east-west extent.

3-To avoid cutting through the continent.

4-Because the places east of greenwich see the sun earlier and gain time or Because sun
rise in the east and set in the west.

5-Because latitudes are parallel to each other.

6-Because mumbai lies in the east of prime meridian and london lies in the prime
meridian.

7-The difference between the indian standard time and the greenwich is 82 1/2°,i.e.,
5 1/2 hrs.0° to 82 1/2°east =82 1/2°X 4=330 minutes or 5 1/2 hrs.

Ex-E

1-pg-21 fig.2.7
2-pg-23 fig.2.10
3-pg-20 fig.2.3

Dear students some questions are not given in new book. Here we are adding few questions to cover inside portion.

Class 9th history and civics harappan civilisation

I. Short answer questions:

QUESTION1. what is meant by the term civilisation?

Answer:

Civilisation is defined as an advanced stage of human cultural development it ipmlies the use of superior technology and complex economic relationships. Following are the traits which mark a civilisation:

1. Surplus food

2. Division of labour

3. System of writing

4. Development of technology

Question2. mention any three features that led to the emergence of civilisation

Answer:

1. The ruins of the sites reveal that the harappan people were primarily urban and their cities were designed skillfully.

2. The unique features of the city was its elaborate drainage system. A brick-lined drainage channel flowed alongside every street.

3. The great bath was also unearthed. The pool was filled with water taken from a well nearby. The walls of the pool were made.

QUESTION3.

What are known as bronze age civilisation?

Answer:

Man learnt the art of mixing copper with tin of zinc to produce the alloy called bronze. Bronze is hard and more ductile than copper and is therefore, more suitable for the mannufacture of tool and weapons. Because of the importance of bronze in the growth of the civilisations, these civilisations are known as the bronze age civilisation.

QUESTION4

Name the important sources of information on the harappan civilisation

Answer:

The archeaological remains

Seals, sculptures

QUESTION5.

Why did ancient man start using bronze for making tools and weapons

Answer:

Ancient man start using bronze for making tools ans weapons because bronze is harder and more ductile than copper. Therefore, it is more suitable for the manufacture of tools and weapons.

QUESTION6.

Why is harappan civilisation called so?

Answer:

The harappan civilisation is called so because the harappan site was the first to be discovered in 1921 at the modern site of harappa situated in the province of west punjab in pakistan.

QUESTION7.

What types of weights and measures did the indus people use?

Answer:

The indus people used sets of cubical stone weights. The basic unit was 16(equalto mmodern 14 grams). the larger weights were multiples of 16 like 32,48,64,128 and so on. The smaller ones were all fractions of 16.

QUESTION8.

Name one important public building of indus valley civilisation and its importance.

Answer:

The great bath is one of the largest public buildings at mohen-jo-daro. It was used by a large group of people while performing some religious rituals.

QUESTION9.

Name the process by which sculpture in metal was done

Answer:

It was known as lost wax process.

QUESTION10.

QUESTIONwhat do you know about the indus script?

Answer:

Indus scripts has not been deciphered as yet. So the only source of script are some seals and copper tablet. Seals display some sort of pictorial writing. Besides this similar inscriptions have been found engraved on copper tablets with figures of men and animals.

QUESTION11.

Mention the types of dress worn by the indus valley people.

Answer:

Most people used cotton clothes. Rich people also used woollen clothes in winter. The women’s dress included skirts, cloaks and scarfs and the men’s dress was dhoti and shawl. Spinning wheels and needles of that time prove the art of spinning was practiced by the people.

QUESTION12

State two features of the trade in the indus valley civilisation.

Answer:

1. the harappan carried on considerable trade in stone, metal, shell etc.

2. They however, did not use metal money but carried on all exchange through barter system

Question13.

Name three animals depicted on pashupati seal

Answer:

Seals of pashupati shows a three faced deity wearing a buffalo-horned head dress, seated cross legged on a throne and surrounded by an elephant, a tiger, a buffalo and a rhinoceros, with two deer at his feet.

QUESTION14.

State any two causes that led to the decline of the harappan civilisation

Answer:

1. Floods and earthquake: it is held by some scholars that floods in mohenjo-daro led to the abandonment.

2. Attack: some historians believed that the invading aryans destroyed the indus valley civilisation.

QUESTION15.

In what two respects is harappan civilisation our greatest heritage?

Answer:

The harappan civilisation present a basic ground of indispensible heritage which imparts a soild imprint on the latter civilisation e.g the way of making baked pottery, bricks, beads jwellery etc the cultivation of cotton was adopted by the egyptians after several centuries.

QUESTION16.

Give two characteristic features of the citadel

Answer:

It owed its height to the building constructed on mud brick platforms. The citadel had the houses of ruling class and important building like the great bath, the grannary, the assembly hall and the workshops.

QUESTION17.

How were seals used? What information do they give about harappan trade?

Answer:

The seals were used by traders to stamp their goods. After a bag with goods was tied, a layer of wer clay was applied on the knot, and the seal was passed on it. These seals were found in different regions. This indiacates that the harappan trade had spread over a vast area.

QUESTION18

Briefly describe granaries at harappa.

Answer:

In harappa there were two rows of six granaries each. To the south of the granaries at harappa working floors consisting of rows of circula brick platforms were discovered. It is believed that these floors were meant for threshing grain because wheat and barley were found in the crevices of the floors.

QUESTION19.

Breifly describe the ornaments.

Answer:

Ornaments were worn by both men and women. Some of the common ornaments were necklaces, finger -rings, bangles, armlets, anklets, nose rings, fan shaped gead dress and earings. They were made gold, silver, precious stones and ivory.

Question20.

Breifly describe the dancing girl.

Answer.

The bronze statue of a dancing girl, found at mohen jo daro, is a masterpiece of art and it shows a high degree of development in art of sculpture. The figurine shows vigour, variety and ingenuity. The right arm of the dancing girl rests on the hip and the left arm in heavily bangled. It holds a small bowl against her left leg.

QUESTION21.

Mention the evidences which suggest that the harappan peoplehad trdae relations with other counteries.

Answer ;

1. The mesopotamian records from about 2350 BC refer to trade relations with meluha(name given to indians)

2. objects of sumerian origin found at the ruins of the indus cities indicate that their trade relations between these countries were actively practised into.

3. The seal bearing a mastless ship holds the evidence of popularity of the sea routs

 

NOTE: these include some internal part also.

 Chapter 2. vedic period

QUESTION1 name the categories of vedic literature. Why was early vedic literature is known as shruti?

Answer:

Vedic literature is divided into two categories:

1. Early vedic literature( Shruti)

2. Later vedic literature (samriti)

It is believed that four vedas and its parts( the brahmanas, the Aranyakas, the upnishads) are given by god to sages by hearing(shruti means which is heard) and so it is called Shruti.

QUESTION2.

Name the four vedas and state what the hymns in each veda deal with?

Answer:

Four vedas:

1. The Rig veda.

2. The sama veda

3. The Yajur veda

4. The Atharva veda

1.The hymns of rig veda dedicated by the sages to the gods. It contains the famous gayatri mantra.

2. the hymns of sama veda sung at the time of the sacrifice by the priests

3. the hymns of Yajur veda deals with rituals perfomed at the time of Yajnas.

5. the hymns of Atharva veda deals with the power of ghosts, spirits, gyan, karma and upasna.

QUESTION3.

What are upnishads?

Answer

The Upnishads are philoshophical commentaries on the vedas. These form the basic source of indian philoshophy. They are said to form the foundation on which later additions to vedic literature rest.

QUESTION4

What are dharmashatras?

Answer

The law- books called the dharmashatrasand the samritis together with their commentaries are called dharmshastras.

Question5

What is known as bhagwad gita?
Answer:

Bhagwad gita is the compilation of the text, teachings imparted by lord krishnato arjun explaining the importance of Karma or duty, immortal soul, the right way of life. It also includes the glimpse of mahabharat battle. It is a sacred book of hindus.

QUESTION6.

Mention the importance of the Epics as a source of information about the aryans.

Answer.

1. these inform about the political, social and cultural organisation of the epic age.

2. these provide information about aryan kingdom.

3. These reveal the high ideals of family life of the aryans.

QUESTION7

Which battle is known as the mahabharata

Answer: the battle between kurus and pandavas along the battlefield of kurukshetra is known as the mahabharats.

Questiion 8

Give two features of painted grey ware.

Answer:

The PGW is a very fine, smooth and even-coloured pottery. It was made out of well worked, high quality clay with geometric patterns painted on it in black colour. Floral pattern and sun symbols are seen in some cases. The pottery include open mouthed bowls and dishes.

QUESTION9

How did trade become a pivot(central point) around which the life of the people revolved?

Answer:

During the later vedic age, trade became quite prominent; so the settlement or the towns and cities developed around the main trade centres. Thus, the city life moved according to the activities associated with the trade.

QUESTION10

What was the role of iron?

Answer

Iron played a significant role in the lives of peasants as the use iron became popular for making agricultural tools. Iron ploughshares and metal tools were used and a variety of crops cultivated.

QUESTION11.

State the difference in the position of women between the early vedic age and later vedic age.

Answer:

During the early vedic period wome were respected. The institution of marriage had become sacred.

The daughters were given freedom to choose their husbands.

In the later vedic age, there was significant decline in the status of women. Their participation in yajnas was not considered necessary. They did not enjoy the right to property. Man’s opinion were respected. As a result the freedom to choose the husbands by women was curtailed.

QUESTION12

What are varnas? Name them

Answer;

Varna was a division on the basis of skin colour. In vedic age it became popular as the society was divided into four varnas. Brahmins, Kshatriya, vaishayas and shudras.

QUESTION13.

Name the four ashrams into which the human life span was divided, indicating the time span for each

Answer:

The four ashramas are Brahmacharaya, Grihastha, Vanaprasthas and sanyasa

1. Brahmacharya ashrama: it lasted upto the age of 25 years. During this period, the pupil was expected to acquire knowledge in the gurukul and observe strict discipline.

2. Grihastha ashrama: during this peiod, man was supposed to marry and raise a family. This perios lasted from the age of 25-50 years.

3. Vanaparastha ashrama: it lasted from the age of 50-75 years. This period man was expected to retire from worldly life and acquire and philosophical knowledge.

4. Sanyasa ashrams: the last stage lasts from the age of 75 to 100 years this period of renunciation

QUESTION14.

State the change that occured in the position of brahmins in the later vedic age?

Answer:

In the later vedic age brahmins or the priests performed religious rituals. The caste system become rigid. The priests came to be considered as gods on earth.

QUESTION15.

State three important changes that took place in the society in the process of its transition from early vedic period to the later vedic period.

Answer:

Three changes:

1. Single family converted to joint family.

2. Equal rights enjoyed by women changed to declination in status of women.

3. General caste system converted to rigid caste system.

Question16

Difference between the economy of early vedic age and later vedic age.

Answer

Early vedic age:

In the beginning the main occupation was domestication of animals and agriculture was secondary.

Cattle was the important source of wealth.

Many engaged in trade and commerce. Dyeing, embroidery;carpentry, weaving, pottery, crafts in gold and iron were important occupations.

Later vedic age:

Agriculture became the chief accupation while domestication of animals also continued.

Land was the important source of wealth.

Traders guilds had come up and trade had become very important. Besides occupation of earlier period, many new occupations like physicians, musicians, and many other profession emerged.

 Note : these questions will include an inside portion.

Class 9th subject history and civics

Chapter 1 of civics

Question 1:

What is meant by the term constitution

Answer:

The Constitution is a comprehensive document containing the set of rules according to which the government of a country runs. It regulates the position and powers of three organs of the government- the legislative, the executive and judiciary.

Question 2:

On the basis of which plan was the constituent assembly constituted?

Answer:

Cabinet mission plan.

Question 3

What is objective resolution?

Answer:

Objective resolution  was proposed by pt. Jawahar lal nehru on december 13, 1946 for highlighting the national goals.

Question 4;

By whom was the objective resolution proposed?

Answer:

It was proposed by the Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Question 5:

Who was appointed as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution?

Answer

Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar was appointed as the chairman of the Drafting committee.

Question 6:

When was the constitution adopted and passed? When did it come into force?

Answer

  1. Adopted and passed: 26 November 1949.
  2. Come into force: 26 January 1950.

Question 7:

State the significance of January 26.

Answer :

It was on this date, January 26, in 1929, that the lahore session of the indian national congress had for the first time given the call for purna swaraj. Since then, the day was celebrated as independence day upto 1947, but later on, it was designated as the republic day.

Question 8:

What is the preamble?

Answer :

The Preamble is the introductory part of the constitution, which sets out the main objectives of the constitution.

Question 9;

Explain the significance of the term sovereign.

Answer:

It means that India is its own supreme power and not a subject of any other state or country.

Question 10.

Mention any two features indicating the significance of the preamble.

Answer:

1.The preamble represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the entire constitution of india.

2. It contains the five basic features of the constitution ie. sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and republic.

Question 11.

Who represented the anglo indians in the constituent assembly /

Answer

Mr. frank anthony and S.H prater

Question 12.

Why is our constitution known as the fundamental law of the land?

Answer

Being superior to the ordinary law of the state, the constitution of India is known as the fundamental law of land.

Structured questions

Question 1

With the reference to the making of indian constitution explain the following

Part a.

When and how……...elected?

Answer 1.

The first sitting of the assembly was held on december 9, 1946

The cabinet mission plan arrived in India in 1946 and put forward a set of proposals to meet the demands of freedom fighters. One of these proposals involved setting up of a constituent assembly whose members were to be elected indirectly by the provincial legislative

assemblies.

Part b.
How was the membership……..partition of the country?
Answer

The muslim league boycotted the constituent assembly consequently the members representing the territories went  to pakistan withdrew from the cosntituent assembly of india. As a result, the membership of the constituent assembly of india stood at 299n against the original number of 385.

Part. c how can you say that constituent …………….of the indian society.

Answer:

The wide ranging membership of the constituent assembly gave representation to all shades of public opinion.it was composed of members from all the categories and communities belonging to india.

Question 2

With the reference to objective resolution

Part a.

Same as the 4th answer. Indian idependence act 1947 gave legal sanctity to the constituent assembly.

Part b

Main points

Answer1.

  1. India will be a republic.
  2. The ideals of social, political and economic democracy would be guaranteed to all the people.
  3. The republic would grant fundamental rights to citizens.
  4. The state would safeguard the rights of backward and minorities.

Part c.

Three principles

Answer:

  1. Making indian constitution workable, flexible and strong enough to hold the country together both in peace and in war.
  2. Providing special safeguard to the minorities.
  3. Incorporating the right to constitutional remedies.

Note: these questions cover the inside portion also.

9th Class Chapter 3rd Jainism and Buddhism

Question 1 angas and subject matter

Answer

Jain scriptures are popularly known as agamas i.e what comes out from the mouth of the lord. The teaching of lord mahavira compiled by his disciples in 12 parts called angas. These deal with code of conduct for jain monk, and also expound the jain doctrines in a comprehensive manner.

Question 2.

Triptikas…?

Answer:

The triptikas are the most important literary works of the buddhists. The word triptikas means three baskets of buddhists canon.

name :

3.     The vinaya pitaka.

4.     The suta pitaka.

5.     The abhidhamma pitaka.

Question 3. Causes … rise.

Answer:

5.     The rigid caste system.

6.     Monopoly of priest for expensive rituals.

7.     Difficulty of the common people to understand Sanskrit language.

8.     Role of kshatriya princes.

Question 4.

 Who was………. His name?

Answer:

Vardhaman Mahavira was the 24th and the last of the tirthankaras.

His father held a prosperous kingdom at his birth time, so he was called vardhamana which meant prosperity.

Question 5.

Five vows….

Answer.

4.     Ahimsa - non violence.

5.     Asateya - not to steal.

6.     Satya - not to tell a lie.

7.     Aparigraha - not to possess propoerty.

8.     Brahamcharya- to practise chastity.

Question 6.

Tri ratnas.

Answer: according to mahavira, there were three ways to attain moksha, known as tri ratnas ie.

1.     Right faith.

2.     Right knowledge

3.     Right conduct.

Question 7.

Causes…. Jainism.

answer:

1.     The use of simple dialect that is prakrit for preaching.

2.     The solid patronage by great kings.

Question 8

Two sects…..

Answer:

The two sects of jainism were as follows:

1.     Shvetambaras.

2.     digambaras.

Question 9

Gautam buddha… born?

Answer:

Gautam buddha was the founder of buddhism. He belonged to the kashatriya clan of sakya. He was born in 563 BC at lumbini near kapilavastu.

Question 10.

What are ……...sights?

Answer:

1.     An old man bent with age

2.     A sick man groaning with pain.

3.     A dead body of man being carried .

4.     An ascetic in search of salvation.

Question 11.

When and ……….. Enlightenment?

Answer:

After leaving home in search of truth, gautama wandered from place to place. Afterwards he studied under renowned teachers of rajgriha and at last he went to gaya and practised severe penance and life of austerity and finally at the age of thirty five was enlightened sitting under a peepal tree that place is known as bodh  gaya in bihar.

Question 12.

Noble truths ….

Answer:

1.     The world is full of suffering.

2.     The suffering has a cause.

3.     Desire is the cause of suffering

4.     If desire is stopped, suffering can also be stopped.

 

Question 13.

Four points……….buddha.

Answer:

1.     Right action

2.     Right thought

3.     Right belief

4.     Right living.

Question 14

Meaning ...name

Answer:
Buddha: gautama after attaining knowledge came to be known as buddha means the enlightened one.

Tathagat: buddha is also called tathagat means the founder of the truth.

Question 15.

Two principles……..sangha.

Answer:

1.     To speak the truth.

2.     To abide by brahmacharya.

 

Question 16.

Features of buddhism…

Answer:

1.     Buddha inspired the people to lead a simple life.

2.     He used simple language.

3.     Easy to follow no complex rituals.

Question 17.

difference …. Hinyana and mahayana.

Answer:

 

Hinyana

mahayana

 

Buddha was regarded as human being who attained enlightenment through own efforts

Buddha was regarded as the incarnation of god and provider of salvation

It shuns idol- worship, buddha was not believed as god

The image of buddha was worshipped

 

 Question 18.

Give ….causes of ….

Answer:

1.     Division of Buddhism into two sects.

2.     Corruption in sungha.

3.     Monks and nuns started living worldly lives.

  

  Class 9 Geography  

                                    CHAPTER-ROCK STRUCTURE [4]

Ans 1:Lithosphere is the solid crust of rocks on the surface of the earth on which we live.

Ans 2: The continental layer and oceanic layer are the two layers of the lithosphere.

Ans 3: Mantle lies below the crust. Its exact position is between the lithosphere and the core of the earth.This layer is also known as Mesosphere.

Ans 4: Mantle is the second layer of the earth between the crust and the core with its upper boundary marked by Mohorovicic Discountinuity and its lower boundary marked by the Gutenburg Discountinuity.

Ans 5:Core is the central part of earth below a depth of 2900 km. It is also known as Barysphere.

Ans 6: Sial layer is composed of silica [Si] and aluminium [Al]. Therefore it is known as the layer of sial.

Ans 7: PROPERTIES OF CORE OF THE EARTH:

[1]Core the inner most layer of the earth.

[2] It is composed mainly of iron and nickel.

[3]It is the thickest part of the earth and divided into two parts outer core and inner core.

Ans 8 earth is composed of three parts crust , mental and core.

Ans 9 Core is composed of iron and nickel and is called nife.

Ans 10 The temperature increase as we go down due to the gas and pressure present inside the surface of the earth.

Ans 11 The difference between sial and sima.

SIAL [1]Upper most layer of the earth crust.

[2]Its thickness is nearly 20km.

[3]It is composed of silica and aluminium.

SIMA [1]Lower part of the crust.

[2]Its average thickness is about 25 to 30 km.

[3] It is composed of silica and magnesium.

Ans 12 : The two most important and abundant chemical elements present in the earth crust are oxygen 46% and silicon 28%.

Ans 13 : The contacts zone of the crust and mantle is called Mohorovicic Discontinuity.

Ans 14 : Mantle is composed of magnesium and iron silicates along with substantial quantities of sulphites in the upper mantle and nickel and iron in the lower mantle.

Q-DEFINES THE FOLLOWING TERMS:-

[1] Crust-Earths outer shell of crystalline surface rock, ranging from 5-60 km in thickness from oceanic crust to mountain ranges.

[2] Mantle- It is a layer of silicate rock between the crust and the outer core.

[3] Core- The central part of the earth below a depth of 2900 km .

[4] Nife- Core is composed of iron and nickel and is called nife.

CHAPTER- 3
Rotation and Revalution


Ans no.1= The earth is tilted on Its axis. This tilting of the earth on its axis is know as the inclination of the earth axis .

Ans no.2= Coriolis Force.

Ans no.3 = .The rotation of the Earth from west to east determines the direction in which the sun moon and stars appear to rise and set.
.Another proof of rotation of earh is that if one drops a stone from top of a multistorey building it will fall slightly towards the east.

Ans no.4 = Centrifugal force causes slight flattening of the earth at two polls .

Ans no.5 = The spinning of the earth on its polar axis is termed as rotation.
. Effect of Rotation
. The daily occurrences of the day and night.
. The apparent movement of the celestial bodies.

Ans no.6 = Meaning of the term solstice and Equinoxes
solstice : An event occurring when the sun appears to reach its most northerly or southerly excursion relative to the celestial equator on the celestial sphere.
. Equinoxes : The time when the sun crosses the plane of the earths equator makng night and day of equal length all over the earth.

Ans no .7 = Rotation causes the formation of day and night . [Diagram on page no. 33 figure 3.2].

Ans no . 8 = Summer solstice on june 21, winter sostice on december 22 After the spring equinox the sun appears to move north and is directly overhead tropic of cancer on june 21 this is term as summer solstice
. On dec 22 the sun shines overhead on tropic of capricorn in southern hemisphere. The northern hemisphere has its winter solstices .

Ans no .9 = Dec 22 is the longest day in the southern  hemisphere .


Ans no. 10 = June 21 is the longest day in the northern hemisphere.

Ans no. 11 = Orbit is the path along which the earth travels when moving around the sun in 365 ¼ days.

Ans no. 12 = The arctic circle experience mid night sun on june 21.

Ans no. 13 = Earth compete one circle around the sun 365 ¼ days. Every four years the extra one-fourth day is taken as one whole day.

Ans no. 14 = Days and nights of equal duration on the equator on 21 march and 23 september.  

Ans no . 15 = If axix was perpendicular to the place of ecliptic, every place on the earth surface  would have had 12hrs of day and 12hrs of night and there would have been no seasons. [Draw figure no 3.5]

Ans no. 16 =  The period of rotation or the time required for the earth to turn through 360 degree is 23hrs , 56minutes ,4.09sec . This period is termed as sidereal day.

Ans no. 17 = The earth is said to be in perihelion on January 3rd when distance least or about 147million km

Ans no.18= The speed of earth revolution varies according to the path of the orbit occupied .The velocity is greatest at perihelion and least at aphelion

Ans no. 19= The effect of speed of earth rotation are-

.The daily occurrences ofday and night.

.The apparent movement of the celestial bodies

Ans no.20= The two features of summer solstice are –

.The duration of day is longer than night.

.The length of day increases with increasing latitude north of the equator.

Ans no .21= The two motions of the earth are rotation and revolution

Ans no.22= The path along which the earth travel when moving round the sun.

Ans no. 23= The earth rotates on an imaginary line called axis but it is not at right angle to the plane of revolution it make an of 66 1/2degree with the plane of ecliptic andis tilted 23 1/2degree from a line perpendicular to that palne.

Ans no.24= SAME AS ANSWER NO 3.

Ans no.25=The time when the sun crosses the plane of the earth equator making night and day of equal length all over the earth.It occurs on march 21 and September 23.

Class 9  Physics chapter 3 ( A to E)  Law's of Motion

 Exercise 3 (A)

EQ1. Explain giving two examples each of:(a) contact force and (b) non contact forces.

1.Frictional force:when a book placed on the table top is pushed to the right, the force of friction acts on the book towards left. This force comes into play as soon as book tends to move and resists the motion of book on the table.

2.Normal reaction force:when you hold a block on your palm, the block exerts a force due to it's weight downwards on your palm and  you have to exert a reaction force upward on the block normal to the palm to keep the block in position.

Non contact forces:(1) if a body is thrown up in air, it goes up, reaches to a height and then returns to ground.

(2) A coin falls down when it is released at a height.

Q2give one example in each case where:(1) force is of contact

Ans force of friction.

(2) force is at a distance

Ans:gravitational force.

Q3state the effects of a force applied on rigid and non rigid body. How does the effects of force differ in two cases.

Ans A force when applied on a rigid bodydoes not change the dimension of the body but cause motion in it. On the other hand when force is applied on a non rigid body causes a change in its dimension and can also produce motion in it.

Q4Give one example in each case where a force:(1) stops a moving body.

AnsAfielder on the ground stops a moving ball by applying force with his hands.

(2) moves a stationary body.

AnsThe push exerted by a broom move the trash.

(3) changes the size of a body.

AnsBy loading a spring hanging from a rigid support, the length of spring increases.

(4) changes the shape of a body.

Ans On pressing a piece of rubber, it's shape change

      Exercise 3 (B)

1.    A What is the Galileo's law of inertia?

Ans:- According to Galileo's law of inertia- a body continues to be in the state of rest or in the state

      of uniform motion unless an external force is applied on it.

2.    State the Newton's first law of motion.

Ans:- Newton's first law of motion states that "A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion

      will continue in motion in a straight line with uniform speed,unless it is compelled by an external

      force to change its state of rest or of uniform motion."

3.    State and explain the law of inertia (or Newton's first law of motion).

Ans:- Law of inertia."Is the property of a body due to which it resists a change in its state of

      rest or of uniform motion.

4.    What is meant by the term inertia?

Ans:- Inertia is the property of a body due to which it cannot change its state (rest or of uniform motion)

      Itself, untill some external force is applied on it.

5.    Give qualitative definition of force on the basis of Newton's first law of motion.

Ans:- Force is that external cause which tends to change the state of rest or the state of motion of an object

6.    Give two examples to show that greater the mass,greater is the inertia of the body.

Ans:- (1)It is difficult to  set a loaded trolley (which has more mass)in motion than an unloaded trolley

      (which has less mass).

      (2) A cricket ball is more massive than a tennis ball.In case when they are moving with the same

      velocity,it is more difficult to stop the cricket ball (which has more mass)in comparision to the

      tennis ball (which has less mass).

7.    'More the mass,the more difficult it is to move the body from rest'. Explain this statement by giving

       an example.

Ans:- A truck has more mass than a car.More force is required to move or start a truck than a car.

8.    Name the two kinds of inertia.

Ans:- The two kinds of inertia are:-

      (1)  Inertia of rest.

      (ii) Inertia of motion.

9.    Give one example of each of the following (a) inertia of rest and (b) inertia of motion.

Ans:- (A) When a hanging carpet is beaten with a stick, the dust particles start falling out of it due to inertia

      of rest and that part of the carpet moves ahead.

      (B) An athlete often runs before taking a long jump.The reason is that by running he brings his entire

      body in the state of motion.When the body is in motion,it becomes easier to take a long jump.

10.   Why does a person fall when he jumps out from a moving train?

Ans:- This is so because inside the train,his whole body was in a state of motion with the train.On jumping

      out of the moving train, as soon as his feet touch the ground,the lower part of his body comes to rest,

      while the upper part still remains in motion due to inertia of motion.As a result,he falls in the

      direction of motion of the train and gets hurt.

11.   Why does a coin placed on a card, drop into the tumbler when the card is rapidly

      flicked with the finger?

Ans:- The reason is that when the card is flicked a momentary force acts on the card,so it moves away.

      But the coin kept on it does not share the motion at once ant it remains at its place due to inertia

      of rest.The coin then falls down into the tumbler due to the pull of gravity.

12.   Why does a ball thrown vertically upwards in a moving train,come back to the thrower's hand?

Ans:- A ball thrown vertically upwards in a moving train,come back to the thrower's hand because at the

      moment the ball was thrown,it was in motion along with the person and the train.During the time,the

      ball remains in air,both the person and the ball move ahead through the same distance.This makes

      the ball to come back to the thrower's

13.   Explain the following:-

(a)   When a train suddenly moves forward,the passenger standing in the compartment tends to fall backwards.

Ans:- When the train is at rest, passengers standing in the compartment are also at rest.When train suddenly

      moves forward, the passenger tends to fall backward as upper part of his body continues to be in state

      of rest due to moment of inertia while lower part of his body comes in motion.

13.(B)When a corridor train suddenly starts,the sliding doors of some compartments may open.

Ans:- Due to inertia of rest,the sliding door of compartment opens or closes when train suddenly starts and

      due to inertia of motion,the sliding door of the compartment opens or closes when train suddenly stops.

13.(C)People often shake branches of a tree for getting down its fruits.

Ans:- The reason is that when the branches of the tree are shaken,they come in motion,while the fruits due

      to inertia,remain in the state of rest.Thus,the massive and weakly attached fruits fall down due to the

      pull of gravity.

                             

  Exercise-3 (C)

 

1.    Name the two factors on which the force needed to stop a moving body in a given time,depends.

Ans:- The force needed to stop a moving body in a given time depends both on the mass of the body

      and its velocity.

2.    Define linear momentum and state its S.I.unit.

Ans:- Linear momentum of a body is the product of its mass and velocity.

      p=mv

      Its S.I.unit kgms-1.

3.    Show that the rate of change of momentum =massx acceleration. Under what condition does th

      relation hold?

Ans:- Let a force F be applied on a body of mass m for time t due to which its velocity changes

      from u to v.Then

      Initial momentum of the body = mu

      Final momentum of the body =mv

      Change in momentum of the body in t second = mv-mu = m(v-u)

      Rate of change of momentum =m(v-u)/t

                                 =m a

      Rate of change of momentum = mass x acceleration

      This relation holds true when mass of the body remains constant.

4.    State Newton's second law of motion.What information do you get from it?

Ans:- According to Newton's second law of motion,the rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional

      to the force applied on it and the change in momentum takes place in the direction in which the force is applied.    

      We get information that the rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the force applied

      on it .

5.    How does Newton's second law of motion differ from first law of motion?

Ans:- Newton's second law of motion gives us a quantitative definition of force whereas the first law gives us a

      qualitative definition of force.

6.    Write the mathematical form of Newton's second law of motion.State condition if any.

Ans:- The mathematical form of Newton's second law of motion is F=mxa

                                                            force= massx acceleration

      Condition: Mass remains constant.

7.    How can Newton's first law of motion be obtained from the second law of motion?

Ans:- From Newton's second law,F=m a

      If F=0 then a =0

      This means that if no force is applied on the body its acceleration will be zero.If the body is at rest,it

      will remain at rest and if it is moving,it will remain moving in the same direction with the same speed.This

      is the statement of Newton's first law of motion.

8.    Draw graphs to show the dependence of

      (i)acceleration on force for a constant mass.

Ans:- Page no 66 fig 3.8 from book.

      (ii) force on mass for a constant acceleration.

Ans:- Page no 66 fig 3.9 from book.

9.    How does the acceleration produced by a given force depend on mass of the body?Draw a graph to show it.

Ans:- If a given force is applied on bodies of different masses,the acceleration produced in them is inversely propotional

      to their masses i.e.a=1/m(for a given force F).A graph plotted for acceleration a aganist mass m is a curve

      (hyperbola) fig.3.10 page no 66 from book.

10.   Name the S.I.unit of force and define it.

Ans:- The S.I.unit of force is newton.(N)

      1 newton is the force which when acts on a body of mass 1 kg, produces an acceleration of 1 m s-2.

11.   What is the C.G.S.unit of force?How is it defined?

Ans:- The C.G.S.unit of force is dyne.

      One dyne is the force which when acts on a body of mass 1 g, produces an acceleration of 1 cm s-2.

12.   Name the S.I.and C.G.S. units of force.How are they related.

Ans:- S.I.unit of force is newton (N).C.G.S.unit of force is dyne.

      1 newton=1kgx1 ms-2

              =1000 gx100 cm s-2

              =100000gcms-2

              =100000 dyne

13.  Why does a glass vessel break when it falls on a hard floor,but it does not break when it falls on a carpet?

Ans:-When a glass vessel falls on a hard floor, it comes to rest in a short time due to which a large force is  

     on it and it breaks.But when it falls on a carpet,it comes to rest in a longer time due to which less force

     is exerted on it and it does not break.

14.  An athlete prefers to land on sand instead of hard floor while taking a high jump.

Ans:-By jumping on sand the time duration in which his feet come to rest increases so the force exerted on his feet

 decreases and he is saved from getting hurt.

                 Exercise 3 (D)

 1.    State the usefulness of Newton's third law of motion.

Ans:- The purpose of Newton's third law of motion is to understand how does the force act on a body.

2.    State Newton's third law of motion.

Ans:- Newton's third law of motion state "to every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction".

3.    State and explain the law of action and reaction,by giving two examples.

Ans:- Statement:-"Action and reaction are always equal and opposite in direction.

      Explantion:-Action and reaction do not act on the same body,but they always act simultaneously on

      two different bodies.Action and reaction do not cancel each other.

      Example:-(1) Consider a book lying on a table.The weight of the book acts vertically downwards       (Action on the table) but the book does not move downwards.That mean table exerts an equal upward

      force on the book(reaction on the book).Thus action and reaction are equal and opposite.

      Example:-(11) While moving on the ground the force exerted by our feet on the ground is the force of

      action and force exerted by the ground on our feet is the force of reaction which makes us to move

      forward.

4.    Explain the motion of a rocket with the help of Newton's third law.

Ans:- In a rocket,fuel is burnt inside the rocket and the burnt gases at high pressure and high temperature

      are expelled out of the rocket through a nozzle.Thus rocket exerts a force F(action) on gases to       expel them through a nozzle backwards.The outgoing gases exert an equal and opposite force R (reaction)on the rocket due to which it moves in the forward direction(Fig 3.5)

5.    When a shot is fired from a gun,the gun gets recoiled.Expalian.

 

Ans:- When a man fires a bullet from a gun,a force F is exerted on the bullet(action)and the gun experiences  an equal recoil R (reaction).

6.    When you step ashore from a stationary boat,it tends to leave the shore.Explain.

Ans:- When you step ashore,you push the boat with foot in the backward direction(Action).The boat exerts an equal force on you in the forward       direction(Reaction)and enables you to move forward.

7.    When two spring balances joined at their free ends,are pulled apart,both show the same reading.Explain

Ans:- When two spring balances joined at their free ends are pulled apart,both show the same reading in accordance with Newton's third

      of motion.The pull on one spring by the other spring is the action

      and the pull on the second due to the first spring is the reaction which is equal and opposite.

8.    To move a boat ahead in water,boatman has to push water backwards by his oar.Explain.

Ans:- To move a boat ahead in water,the boatman pushes(Action)the water backwards by his oar so that water

      exerts equal and opposite force (Reaction )in the forward direction on the boat.

9.    A person pushing a wall hard is liable to fall back give reason.

Ans:- A person pushing a wall hard is liable to fall back because when he pushes(Action)the wall,the wall

      exerts an equal force(Reaction)on him.

10.   A light ball falling on the ground,after striking the ground rises upwards.Explain the reason.

Ans:- When a ball hit (Action)the ground,the ball experience equal and opposite force (Reaction)by the ground.

11.   Comment on the statement 'the sum of action and reaction on a body is zero'.

Ans:- The statement is wrong because action and reaction never act on the same body.They act simultaneously

      on two different bodies.

 

    Exercise 3 (E)

 

1.    Write an expression for the gravitational force of attraction between two bodies of masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r.

Ans:- The expression for the gravitational force of attraction between two bodies of masses m1 and m2 separted by a

      distance r is F=Gm1m2/r2 where G is the universal gravitational constant.

2.    How does the gravitational force of attraction between two masses depend on the distance between them?

Ans:- The gravitational force of attraction between two masses is inversely propotional to the square of the distance between them.

3.    Define gravitational constant G.

Ans:- Gravitational constant G is numerically equal to the magnitude of force of attraction between two masses each of 1kg

      placed at a separation of 1 m.

4.    Write the numerical value of gravitational constant G with its S.I.unit.

Ans:- G = 6.67x10-11 Nm2 kg-2

5.    What is the importance of law of gravitation?

Ans:- Newton used this law to explain the motion of planets around the sun,the motion of the moon around the earth

      and the motion of a freely falling body.

6.    What do you understand by the them force due to gravity?

Ans:- The force with which earth attracts a body is called force due to gravity on the body.

7.    Write an expression for the force due to gravity on a body of mass m and explain the meaning of the symbols used in it.

Ans:- The force due gravity on a body of mass m is given by

      F=GMm/R 2

      Where M=mass of earth,R= radius of earth,G=universal gravititonal constant.

8.    Define the term acceleration due to gravity?Write its S.I.unit.

Ans:- It is the acceleration produced in a freely falling body due to the gravitational force of attraction of the earth.Its

      S.I.unit is m s-2.

9.    Write down the average value of g on the earth's surface.

Ans:- The average value of g is 9.8N or 9.8ms-2.

10.   How is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth related to its mass and radius?

Ans:- The acceleration due to gravity (g) is related to the mass (M) and radius of earth(R) by the relation

      g=GM/r2.

11.   How are g and G related?

Ans:- By Newton's law of motion, the force due to gravity on a body of mass m on its surface will be

      F=mg........(1)

      By Newton's gravitational law,this attractive force is given by

      F=GMm/R2........(2) 

      from eqns.1 and 2 

      GMm/R2=mg

      g=GM/R2

12.   Define the terms mass and weight.

Ans:- Mass:-The mass of a body is the quantity of matter it contains.

      Weight: The weight of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.

13.   Distinguish between mass and weight.

Ans:- Mass

(1)   It is a measure of the quantity of matter contained in the body,at rest.

(ii)  It is a scalar quantity.

(iii) Its S.I.unit is kg.

(iv)  It is measured by a physical or beam balance.

(v)   It is constant for a body and does not change with the change in place.

      Weight:-

(1)   It is the force with which the earth attracts a body.

(ii)  It is a vector quantity.

(iii) Its S.I.unit is newton (N).

(iv)  It is measured by a spring balance.

(v)   It changes from place to place due to change in the value of g. 

14.   State the S.I.unit of (a)mass and (b)weight.

Ans:- S.I.unit of mass is kilogram(kg)

      S.I.unit of weight is newton(N).

15.   Explain the meaning of the following statement 'Kgf=9.8N'

Ans:- 1 kgf=9.8N means that a body of mass 1kg is attracted towards the centre of the earth with a force of 9.8 N.


PHYSICAL EDUCATION (9th Class) CHAPTER-1
 Very short answers:
 1.
:-Support
:-Shape
:-Protection
:-Junction
:-Storehouse
:-Manufacture of RBC
  

(With explaination)

 2. 206 bones. Longest bones Femur (present in thigh) and smallest bone Stapes(present in ears)

 3. Page no. 15(Down Right))

 4. Page no. 12(Middle Right)

 5.

:-Ball and Socket joint(at Shoulder and Hip joint)

:-Hinge joint (at Elbow joint)

:-Pivot joint (at Neck joint)

:-Gliding joint(at Carpals joint)

:-Saddle joint (at Thumb joint)

Match the following:

Sequence:        4, 6, 7, 2, 8, 1, 5, 3, 9

Short answers:

 1. Done

 2. Done

 3. Femur,Tibia,Fibula, Tarsals, Metatarsals and Phalanges

 4. Page no. 13(Left side)

 5.

:-Long bones

:-Short bones

:-Flat bones

:-Irregular bones

:-Sesamoid bones

:-Cartilaginuous bones

(With explaination)

 6. Three types:

:-Immovable or Fibrous joint

:-Slightly Movable or Cartilaginous joint

:-Freely Movable or Synovial joint

(With explaination)

 Long answers:

 1.

:-Stronger bones

:-Reduces bone injuries

:-Improves ossification

:-More blood supply

:-Faster healing

:-Increases RBC

(With explaination)

 2. Done

 3. Bone(same diagram)

        Cartilage (Cartilages are elastic hard connective tissues. The elasticity is due to the presence of chondrin protein and some in organic salts. Cartilage has lacunae and chondroblasts in its structure. It is of three types i.e Hyaline, Fibrous and Calcified Cartilage.

 4. Done

 CHAPTER-2

 Very short answers:

 1.

:- Provide proper shape and structure

:- Provide effort

:- Bring external movement

:-Help in fluid movement

:- Forceful actions

:- Provide protection

(With explaination)

 2. Trapezius, Levator Scapulae and Deltoid

 3.

:- Skeletal Muscles

:- Smooth Muscles

:- Cardiac Muscles

(With explaination)

4. Page no. 22

 5.

:- Isometric exercises

:- Isotonic exercises (Concentric and Eccentric exercises)

:- Isokinetic exercises

(With explaination)

 Match the following:

Sequence:

2, 7, 4, 1, 3, 8, 6, 5, 9

short answers:

 1. Done

 2. Each muscle is made up of thousands of long and narrow muscle cells called muscle fibres. These muscle fibres are arranged in bundles and enclosed within a tough layer of connective tissue called Epimysium(Sarcolemma).

Every muscle fibres is made up of a very large number of microscopic threads called Myofibrils. Each Myofibril consists of rows of minute protein molecules (Actin and Myosin). It is shaped like two combs with their teeth interlocked at the ends.

 3. Page no. 24(any six with their functions)

 4.

Isometric Exercises (same length of muscles,no visible movement of muscles,no external movements, work done is zero)

 Isotonic Exercises (same tension in muscles, visible movement of muscles, external movement, work is done during these exercises)

 5. Done

 Long answers:

 1.

:- Gain in strength

:- Efficiency improvement

:- Lactic acid tolerance

:- Proper shape of body

:- Faster recovery from injury

:- Increase in muscle mass

 2. Done

 3. Done in short answers

 4. Done

 5. Done

 FOOTBALL(2nd Term)

 1.

(a)It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches long away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like kicking with inside or outside of foot, instep kick,punt kick, scissor kick, banana or chip kick,roll back kick etc. It can be used during free kick, goal kick, corner kick, penalty kick or when situation suits.

 (b) Usually an attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

 (c) This skill is used to throw the ball back for the play from the side or touch line. The player must throw the ball over the head while both the feet should be in contact with ground. The player must not touch the sideline during throw in.

 (d) During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes each overtime period. If there is a tie after the overtime period, a penalty shoot-out takes place. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kicks in turns. If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the team keep taking penalty kicks until one team wins. This procedure is called Sudden-Death.

 (e)During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes each overtime period. In this duration if any team makes the goal, wins the match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scores the goal first wins the game but now it is said as silver goal period.

 (f)It is given when referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking  direct free kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball. Goal can be scored from direct free kick.

 (g)It is also known as flag kick. Corner kick is awarded when a defender puts the ball out of the play behind his team's goal line. An attacking player then tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from corner arc or quarter yard circle.

 (h)A penalty kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the penalty area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The offences (fouls) are like intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging opponent, holding opponent from behind etc.

 (i) Player is expelled if he commits a serious foul like strikes or charges or kicks or attempts to kick it trips on opponent, holds opponent, handles the ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting language, receives a second yellow card during the game.

 (j)A pass between defenders into the open space between the fullbacks and the goalkeeper with the idea that a forward will beat the defenders to the ball. There are two types : a Straight Through Pass and a Diagonal Through Pass.

 (k) Done (same as free kick)

 (l) Corner arc is also known as quarter yard circle from where corner kick is taken. It is on all four corners. The dimension is 1 yard(91cms)

 (m)It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal has been scored or in extra time). During kick-off players remain in their own half. Opponent team player doesn't enter 10 yards circle until ball is pushed or kicked forward. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively second time until played by another player.

 (n) The time which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each half.

 (o)A kick in which the ball is placed on the ground before kicking eg. Penalty kick, Corner kick, Kick-off etc.

 (p)The penalty area(outer box) is 18 yards deep, so the ball is only 6 yards from the top of the penalty area. Therefore, the arc(outer circle) is drawn so that all players must be 10 yards away from the ball at the taking of a penalty kick. Also an arc with 9.15m radius drawn outside the penalty area box.

 (q) Federation International de Football Association, formed in 1904.

 2. Draw Football playfield with all the dimensions from book.

 Positions:

Left forward-Center Forward-Right Forward

 Left Mid Fielder-Center Mid Fielder-Right Mid Fielder

 Left Full Back-Center Full Back-Right Full Back

 Goalkeeper

 3.

Goalpost (8yard * 8feet with 5 inches thickness of post)

Goal Area(6yards * 20 yards)

 4. Done

 5. 30 minutes extra time, divided into two halves of  15-15 minutes each.

 6. 

Direct Free kick

Indirect free kick

Corner kick 

Penalty kick

Kick-off

(With explaination)

 7. In India, the Britishers brought this game and formed Football Association in 1878. Football became very popular in Bengal. Many clubs were established to improve Football from Bengal. India had started the second oldest Football tournament known as Durand Cup in 1888 from Shimla. Later, this venue was changed to New Delhi from 1940. There are many clubs associated with Football in India like Mohan Bagan, Mohammedan Sporting, East Bengal, JCT, Salgaokar, Mahindra and Mahindra etc.

 FIFA(Federation International de Football Association) is the controlling body at International level.

 8. Many Football clubs are formed for participation in European league, which had hightened the Football standards in Europe. The best Football players of the world play in European league from different Football clubs like Real Madrid, Barcelona, Juventus, Arsenal etc.

 9. Player's basic equipments (Jersey with number,Shorts,Long Stockings, Studs, Shin Guard, Gloves for Goalkeeper etc.)

 Football specifications (27-28 inches circumference, 14-16 ounce weight, Leather or Rubber or Synthetic made). The air pressure equal to 0.6-1.1 atmosphere.

 10. A player is offside when he is close to the opposing goal line without the ball, unless two defenders are between the attacker and the goal line. Offside is given by linesmen by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded with indirect kick.

 11. 

Yellow Card fouls (not respecting referees decision, delay the game, argument, unsportsmanlike conduct, if goalkeeper keep the possession of the ball for more than 6 seconds)

 Red Card Fouls (strikes or charges or kicks or trips or holds the opponent, handles the ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting language)

 Fouls are regulated by Match Referee and two Linesmen.

 12. When the ball completely crosses the goal line, either in air or grounded, between the goalposts and under the crossbar of goalpost. It must be scored in a fair manner.

 13. Any six(Name and Country)

 14. Done

15.

Three substitutions

 Substitution procedure is already discussed.

 16. 

Match Referee regulates the time record of game.

 Injury Time (The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the player. This stopped duration of the game is added in regular time after each half.

 17. Any three(with their name and year)

 18. Syed Naeemuddin

 19. During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes each overtime period. If there is a tie after the overtime period, a penalty shoot-out takes place. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kicks in turns. If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the team keep taking penalty kicks until one team wins. This procedure is called Sudden-Death.

 20. 

Yellow Card fouls (not respecting referees decision, delay the game, argument, unsportsmanlike conduct, if goalkeeper keep the possession of the ball for more than 6 seconds). Yellow Card is a warning card.

 Red Card Fouls (strikes or charges or kicks or trips or holds the opponent, handles the ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting language). Red card is an expulsion card. To whom it is shown can not play further in the same match. Also,under such condition substitution can not be done.

 21.

-Unsupportive Behaviour

-Abusive words or action

-Delays the restart of game

-Enters in playfield without permission of Referee

-Leaves playfield without permission of Referee

-Infringes the laws of game

 22. Red Card

 23. Yellow Card

 24.

Fouls (kicking or Trips or Holds an opponent)

 Offences (Deliberately Delays game, infringement of rules, argumentative behaviour)

 25.

Trapping the ball by Chest,Thigh and under the feet.

 26.

Dropped Ball(In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit simultaneously foul, in that case the Referee stops the game for some time and afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Play restarts when ball touches the ground.

 Heading (An attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

 27. Done

 28. Done

 29. Done

 30. 

-The Ball(at penalty spot, i.e 11m from goal line)

 -The Defending Goalkeeper (In front of goal line,in own goal area)

 The Players (Behind the outer circle, i.e arc drawn outside the penalty area box)

 31. Done

 32. 

(a)110m and 75m

 (b)90 minutes for men

     80 minutes for women

 Extra time (30 minutes divided into two halves of 15-15 minutes each)

 (c)

8 yards and 8 feet

 (d)

10 yards and 1 yard

 VOLLEYBALL

 1.

(a)A specialized defensive player who plays in rear half to provide rest to certain Player. He can be substituted anytime during match from rear row player. He wears different colour kit. He can not serve, block and smash (he can smash behind the attack line)

 (b)After every change of service, the players of serving side rotate in clockwise direction, otherwise, it may be a foul.

 (c)In Tennis Service, the server can stand anywhere behind the 9m see line and executes it as a spike behind the service line. If it is hit well, the serve is a powerful offensive skill.

 (d) It is a powerful attack. It has variations like back court spike, line shot, cross court shot, dip, block abuse, off-speed hit, slide, double quick hit etc. Player who executes the spike have an excellent sense of balance in the air and can perceive and anticipate the actions and positions of the opposing team members. Contact with the ball takes place above the net. A player specialized in smash is known as spiker.

 (e)It is a rally technique used during the match. The tip is a transitory move between reception and attack like overhead set. It is made with an upward movement of the arms and legs. Contact with the ball is with the fingertips without touching palm. A player specialized in lifting is known as Booster or Setter.

 (f)Bump is a defensive skill keeping the ball from falling, receiving serve and offensive skill as it provides good chance to tip the ball for the spiker. Bump is the first contact of the ball (service reception). The bump provides the transition between defence and attack.

 (g)It may be executed by one, two or three players and it is the first line of defence against the spike. Blockers are not expected to block all spikes but to do as a screen, reducing the floor space that must be covered by the players behind them. To block, a player has good anticipation of the play. The tallest players are usually the main blockers.

(h)A ball hit into the net, by a team may still be kept in play (up to 3 hits) provided that the net is not touched by a player. Players may not touch the net. If 2 opposing players touch the net simultaneously, the ball is declared dead and is replayed. Also when the ball touches the hand of blocking players during smash and fall outside the court. 

(i)A player specialized to hit the ball down towards the opponent's court. He is also known as smasher.

 (j)A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as Booster.

 (k) During service the players must stay in their positions i.e diagonally opposite player must be in the same manner as in beginning. Otherwise, positional fault is given to opponent.

 (l)A hit aimed at opponent's court as to gain a point and a service in form of spike,dig,dink etc.

 (m)A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service player (server). The collective screening, from seeing the server or the flight path of the ball is illegal.

 (n)An extended upright over the net which gives the idea of sideline. It is 180cm in length whereas 80cm above the net. It is made up of fibreglass, flexible in nature.

 (o)An extended line behind the center line which restricts libero to smash from front area of court. It is 3m away from the net.

 (p)An area behind the backline which is used for performing service. It extends 3-5m behind the service line.

 (q)It is given for 60 seconds in the final set when leading team reaches the 8th and 16th points. It may be requested by each team.

 (r)It is temporarily interruption asked by the coach during game. Each team may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested timeouts last for 30 seconds.

 (s)A fault in which a wrong positional player performs the service.

 (t)A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in air, by crossing center line by foot or by hands over the net during smash, block or lift.

 (u)A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.

 2. The game of Volleyball, originally called "Mintonette" was invented in 1895 by William.G.Morgan after the invention of Basketball. Volleyball rules were framed in 1928 by United States Volleyball Association (USVBA). IN 1947, the Federation International de Volleyball (FIVB) was founded in Paris. It was included in the 1964 Olympic Games. In India, Volleyball came into Vogue through YMCA and later Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) was formed in 1950.

 3.

:-  One team have total 12 players (6 playing and 6 substitutes)

 :- The team that wins a rally, wins a point and a service.

 :- A set is won by  scoring 25 points.

 4.

Net(size of net : 9.5m * 1m width, height of net : 2.43m for men and 2.24m for women)

 Ball(circumference of ball : 65-67cm, weight of ball : 270gm)

 Antenna(Done)

 5. Replacement of one or more players from the listed substitution apart from libero. The coach requests for substitution to the assistant referee. An area 3m away towards sideline is allowed to move for substitution. When referee signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player should enter. There are two types of substitutions, legal and illegal substitution.

 6. There are lots of variations of service like underhand,top spin, floating,jump,jump float, round arm, tennis service etc.

 7.

Lift(Done in question 1 (e) part)

 Bump(Done in question 1 (f) part)

 8. The advantage of block is to stop the spike/smash,so that ball should fall in opponent court and to gain a point and a service. 

It is performed by front row tall player/players, either one,two or all three players together. They takes vertical jump with their arms stretched up in the air and open palms on the way of spike trajectory.

 :- Net touch

:- over the net penetration

:- under the net penetration

:- body contact with opponent

:- if a back row player blocks

:- if libero blocks

 9. When there is a tie at 24-24 points each, the game is extended for two points because to win a set one team should have a lead of 2 points.

 10. From book with all dimensions

 11. After every change in service, the players of the serving side rotate in clockwise direction so that each player should get equal chance to play in front and back zone both except Libero.

 Positional fault (Done)

 12.

Attack line(Done)

 Back line (A line at the back of court at 9m from the net. It is also known as service line.

 13.A free zone area on both the sides of court, which extends up to 3m, where player of both the teams performs warming-up for 3-5 minutes before the start of the match.

 14. 3 contacts

 15. 

Set(A set is won by a score of 25 points. And if there is a tie at 24 points then game continues until one team has a two points lead)

 Match(A match is won by winning 3 sets out of 5)

 16. Done

 17.

Legal substitution (same as substitution-already discussed)

 Illegal substitution (Each team can do 6 substitutions in a set. In case, if there is injury or expulsion and team has already completed their 6 substitutions in a set, under such condition the substitution done is known as illegal substitution. A team who ask for it, is penalized. A point and a service is awarded to the opposing team.

 18. Done

 19. 

First Referee (Regulates the rules, starts and ends the match, Whistles,gives violations, fouls and penalties)

 Assistant Referee (Gives rotation fault, positional fault and line cut)

 Captain (Performs toss, give positions to players, ask time outs and substitutions from Referee, with the consent of coach)

 20. Any six

 21. Beach volleyball is played on a Sandy surface. Only two players on either side plays at once. FIVB added it in world championship series in 1987 and later in 1996 it was added to the Olympics.

 22. Done

 23. Rotation fault, penetration fault, positional fault,net touch, service line cut during service and 8 seconds service delay violation.

 24. Time outs, Intervals after each set, Objections, Instructions by officials, legal substitution, illegal substitution, ball out of play etc. Also due to violations,fouls, exchange of words between players, physical fights,Bad or poor lights, equipments failure,poor playing surface,team arrives late at venue etc.

25.

Penalty (Yellow Card) : deliberately delaying of the game, provoking opponent by words or actions etc.

 Expulsion (Red Card) : Use of abusive language, Physical fight etc.

 Disqualification (Red and Yellow Cards jointly) : Shouting on referee from bench area, disturbing table & court officials etc.

 26. If match is of league tournament then equal points will be shared by both the teams. And if match is of knock-out tournament then match can be restarted after interruption if possible. Else, match can be resumed from the same points on the kept spare day. Otherwise can be played from beginning on some other selected day.

 27.

Sanctions imposed by Referee:

Warning : Verbal warning,

Penalty : Yellow Card,

Expulsion : Red Card,

Disqualification : Red and Yellow Cards jointly.

 28. Net fault (when ball stuck in net during service), service line cut by server, screening, ball lands out of bounds, Rotation fault and Positional fault.

 29. Done(24)

 30. Done(26)

 31. Signals out(when ball lands out of court), signals in(when ball lands in the court), judgement of side with the help of the Antenna.

32. Done

 33. Two white side bands are fastened vertically to the net and placed directly above each sideline. They are 5cm wide and 1m long and are considered as part of the net. They are elastic in nature.

 BADMINTON

 1. (a)It is delivery of the shuttle to opponent court to begin with rally.

 (b) This is an offensive as well as defensive stroke. It is taken with overhead swing of the racket to hit the shuttle hard so that it goes deep and back in the opponent's court. It may be high clear or low clear, over the both sides of the court in opponent's side.

 (c)This is an offensive stroke to stop the rally at once. In this, shuttle is powerfully hit in downward direction and gives no chance to the opponent to return. Shuttle is hit with very fast swing of hand just over the head. Shuttle goes steep down in opponent's court.

 (d) During service both the feet should be stationary, otherwise, it is a fault.

 (e)It is the way of scoring in the beginning i.e the score is zero at both sides.

 (f)A game(setting) consists of 21 points continuous scoring, in the best of three games(sets).

 (g)An area between the back boundary lines and long service line for doubles. It is the back area of the court where long service is considered out during doubles game, also known as Back Alley.

 (h)It is the continuous return of strokes by both the players over the net.

 (i)It is the last point in the game by which game winner is decided.

 (j)It is playing the strokes from the left side of the body (for right handed player).

 (k)It is the redelivery of the same point. It is called by umpire due to unforeseen situations like : umpire is unable to see the landing of shuttle, fault at both sides of the players simultaneously, if receiver is not ready, shuttle breaks during rally etc.

 (l) During service the shuttle has to be delivered below the waist level, otherwise, it is a fault.

 (m)A variation of forehand stroke in which shuttle is hit hard but at low height.

 (n)A shot in which shuttle crosses the net in a diagonal direction.

 (o) When score is at 20 all(20 each) on both sides.

 2. The modern version of Badminton is said to have its origins in the city of Pune in India and was initially called 'Poona'. British Army officers posted there were the first pioneers of the game who took it to Europe. The game was played in 1873 in a place called 'Badminton House' in England, from where it got its name.

 3. Draw Badminton court and give all dimensions from book.

 4. 5 feet at the center and 5 feet 1 inch near the poles.

 5. Player/Team, whoever wins the rally, is awarded with a point and a service. Also, in case of fault done by one player, a point and a service is awarded to the other player.

 6.

:- A game consists of 21 points.

  :- Continuous point scoring is followed.

 :- Change of sides are done after each game and also on the 11th point in the final game.

 7.

:- Clear(explain)

:- Smash (explain)

:- Drive (explain)

Already done in question(1)

 8. In case of tie at 20th point, the difference of two points will be considered for deciding game.

 9. Service is performed diagonally i.e. from right to right and left to left side over the net as to begin the rally.

 Service is illegal, if it is delivered from above the waist level, both feet are not stationary at the time of service, delivered from wrong side of the court and wrong player delivers the service.

 10. In doubles game a team of two players each plays against the other. They begin the game with the service from right side of the court to right side opponent player(diagonally). A game consists of 21 continuous points. A team who wins a rally is awarded with a point and a service. After winning a rally, teammates changes their sides i.e. right side player goes to left side and left side player to right side(opponents will not change their positions, until they wins a point on their service). Same player serves as long as he is winning continuous points.

 11.

Drop(An offensive stroke hit from deep end which lands close to net)

 Smash (Done)

 12. Done

 13. To check condition of playing surface, conducting toss, to call out score after end of each rally, to check flight of shuttle in case of dispute, to give break for cleaning sweat and to sit on high bench to observe the match carefully.

 14. To check waist fault, foot fault, line cut, service court error, changes shuttle on demand of player, cleans sweat in case falling over the court and sits opposite to Umpire at normal height.

 15. arming-up exercises (shuttle run, squats, sit ups, push ups, stretching, skipping, zig-zag running etc.)

Conditioning exercises (lunges, s

                                                  Biology Class 9. Chapter 4(The Flower)


A. MULTIPLE  CHOICE  TYPE

1. Bougainvillea flower is an example of
Ans(d). large colourful bracts

2. A flower is said to be complete when:
Ans(d). It has all the four whorls.

3. The part of the flower that gives rise to the fruit is
Ans(c). Ovary

4. The part of flower that gives rise to seed is
Ans(c). Ovule

5. The essential whorls of a flower are the
Ans(d). Androecium n gynoecium

B. Very short Answer type

1. Match

(a) Polyadelphous—— bombax
(b) pollen grain—— pollen sac
(c) free petals—— polypetalous
(d) Non-essential—— calyx,corolla
(e) sweet fragrant fluid—— nectar

C. Short Answer Type

1. Explain

(a) Incomplete Flower
Ans.  If one or more sets of floral structures are missing, the flower is called incomplete.

(b) Staminate flower
Ans. A unisexual flower which contains only the stamens is called Staminate flower .

(c) Pistillate Flower 
Ans. The flower which contains only the carpels is called pistillate flower.

(d) Bisexual Flower 
Ans. A flower which contains both stamens and carpels is called bisexual flower. 

3. Where are following structures/parts located and their function

(a) placenta—- ovary 
Function—- attach ovule to the wall of ovary

(b) Thalamus—- tip of flower stalk
Function—- attach flower to the stalk

(C) Anther—- stamen
Function— contains pollen grains

(d) Stigma—- Carpel
Function—- landing place for pollen grain


4. Why are the following described as stated:

(a).  The androceium of pea flower is diadelphous because filaments are united in two bundles

(b). Ray florets of sunflower as neuters because both male and female reproductive organs are lacking. 

(C). Salvia sepals are petaloids because perianth is non green. 

D. Long Answer Type

Ans(a). 1. Monadelphous: Stamen are united in one group by their filament. E.g. china rose

2. Diadelphous: The filaments are united in two bundles. E.g. pea

3. Polyadelphous: the filaments are united in several groups. E.g. bombax

Ans(b). (a) China rose—- Monadelphous
                 (b) Bombax—- Polyadelphous 
                  (C) pea—- diadelphous 

Note : these questions will include an inside portion.

  

Class 9

Chapter 4 (a)  Physics 

 

1. Define the term thrust state its S.I.unit.
Ans:- Thrust is the force acting normally on a surface.S.I.unit of thrust is newton (N).
2. What is meant by pressure? state its S.I.unit.
Ans:- Pressure is the thrust per unit area of surface.S.I.unit of pressure is pascal or Nm-2.
3. Define one pascal (Pa), the S.I.unit of pressure.
Ans:- One pascal is the pressure exerted on a surface of area 1m2 by a force of 1N acting normally on it.
4. Differentiate between thrust and pressure.
Ans:-
Thrust
1. Thrust is the force acting normally on surface.
2. Thrust is a vector quantity.
3. S.I.unit of thrust is newton (N).
Pressure
1. Pressure is the thrust per unit area of surface.
2. Pressure is a scalar quantity.
3. S.I.unit of pressure is pascal .
5. How does the pressure exerted by a thrust depend on the area of surface on which it acts.Explain with a suitable example.
Ans:- Pressure is inversly proportional to area.Example:- The ends of nails or pins are made pointed so that large pressure is
exerted through the pointed ends and they can be driven into with a less effort.
6. Why is the tip of an allpin made sharp?
Ans:- The tip of an allpin made sharp so that even a small thrust may cause a great pressure.
7. Explain the following
(a) It is easier to cut with a sharp knife than with a blunt one.
Ans:- It is easier to cut with a sharp knife so that a small thrust may cause a great pressure at the edges and cutting can be
done with the less efforts.
(b) Sleepers are laid below the rails.
Ans:- Wide wooden sleepers are placed below the railway tracks so that the pressure exerted by the iron rails on the ground
become less.
8. What is the fluid?
Ans:- A substance which can flow is called fluid.Example:- Liquids and gases.
9. What do you mean by fluid pressure?
Ans:- Pressure exerted by fluid is called fluid pressure.
10. State three factors on which pressure at a point in a liquid depends.
Ans:-(i) Depth of the point below the free surface (h)
(ii) Density of liquid(p)
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity (g)
11. Write an expression for the pressure at a point inside a liquid .Explain the meaning of the symbols used .
Ans:-P=hpg
Where h is depth
P(rho) is density of liquid
g is acceleration due to gravity.
12. How does the pressure at a certain depth in sea water differ from that at the same depth in river water? Explain your answer.
Ans:-The pressure at a certain depth in sea water is more than that at the same depth in river water. The reason is that the density of sea
water is more than density of river water.
13. Explain why a gas bubble released at the bottom of a lake grows in size as it rises to the surface of lake.
Ans:-The reason is that when the bubble is at the bottom of lake,total pressure exerted on it is the sum of atmospheric pressure and
pressure due to water column.As the gas bubble rises due to decrease in depth the pressure due to water column dereases,so the
total pressure exerted on the bubble decreases.According to Boyle's law, volume of bubble increases due to decreases
in pressure,i.e.the bubble grows in size.
14. A dam has broader walls at the bottom than at the top .Explain.
Ans:-The reason is that the pressure exerted by a liquid increases with its depth.To with stand a greater pressure a dam has broader walls
at the bottom.
15. Why do sea divers need special protective suit?
Ans:-Because in deep sea, the total pressure exerted on the diver's body is much more than his blood pressure.To with stand great
pressure,he or she needs to wear a special protective suit.
16. State the laws of liquid pressure.
Ans:-Following are the five laws of liquid pressure.
(1) Inside the liquid,Pressure increases with increase in depth.
(2) In a stationary liquid,pressure is same at all points on a horizontal plane.
(3) A liquid seeks its own level.
(4) Pressure at same depth is different in different liquid.
(5) Pressure is same in all directions about a point inside the liquid.
17. State Pascal's law of transmission of pressure.
Ans:-Pascal's law states that the pressure exerted anywhere in a confined liquid is transmitted equally and undiminishhed
in all directions throughout the liquid.
18. Name two applications of Pascal's law.
Ans:-(1) Hydraullic jack
(ii) Hydraullic brakes.
19. Explain the principle of a hydraullic macchine.Name two devices which work on this principle.
Ans:-The principle is that a small force applied on a smaller piston is transmitted to produce a large force on the bigger piston.
Devices: (1) Hydraullic press.
(ii) Hydraullic jack.
20. Write one use of hydraullic press.
Ans:-(1) For pessing cotton bales and goods like quilts and books.

Please learn and write on your copy.

 

Class IX Computer Applications

Chapter 1

Elementary Concenpt of Objects and Classes

 

1.      What is an object?

An obeject is an indentifiable entity with some characteristic and behaviours.

A software object is a software unit of related variables and methods.

2. What is a class?

A class is a group of objects that share common properties, relationships and behavior.  A class is defined using the keyword ‘class’

3.      Name the members of a class?

Data members (Variables)

Member functions (Methods)

4.      How can you say that a class is an object factory?

A class is an object factory because it is the blueprint from which any number of individual objects or instances are created.

5.      Define Inheritance.

Inheritance is th process by which objects of one class inherits the features of objects of another class.

6.      Define Encapsulation.

The wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit is called encapsulation.

7.      Define Abstraction or Data abstraction.

Abstraction refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details or explanations.

8.      Define polymorphism.

The ability to take more than one form is called as polymorphism.

9.      What is object oriented programming?

It is an approach of OOP that emphasis is on data rather than procedures. Programs are devided into objects that consists of data and methods.

10. What is structured programming?

Programmes that are arranged in a particular order are called structured programming.

11. What is procedural programming?

Procedural programming is a structure that is broken down into smaller subprograms such as functions and procedures.

12. Why class is called a user defined data type?

When  a class is created the user/programmer is actually creating a data type of his own , hence it is called user defined data type.

13. Characteristics of OOP programming?

1.      Programs are devided into objects.

2.      Data is hidden and cannot be accessed by external methods.

3.      Addition of new data and methods can be done easily whenever necessary.

14. Advantages and disadvantages of OOP

1.      The focus is on the data rather than procedures.

2.      Easy maintaenance and debugging

3.      Provides the facility of resusabiity.

4.      Only essential details are visible to the user.

Disadvantages

1.      Relation between classes to be created.

2.      OOP design requires lot of planning and expertise.

3.      Not good for representing non-objects.

15. What is instance?

     An instance is an object in memory.

16. Difference between object and instance?

Instance refers to the copy of the object at a particular time whereas object refers to the memory address of the class.

17. What are the different types of programming approach?

Structured programming, procedural and oop .

 

Chapter 2 – Class as a basis for all Computations

 

1.      What is an access modifiers? Name them.

The access modifier decides whether the variable or method of a class can be accessed by method of another class.

a)     Public – which mean the members (variables /methods) accessible to any other class.

b)     private  - means the members (variables /methods) accessible only within its own class.

c)      protected – means members are accessible to subclasses or classes in the same package.

d)     Default - means members are accessible to subclasses or classes in the same package. It is provided by the complier.

2.      What are variables?

Variables are the named memory locations where values are stored.

For example int a =10; where ‘a’ is the variable, int is the data type and 10 is the constant.

3.      What are the type of variables?

a)     Member variable (data members) – declared in the class to represent values. 

b)     Class variables (static variables) – a variable declared only once for a class and also used with keyword static. Eg. static int a =10;

c)      Instance variable – this is the variable used for object creation.

d)     Local variable – used in the method (function) definition

e)      Parameters – variables used in method declaration.

4.      What is the use of ‘new’ operator?

It is used to create new objects. It allocates memory space for an object.

5.      How can you create an instance of a class?

An instance of a class is created by using new operator.

6.      Which operator must be used to invoke the the methods of an object?

new

7.      Which return type must be used if the method does not return any value?

void.

8.      What will you write in the parameter list of a method, if the method actually does not take any parameter?

Nothing ..just put empty bracket eg. ( ).

 

3. Introduction to Java and Blue J

 

1.      Give the file extensions of java programs.

.class.

2.      What are the two types of java programs?

Java applets and java applications.

3.      How is java platform independent?

Java programs can run on any platform irrespective of various operating systems and type of computers.

4.      What are the different features of java?

Object oriented language

Reusable

Platform independent and portable

Automatic Garbage collection.

5.   What is bug and debugging?

An error in the program or source code is called as a bug.

The process of detecting errors in the source code and correcting them is known as debugging.

6.   Explain various types of errors?

Syntax error – an error that occurs when the syntax to be followed are violated.

Runtime error- error that occurs during the execution or running time of the program.

Logical error – an error that causes to give incorrect output.

7.   What are comments in java?

Comments improve the readability of a program. They are ignored by the compiler. Types of comments are as follows:

 The  // symbol     for single line comments

 The /* …….*/     for multi line comments (block style)

The /** …………….. */ - documentation style.

8.   What are byte code?

It is a code which converts source code to machine code.

9.   What is JVM?

It is the byte code of java programs.

10.             Which command is used to print output to the console?

System.out.println( ) command is used to give output on the monitor.

 

4.      Data types, variables & values in Java

 

1.      What is an identifier?

Identifier identifies different part of the program. Egs. Class name, variable name, function name etc.

.    egs:   class sum               - class is the key word       sum   is the identifier

               float a = 12;          - float is   key word              a      is identifier (variable)

 

2.      What are key words? State the difference between punctuaters.

Keywords are the words that convey  a special meaning to the language compiler.  These are reserved for special purpose and must not be used as normal use to name identifiers or variables. Eg. new, break, for etc

3.      What do you mean by scope of variable?

Scope of variables means the accessibility of variables.

4.      What are tokens? Give example.

A token is the smallest individual element of a Java program. Egs: keywords, identifiers, variables, literals, operators, punctuators.

5.      What are the rules for naming identifiers?

a)      Identifier must not be a reserved word(keyword)

b)     They must not begin with a digit (prefer to begin with an alphabet)

c)      They can have alphabets, digits, underscore and dollar sign characters

d)     They can be of any length but space should not be used.

e)      JAVA is case-sensitive  ie, upper case and lower case letters are treated differently

6.      What are constants or literals? What are its types?

7.      A program element whose value remained unchanged during the program execution is called constant.

Eg. int a=10; where 10 is the constant.

Types of constants:

Integer constant – byte, short, int, long (number without decimal part)

Floating constant – float and double (number with decimal part)

Character constant – char (enclosed in single quotes ‘A’, ‘3’, ‘#’ etc)

Boolean constant – Boolean (true or false)

String constant – String (enclosed in double quotes “abcxyz”)

8.      What is an operator? Give example

An operator in Java is a symbol that performs certain calculation.

Egs : unary, binary, ternary, arithematic, inrement / decrement , logical relational etc.

9.      What are punctuators or separators and its types?

Separators are also known as punctuators. They are used to give special meaning  to the compiler and also any user who scans the program. They are,

 

(   )    parentheses   -   used  to refer parameters in method definition   and to show  Operation precedence in expressions. Also to denote function.

[   ]    sq.brackets       used to declare array types

{  }    braces         start and end for a block of statements,  to contain values of arrays

  ;       semicolon         to terminate statements

  ,       comma              to separate identifiers

  .       period               to separate  variable or method from reference variable

10. What are data types? What are its categories?

A data type is the type of data a variable can hold. All variables in the Java language must have a data type. They are of two types:

primitive data type – are the basic data types which are independent. They are of 8: byte, short, int, long, float, double, char and boolean.

reference data type – are composed of (derived from) primitive data type and also called as derived datatype, composite data type or user defined data types. They are : arrays, strings, class / objects.

                                    Integer primitive data types

                        Type               Size                        Range

                        byte                8 bits              -128   to  +127

                        short               16 bits            -32,768  to  + 32,767

                        int                   32 bits            -2 billion  to +2 billion (10 digits)

                        long               64 bits            -10E18  to +10E18 (19 digits)

 

 

 

Floating point primitive data types

                        Type               Size                        Range

                        float                32bits             -3.4E+38  to  +3.4E+38 (39 digits)

                        double            64bits             -1.7E+308  to +1.7E+308

 

Boolean  primitive data type

                        Type                                              Range

                        boolean                                  true   or  false

 

Character primitive data type

                        Type               Size                        Range

                        char                16bits             any Unicode character in single quotes

 

 

 

 

 

11. Explain the dynamic initialization using scanner class?

A scanner class is a class in java.util package. It helps to take input from the user.

Syntax : Scanner sc=new Scanner(System.in);

12. What are the default values of the primitive data types?

The default values (initial value or)of byte, short int are o(zero) and long is 0l/L, float 0.0f/F, double o.od/D, char is \u0000 and Boolean is false, String is “ ”

 

13. What are declaration and initialization of variable?

Declaring a variable with data type is called declaration.

Eg: int a;

Giving values to variable is called initialization

Eg: int a =10;

 

Write these questions / ans on the copy and revise the same. It includes first 4 chapters.

 

Class 9

Chapter 4   Physics 

 

1. What do you mean by atmospheric pressure?
Ans:- The thrust exerted per unit area on the earth surface due to column of air is called atmospheric pressure on the
surface of earth .
2. Name the physical quantity which is expressed in the unit "atm" state its value in pascal ?
Ans:- Atmospheric pressure,1 atm = 1.013X10"5 Pa.
3. We donot feel uneasy even under the enormous pressure of atmosphere above as well as around us give reason.
Ans:- Because pressure of our blood balances it .The bood pressure is slightly more than the atmospheric pressure .
4. State two uses of barometer.
Ans:- 1.To measure atmospheric pressure .
2.For weather forecasting
5. Why does the liquid rise in a syringe when its piston is pulled up?
Ans:- when its piston is pulled up the pressure inside the barrel below the plunger is much less than the
atmospheric pressure acting on the liquid surface.As a result the atmospheric pressure forces the liquid to rise up
in the syringe .
6. What is a barometer ? How is a simple barometer constructed ?
Ans:- An instrument used to measure the atmospheric pressure is called a barometer .
A simple barometer consists of a glass tube of about 1m length closed at one end.Fill the tube with pure mercury and
invert into a trough of mercury in such a way that open end of tube is well immersed in mercury in the trough and
tube stand vertical. Now the thumb is removed .

it is seen that the mercury level in tube falls till its height above
the mercury level in trough becomes h=76cm.
7. Give two reasons for the use of mercury as a barometric liquid.'
Ans:- 1.The mercury neither wets nor sticks to the glass tube,therefore it gives accurate reading.
2.It can easily be obtained in a pure state.
8. Give two reasons why water is not a suitable barometric liquid ?
Ans:- 1.The vapour pressure of water is high,so its vapours in the vacuum space will make the reading in accurate .
2.Water sticks with the glass tube and wets it.So the reading become inaccurate.
9. Mention two demerits of a simple barometer ?
Ans:- 1.There is no protection for the glass tube.
2.It is inconvenient to move the barometer from one place to another i.e.It is not portable.
10. State two advantages of an aneroid barometer over a simple barometer?
Ans:- 1.This barometer has no liquid .
2.It is light and portable therefore it can easily be carried from one place to another.
11. State two factors which affects the atmospheric pressure as we go up?
Ans:- 1.Height of air column .
2.Density of air.
12. Why does a fountain pen leak at a high altitude ?
Ans:- When the pen is taken at an altitude,the atmospheric pressure at this altitude is low.So the excess pressure due to
air inside the rubber tube forces the ink to leak out.
13. Why does nose start bleeding on high mountains?
Ans:- At high altitude since the the atmospheric is low,breathing becomes difficult and nose bleeding may occur due to
excess of blood pressure over the atmospheric pressure .
14. What do the following indicate in barometer regarding weather?
(a) gradual fall in mercury level.
Ans:- Possibility of rain.
(b) Sudden fall in mercury level.
Ans:- Coming of storm or cyclone.
(c) gradual rise in the mercury level.
Ans:- dry weather.

Class 9

Chapter 1 - The Language of Chemistry Exercise Ex. 1(C)

 

 

Question 1

Calculate the molecular mass of the following:

CuSO4·5H2O

Given atomic mass of Cu = 63·5, H = 1, O = 16, C=12, N = 14, Mg = 24, S = 32

Solution 1

Molecular mass of CuSO4.5H2O

63.5 + 32 + (4 × 16) + (10 × 1) + (5 × 16)

= 63.5 + 32 + 64 + 10 + 80

= 249.5

Question 2

 

Fill in the blanks:

a.   Dalton used symbol _____ for oxygen _____ for hydrogen.

b.  Symbol represents _____ atom(s) of an element.

c.   Symbolic expression for a molecule is called _____.  .

d.  Sodium chloride has two radicals. Sodium is a _____ radical while chloride is _____ radical.

e.   Valency of carbon in CH4 is _____ , in C2H6 _____, in C2H4 ___ and in C2H2 is ____.

f.    Valency of Iron in FeCl2 is _____  and in FeCl3 it is ____ .

g.  Formula of iron (ill) carbonate is _____ .

 

 

Solution 2

a.   Dalton used symbol [O] for oxygen,[H] for hydrogen.

b.  Symbol represents gram atom(s) of an element.

c.   Symbolic expression for a molecule is called molecular formula.

d.  Sodium chloride has two radicals. Sodium is a basic radical, while chloride is an acid radical.

e.   Valency of carbon in CH4 is 4, in C2H64, in C2H44 and in C2H2 is 4.

f.    Valency of iron in FeCl2 is 2 and in FeCl3 it is 3.

g.  Formula of iron (III) carbonate is Fe2[CO3]3.

 

Question 3

Complete the following table.

Solution 3

Question 4

 

Sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate to produce silver chloride and sodium nitrate

a.   Write the equation.

b.  Check whether it is balanced, if not balance it.

c.   Find the weights of reactants and products.

d.  State the law which this equation satisfies.

Solution 4

 

a. NaCl + AgNO3 → NaNO3 + AgCl

 

b. It is a balanced equation.

 

c. Weights of reactants: NaCl - 58.44, AgNO3 - 169.87

Weights of products: NaNO3 - 84.99, AgCl - 143.32

NaCl + AgNO3 → NaNO + AgCl

(23+35.5) + (108+14+48) → (23+14+48) + (108+35.5)

58.5 + 170 → 85 + 143.5

228.5 g → 228.5 g

 

d. Law of conservation of mass: Matter is neither created nor destroyed in the course of a chemical reaction.

Question 5

 

What information does the following chemical equation convey?

Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4+ H2

 

Solution 5

 

This equation conveys the following information:

 

     i.            The actual result of a chemical change.

  ii.            Substances take part in a reaction, and substances are formed as a result of the reaction.

iii.            Here, one molecule of zinc and one molecule of sulphuric acid react to give one molecule of zinc sulphate and one molecule of hydrogen.

iv.            Composition of respective molecules, i.e. one molecule of sulphuric acid contains two atoms of hydrogen, one atom of sulphur and four atoms of oxygen.

  v.            Relative molecular masses of different substances, i.e. molecular mass of

Zn = 65

H2SO4 = (2+32+64) = 98

ZnSO4 = (65+32+64) = 161

H2 = 2

vi.            22.4 litres of hydrogen are formed at STP.

 

Question 6

What information do the following chemical equations convey? Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2+ H2

Solution 6

This equation conveys the following information:

 

     i.            Magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid to form magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas.

  ii.            24 g of magnesium reacts with 2(1 + 35.5) = 73 g of hydrochloric acid to produce (24 + 71), i.e. 95 g of magnesium chloride.

iii.            Hydrogen produced at STP is 22.4 litres.

Question 7

What are polyatomic ions? Give two examples.

Solution 7

A polyatomic ion is a charged ion composed of two or more covalently bounded atoms. Examples: Carbonate (CO32-) and sulphate (SO42-)

Question 8

Name the fundamental law that is involved in every equation.

 

Solution 8

Fundamental laws which are involved in every equation:

     i.            A chemical equation consists of formulae of reactants connected by a plus sign (+) and arrow (→) followed by the formulae of products connected by the plus sign (+).

  ii.            The sign of an arrow (→) is to read 'to form'. It also shows the direction in which the reaction is predominant.

The fundamental law followed by every equation is 'Law of Conservation of Mass'.

Question 9

What is the valency of :

fluorine in CaF2

Solution 9

Valency of fluorine in CaF2 is -1.

Question 10

What is the valency of :

sulphur in SF6

Solution 10

Valency of sulphur in SF6 is -6.

Question 11

What is the valency of :

phosphorus in PH3

Solution 11

Valency of phosphorus in PH3 is +3.

Question 12

What is the valency of :

carbon in CH4

Solution 12

Valency of carbon in CH4 is +4.

Question 13

What is the valency of :

nitrogen in the following compounds:

(i)            N2O3 (ii) N2O5 (iii) NO2 (iv) NO

(ii)        Mno2 (2)Cu20 ( 3)Mg3N2

Solution 13

Valency of nitrogen in the given compounds: (2)(1) Mn=4 (2) cu=1 (3)mg=2

     i.            N2O3  = N is +3

  ii.            N2O5 = N is +5

iii.            NO2 = N is +4

iv.            NO = N is +2

 

Question 14

Why should an equation be balanced? Explain with the help of a simple equation.

Solution 14

According to the law of conservation of mass, 'matter can neither be created nor can it be destroyed'. This is possible only if the total number of atoms on the reactants side is equal to the total number of atoms on the products side. Thus, a chemical reaction should always be balanced.

e.g.  KNO3 → KNO2 + O2

In this equation, the number of atoms on both sides is not the same, and the equation is not balanced.

The balanced form of this equation is

2KNO3 → 2KNO2 + O2

 

Question 15

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions. sodium hydroxide + sulphuric acid → sodium sulphate + water

Solution 15

2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

Question 16

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions. potassium bicarbonate + sulphuric acid → potassium sulphate + carbon dioxide + water

Solution 16

2KHCO3 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2CO2 + 2H2O

Question 17

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions. iron + sulphuric acid → ferrous sulphate + hydrogen.

Solution 17

Fe + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2

Question 18

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

chlorine + sulphur dioxide + water →  sulphuric acid + hydrogen chloride

Solution 18

Cl2 + SO2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2HCl

Question 19

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

silver nitrate → silver + nitrogen dioxide + oxygen

Solution 19

2AgNO3 → 2Ag + 2NO2 + O2

Question 20

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

copper + nitric acid → copper nitrate + nitric oxide + water

Solution 20

3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O

Question 21

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

ammonia + oxygen → nitric oxide + water

Solution 21

Selina Solutions Icse Class 9 Chemistry Chapter - The Language Of Chemistry

Question 22

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

barium chloride + sulphuric acid → barium sulphate + hydrochloric acid

Solution 22

BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

Question 23

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

zinc sulphide + oxygen → zinc oxide + sulphur dioxide

Solution 23

2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

Question 24

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

aluminium carbide + water → aluminium hydroxide + methane

Solution 24

Al4C3 + 12H2O → 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4

Question 25

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

iron pyrites(FeS2) + oxygen → ferric oxide + sulphur dioxide

Solution 25

4FeS2 + 11O2 → 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2

Question 26

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

potassium permanganate + hydrochloric acid → potassium chloride + manganese chloride + chlorine + water

Solution 26

2KMnO4 + HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 5Cl2 + 8H2O

Question 27

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

aluminium sulphate + sodium hydroxide → sodium sulphate + sodium meta aluminate + water.

Solution 27

Al2(SO4)3 + 8NaOH → 3Na2SO4 + 2NaAlO2 + 4H2O

Question 28

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

aluminium + sodium hydroxide + water → sodium meta aluminate + hydrogen

Solution 28

2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2

Question 29

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

potassium dichromate + sulphuric acid → potassium sulphate + chromium sulphate + water + oxygen.

Solution 29

2K2Cr2O7 + 8H2SO4 → 2K2SO4 + 2Cr2(SO4)3 + 8H2O + 3O2

Question 30

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

potassium dichromate + hydrochloric acid → Potassium chloride + chromium chloride + water + chlorine

Solution 30

K2Cr2O7 + 14HCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl3 + 7H2O + 3Cl2

Question 31

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

sulphur + nitric acid → sulphuric acid + nitrogen dioxide + water.

Solution 31

S + HNO3 → H2SO4 + NO2 + H2O

Question 32

Write the balanced chemical equations of the following reactions.

sodium chloride + manganese dioxide + sulphuric acid → sodium hydrogen sulphate  + manganese sulphate + water + chlorine.

Solution 32

2NaCl + MnO2 + 3H2SO4 → 2NaHSO4 + MnSO4 + 2H2O + Cl2

Question 33

Define atomic mass unit.

Solution 33

Atomic mass unit (amu) is equal to one-twelfth the mass of an atom of carbon-12 (atomic mass of carbon taken as 12).

Question 34

Calculate the molecular mass of the following:

(NH4)2CO3

Given atomic mass of Cu = 63·5, H = 1, O= 16, C = 12, N = 14, Mg = 24, S = 32

 

Solution 34

Molecular mass of (NH4)2CO3

= (2 × 14) + (8 × 1) + 12 + (3 × 16)

= 28 + 8 + 12 + 48

= 96

Question 35

Calculate the molecular mass of the following:

(NH2)2CO

Given atomic mass of Cu = 63·5, H = 1, O= 16, C = 12, N = 14, Mg = 24, S = 32

Solution 35

Molecular mass of (NH2)2CO

= (14 × 2) + (4 × 1) + 12 + 16

= 28 + 4 + 12 + 16

= 60

Question 36

Calculate the molecular mass of the following:

Mg3N2

Given atomic mass of Cu = 63·5, H = 1, O = 16, C = 12, N = 14, Mg = 24, S = 32

Solution 36

Molecular mass of Mg3N2

= (3 × 24) + (2 × 14)

= 72 + 28

= 100

Question 37

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Modern atomic symbols are based on the method proposed by

i. Bohr

ii. Dalton

iii. Berzelius

iv. Alchemist

Solution 37

iii. Berzelius

Question 38

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

The number of carbon atoms in a hydrogen carbonate radical is

     i.            One

  ii.            Two

iii.            Three

iv.            Four

Solution 38

i. One

Question 39

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

The formula of iron (III) sulphate is

i. Fe3SO4

ii. Fe(SO4)3

iii. Fe2(SO4)3

iv. FeSO4

Solution 39

iii. Fe2(SO4)3

Question 40

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

In water, the hydrogen-to-oxygen mass ratio is

     i.            1: 8

  ii.            1: 16

iii.            1: 32

iv.            1: 64

Solution 40

i. 1:8

 Question 41

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

The formula of sodium carbonate is Na2CO3 and that of calcium hydrogen carbonate is

i. CaHCO3

ii. Ca(HCO3)2

iii. Ca2HCO3

iv. Ca(HCO3)3

Solution 41

ii. Ca(HCO3)2

Chapter 1 - The Language of Chemistry Exercise Ex. 1(A)

Question 1

What is a symbol? What information does it convey?

Solution 1

A symbol is the short form which stands for the atom of a specific element or the abbreviations used for the names of elements.

     i.            It represents a specific element.

  ii.            It represents one atom of an element.

iii.            A symbol represents how many atoms are present in its one gram (gm) atom.

iv.            It represents the number of times an atom is heavier than one atomic mass unit (amu) taken as a standard.

 Question 2

Why is the symbol S for sulphur, but Na for sodium and Si for silicon?

 

Solution 2

In most cases, the first letter of the name of the element is taken as the symbol for that element and written in capitals (e.g. for sulphur, we use the symbol S). In cases where the first letter has already been adopted, we use a symbol derived from the Latin name (e.g. for sodium/Natrium, we use the symbol Na). In some cases, we use the initial letter in capital together with a small letter from its name (e.g. for silicon, we use the symbol Si).

Question 3

Write the full form of IUPAC. Name the elements represented by the following symbols:

Au, Pb, Sn, Hg

Solution 3

The full form of IUPAC is International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Names of the elements:

Au - Gold

Pb - Lead

Sn - Tin

Hg - Mercury

Question 4

If the symbol for Cobalt, Co, were written as CO, what would be wrong with it?

Solution 4

Co stands for Cobalt. If we write CO, then it would mean that it is a compound containing two non-metal ions, i.e. carbon and oxygen, which forms carbon monoxide gas.

Question 5

2H2

Solution 5

2H2 stands for two molecules of hydrogen.

Question 6

What is meant by atomicity? Name the diatomic element.

 Solution 6

The number of atoms of an element that join together to form a molecule of that element is known as its atomicity.

Diatomic molecules: H2, O2, N2, Cl2

Question 7

Explain the terms 'valency' and 'variable valency'.

Solution 7

     i.            Valency of Na is +1 because it can lose one electron.

  ii.            Valency of O is -2 because it can accept two electrons.

 Variable valency: It is the combining capacity of an element in which the metal loses more electrons from a shell next to a valence shell in addition to electrons of the valence shell.

Question 8

How are the elements with variable valency named? Explain with an example.

Solution 8

If an element exhibits two different positive valencies, then

 i. for the lower valency, use the suffix -OUS at the end of the name of the metal

ii. for the higher valency, use the suffix -IC at the end of the name of the metal.

 Example:

Question 9

Give the formula and valency of:

a.   aluminate ………………… .

b.  chromate ………….…….. .

c.   aluminium ………………. .

d.  cupric  ………………… .

Solution 9

Question 10

What is the significance of formula?

Solution 10

Significance of the molecular formula:

  • It represents both molecule and molecular mass of the compound.
  • It represents the respective number of different atoms present in one molecule of the compound.
  • It represents the ratios of the respective masses of the elements present in the compound.

Question 11

What do you understand by the following terms?

Acid radical

Solution 11

Acid radical: The electronegative or negatively charged radical is called an acid radical.

Examples: Cl-, O2-

Question 12

What do you understand by the following terms?

Basic radical

Solution 12

Basic radical: The electropositive or positively charged radical is called a basic radical.

Examples: K+, Na+

Question 13

Select the basic and acidic radicals in the following compounds.

a.   MgSO4

b.  (NH4)2SO4

c.   Al2(SO4)3

d.  ZnCO3

e.   Mg(OH)2

Solution 13

Question 14

Write chemical formula of the sulphate of Aluminium, Ammonium and Zinc.

Solution 14

Valencies of aluminium, ammonium and zinc are 3, 1 and 2, respectively.

The valency of sulphate is 2.

Hence, chemical formulae of the sulphates of aluminium, ammonium and zinc are Al2(SO4)3, (NH4)2SO4 and ZnSO4.

Question 15

The valency of an element A is 3 and that of element B is 2. Write the formula of the compound formed by the combination of A and B.

Solution 15

 Formula of the compound = A2B3

 Question 16

Match the following:

Solution 16

Question 17

Write the basic radicals and acidic radicals of the following

and then write the chemical formulae of these compounds.

a.   Barium sulphate  

b.  Bismuth nitrate

c.   Calcium bromide  

d.  Ferrous sulphide

e.   Chromium sulphate

f.    Calcium silicate

g.  Potassium ferrocyanide

h.  Stannic oxide

i.     Magnesium phosphate

j.     Sodium zincate

k.  Stannic phosphate

l.     Sodium thiosulphate

m.                       Potassium manganate

n.  Nickel bisulphate 

 Solution 17

Question 18

Write the chemical names of the following compounds:

a.   Ca3(PO4)2

b.  K2CO3

c.   K2MnO4

d.  Mn3(BO3)2

e.   Mg(HCO3)2

f.    Na4Fe(CN)6

g.  Ba(ClO3)2

h.  Ag2SO3

i.     (CH3COO)2Pb

j.     Na2SiO3

Solution 18

Chemical names of compounds:

 a.   Ca3(PO4)2 - Calcium phosphate

b.  K2CO3 - Potassium carbonate

c.   K2MnO4 - Potassium manganate

d.  Mn3(BO3)2 - Manganese (II) borate

e.   Mg(HCO3)2 - Magnesium hydrogen carbonate

f.    Na4Fe(CN)6 - Sodium ferrocyanide

g.  Ba(ClO3)2 - Barium chlorate

h.  Ag2SO3 - Silver sulphite

i.     (CH3COO)2Pb - Lead acetate

j.     Na2SiO3 - Sodium silicate

 Question 19

Give the names of the following compounds.

a.   NaClO

b.  NaClO2

c.   NaClO3

d.  NaClO4

Solution 19

a.   NaClO - Sodium hypochlorite

b.  NaClO2 - Sodium chlorite

c.   NaClO3 - Sodium chlorate

d.  NaClO4 - Sodium perchlorate

Question 20

Complete the following statements by selecting the correct option :

The formula of a compound represents

i. an atom

ii. a particle

iii. a molecule

iv. a combination

Solution 20

iii. The formula of a compound represents a molecule.

 Question 21

Complete the following statements by selecting the correct option :

The correct formula of aluminium oxide is

i. AlO3

ii. AlO2

iii. Al2O3

Solution 21

iii. The correct formula of aluminium oxide is Al2O3.

Question 22

Complete the following statements by selecting the correct option :

The valency of nitrogen in nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is

     i.            one

  ii.            two

iii.            three

iv.            four

Solution 22

iv. The valency of nitrogen in nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is four.

 Question 23

Give the names of the elements and number of atoms of those elements present in the following compounds.

a.   Sodium sulphate

b.  Quick lime

c.   Baking soda (NaHCO3)

d.  Ammonia

e.   Ammonium dichromate

Solution 23

    a. Sodium   sulphate 2SO4
        There are two sodium atoms, one sulphur atom and four oxygen atoms.

b.  Quick lime - CaO
There is one calcium atom and one oxygen atom.

c.   Baking soda - NaHCO3
There is one sodium, carbon and hydrogen atom and three oxygen atoms.

d.  Ammonia - NH3
There is one nitrogen atom and three hydrogen atoms.

e.   Ammonium dichromate - (NH4)Cr2O7
There two ammonium atoms, two chromium atoms and seven oxygen atoms.

Question 24

The formula of the sulphate of an element M is M2(SO4)3

Write the formula of its

a.   Chloride

b.  Oxide

c.   Phosphate

d.  Acetate

Solution 24

The valency of metal M is 3. So, the formulae are as follows:

a.   Chloride - MCl3

b.  Oxide - M2O3

c.   Phosphate - M(PO4)

d.  Acetate - M(CH3COO)3

Chapter 1 - The Language of Chemistry Exercise Ex. 1(B)

Question 1

What is a chemical equation? Why it is necessary to balance it?

Solution 1

A chemical equation is the symbolic representation of a chemical reaction using the symbols and formulae of the substances involved in the reaction.

A chemical equation needs to be balanced because a chemical reaction is just a rearrangement of atoms.

Atoms themselves are neither created nor destroyed during the course of a chemical reaction.

The chemical equation needs to be balanced to follow the law of conservation of mass.

Question 2

State the information conveyed by the following equation:

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq)  + H2

Solution 2

A solid metal zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid in the aqueous state to produce zinc chloride in the aqueous state and hydrogen gas.

Question 3

What is the limitation of the reaction given in question 2?

Solution 3

  • The chemical equation given in question 2 does not give the time taken for the completion of the reaction.
  • Also, it does not give information about whether heat is absorbed or evolved during the reaction.

Question 4

Write the chemical equations for the following word equations and balance them.

a.   Carbon   + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide

b.  Nitrogen + Oxygen → Nitrogen monoxide

c.   Calcium + Nitrogen → Calcium nitride

d.  Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate

e.   Magnesium + Sulphuric acid → Magnesium sulphate + Hydrogen

f.    Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen

Solution 4

a.   C + O2→ CO2

b.  N2 + O2→ 2NO

c.   3Ca + N2→ Ca3N2

d.  CaO + CO2→ CaCO3

e.   Mg + H2SO4→ MgSO4 + H2

f.    Na + H2O → NaOH + H2

Question 5

Balance the following equations:

a. Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2

b. Ca + N2 → Ca3N2

c. Zn + KOH → K2ZnO2 + H2

d. Fe2O3 + CO → Fe + CO2

e. PbO + NH3Pb + H2O + N2

f. Pb3O4PbO + O2

g. PbS + O2PbO + SO2

h. S + H2SO4 → SO2 + H2O

i. S + HNO3 → H2SO4 + NO2 + H2O

j. MnO2 + HCl → MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2

k. C + H2SO4 → CO2 + H2O + SO2

l. KOH + Cl2KCl + KClO + H2O

m. NO2 +H2O → HNO2 + HNO3

n. Pb3O4 + HCl → PbCl2 + H2O + Cl2

o. H2O + Cl2HCl + O2

p. NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

q. HNO3 + H2S → NO2 + H2O + S

r. P + HNO3 → NO2 + H2O + H3PO4

s. Zn + HNO3  → Zn(NO3)2 + H2O + NO2

 Solution 5

Balanced chemical equations:

 Solution 5

Balanced chemical equations:

 

a.   3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2

b.  3Ca + N2 → Ca3N2

c.   Zn + 2KOH → K2ZnO2 + H2

d.  Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2

e.   3PbO + 2NH3 → 3Pb + 3H2O + N2

f.    2Pb3O4 → 6PbO + O2

g.  2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2

h.  S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O

i.     S + 6HNO3 → H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O

j.     MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

k.  C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + H2O + SO2

l.     2KOH + Cl2KCl + KClO + H2O

m.                       2NO2 + H2O → HNO2 + HNO3

n.  Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + 4H2O + Cl2

o.  2H2O + 2Cl2 → 4HCl + O2

p.  2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2

q.  2HNO3 + H2S → 2NO2 + 2H2O + S

r.    P + 5HNO3 → 5NO2 + H2O + H3PO4

s.    Zn + 4HNO3  → Zn(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO

 

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CLASS - 9 - ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Book - Total English-9

CHAPTER - 1 (Already solved in the book)

CHAPTER - 2

ASSIGNMENT (pg. 36)

Answers: (A)

1. An

2. A____x

3. an

4. x_____x

5. a_____a

6.x_____x_____a

7. a_____x

8. an

9. a

10. a

(B)  1. The

2. The_____x

3. the_____the

4. The_____the

5. The_____the

6. x________the

7. x________a

8. The______the

9. The_______x_______the

10. The______x

Ques 5  (a)

1. Made

2. could resist

3. to trickle

4. had built

5. perfected

6. building

7. taking

8. sharing

(b)

1. with

2. across

3. at

4. down

5. through

6. about

7. up

8. from

(c)

1. I will find him wherever he goes.

2. Here is the lady whose daughter is a tennis player.

3. The thief escaped in the dark.

4. She came to school though she had high fever today.

(d)

1. You had better to come back tomorrow.

2. It seemed that he was warming up.

3. The musician’s performance on the stage was admirable.

4. It was dangerous to cross the railway lines to get to the station.

5. No sooner had the chief guest arrived than we all stood up.

OR

No sooner did the chief guest arrive than we all stood up.

6. Having featured his leg, Satish was forbidden to go out by the doctor.

7. She invited us for dinner on Sunday.

OR

She invited us to have dinner with her on Sunday.

8. People say that he has been in the Indian Army.

 

CHAPTER- 3

ASSIGNMENT (pg. 53)

1.   Are

2.   Was

3.   Was

4.   Has

5.   Wait

6.   Is

7.   Deserve

8.   Is

9.   Is

10.  make

11. is

12.was

Word Economy (pg. 56)

1. inimitable

2. inarticulate

3. inaudible

4. incombustible

5. impassable

6. incommunicative

7. Impotent

8. indelible

9. incorrigible

10. inaccessible

Ques 5(pg. 64)

(a)

1. invented

2. connecting

3. produced

4. to create

5. found

6. burnt

7. experimented

8. helped

(b)

1. from

2. in

3. out

4. up

5. Through

6. up

7. at.

8. across

(c)

1. The police will soon find out the snatcher of the lady’s purse.

2. He does not know that there is something in store for him.

3. It was careless of me to forget my passport.

4. She has to tell her mother about her going there.

(d)

1. It is compulsory for us to study a third language up to class VIII.

2. My uncle is so old that he cannot learn new things.

3. Upon arriving I had a cup of tea.

4. He aims at becoming rich therefore he works hard.

5. His music must be listened to by us.

6. The harsh weather prevented the ship from sailing / to sail.

7. My shirt was washed before it was returned.

8. He asked Uma if she was going for the picnic the next day.

CHAPTER 4

ASSIGNMENT (pg 69)

1. have been

2. has____entered

3. have been fasting

4. has not visited

5. have been doing

6. have been waiting

7. has_____announced

8. has already written

9. has been talking

10. have finished

Ques 5.

(a)

1. to send

2. attacked

3. was surrounded

4. could manage

5. built

6. thought

7. hidden

8. destroyed

(b)

1. up

2. up

3. after

4. back

5. upon

6. down

7. to

8. against

(c)

1. The train will stop if you pull the chain.

2. This was what she said.

3. As I have completed my studies, I am looking for a job

OR

Having completed my studies, I am looking for a job.

4. We can travel either by bus or train.

(d)

1. After dressing up, Rima had her breakfast.

2. The little girl hid herself lest she should be seen

3. The officer examined the documents with care.

4. Neelam exclaimed that the sun looked very beautiful that day.

5. The last time I missed a match was 2 years ago.

6. Beena is the most melodious singer in the world.

7. Not until you pay the money you will not get the camera back.

8. John isn’t as clever as handsome he is.

CHAPTER 5 (pg 94)

Ques. 5

(a)

1. race / run

2. were placed

3. allowed

4. was called

5. were added

6. went

7. throw

8. were revived

(b)

1. with

2. upon

3. at

4. of

5. over

6. in

7. out

8. through

(c)

1. Nobody has an idea what happened in the meeting.

2. Take a check as the cash may not be sufficient.

3. The book is so simple that even a child can read it.

4. Your phone call came after I had left the house.


(d)

1. Sunita was cycling so fast that she could not stop at once.

2. It was stupid of me to forget his name.

3. I am so tired that I cannot walk any further.

4. Tara asked her father if she could have a new dress.

5. People knew him to be a kind man.

6. She ought to have left earlier.

7. Unless we like the book, we won’t buy it.

8. Besides treating him well he helped him too.

 

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