Class 9 Chapter 7 - Study of Gas Laws Exercise Ex. 7
Question Num 1
What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500
dm3 of air at 1 bar to 200 dm3
temperature remaining constant.
Solution Num 1
V1 = 500 dm3
P1 = 1 bar
T1 = 273 K
V2 = 500 dm3
T2 = 273 K
P2= ?
Question Num 2
2 litres of a gas is enclosed in a vessel at a pressure of
760 mmHg. If temperature remains constant, calculate
pressure when volume changes to 4 dm3.
Solution Num 2
V = 2 litres
P = 760 mm
V1 = 4000 m3 [1 dm3 = 4
litres]
P1= ?
Question Num 3
At constant temperature, the effect of change of pressure on
volume of a gas was as given below:
Pressure in atmosphere
|
Volume in litres
|
0.20
|
112
|
0.25
|
89.2
|
0.40
|
56.25
|
0.60
|
37.40
|
0.80
|
28.10
|
1.00
|
22.4
|
-
Plot the following graphs
1. P vs V
2. P vs 1/V
3. PV vs P
Interpret each graph in terms of a law.
-
Assuming that the pressure values given above are
correct, find the correct measurement of the volume.
Solution Num 3
-
P/atm
|
V/dm3
|
1/V
|
PV
|
0.2
|
112
|
0.009
|
22.4
|
0.25
|
89.2
|
0.011
|
22.4
|
0.4
|
56.25
|
0.018
|
22.4
|
0.6
|
37.4
|
0.027
|
22.4
|
0.8
|
28.1
|
0.036
|
22.4
|
1
|
22.4
|
0.045
|
22.4
|
i. P vs. V:
At constant temperature, P is inversely proportional to V.
Thus, the plot of V versus P will be a rectangular
hyperbola.
ii. P vs. 1/V:
According to Boyle's law, at constant temperature, pressure
of a fixed amount of gas varies inversely to its volume. The
graph of pressure verses 1/V shows a positive slope.
iii. PV vs. P:
According to Boyle's law, the product of pressure and volume
is constant at constant temperature. The graph of PV versus
P is constant which indicates that the given gas obeys
Boyle's law.
-
The correct measurements of the volume are given below:
P/atm
|
V/dm3
|
0.2
|
112
|
0.25
|
89.6
|
0.4
|
56
|
0.6
|
37.33
|
0.8
|
28
|
1
|
22.4
|
Question Num 4
800 cm3 of gas is collected at 650 mm pressure.
At what pressure would the volume of the gas reduce by 40%
of its original volume, temperature remaining constant?
Solution Num 4
Given:
V = 800 cm3
P = 650 m
P1= ?
V1 = reduced volume = 40% of 800
=
Net V1 = 800 - 320 = 480 cm3
T = T1
Using the gas equation,
Since T = T1
Question Num 5
A cylinder of 20 litres capacity contains a gas at 100
atmospheric pressure. How many flasks of 200 cm3capacity
can be filled from it at 1 atmosphere pressure, temperature
remaining constant?
Solution Num 5
Question Num 6
A steel cylinder of internal volume 20 litres is filled with
hydrogen at 29 atmospheric pressure. If hydrogen is used to
fill a balloon at 1.25 atmospheric pressure at the same
temperature, what volume will the gas occupy?
Solution Num 6
V = 20 litre
P = 29 atm
P1 = 1.25 atm
V1 =?
T = T1
Question Num 7
561 dm3 of a gas at STP is filled in a 748 dm3
container. If temperature is const
ant, calculate the percentage change in pressure required.
Solution Num 7
Initial volume = V1 = 561 dm3
Final volume = V2 = 748 dm3
Difference in volume = 748 - 561 = 187 dm3
As the temperature is constant,
Decrease in pressure percentage =
Question Num 8
88 cm3 of nitrogen is at a pressure of 770 mm
mercury. If the pressure is raised to 880 mmHg, find by how
much the volume will diminish, temperature remaining
constant.
Solution Num 8
V = 88 cm3
P = 770 mm
P1 = 880 mm
V1= ?
T = T1
Volume diminishes = 88 - 77 = 11 cm3
Question Num 9
A gas at 240 K is heated to 127°C. Find the percentage
change in the volume of the gas (pressure remaining
constant).
Solution Num 9
Let volume = 100 ml
T = 240 K
Volume increased = x ml
New volume = 100 + x ml
T1 = 400 K
Question Num 10
Certain amount of a gas occupies a volume of 0.4 litre at
17°C. To what temperature should it be heated so that its
volume gets (a) doubled, (b) reduced to half, pressure
remaining constant?
Solution Num 10
(a) V1 = 0.4 L
V2 = 0.4 × 2L
T1 = 17°C (17 + 273) = 290 K
T2= ?
(b) V1 = 0.4 L
V2 = 0.2 L
T1 = 17°C (17 + 273) = 290 K
T2= ?
Question Num 11
A gas occupies 3 litres at 0°C. What volume will it occupy
at -20°C,
pressure remaining constant?
Solution Num 11
V = 3 litres
P = P1
V1= ?
T = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
T1 = -20°C = -20°C + 273 = 253 K
Question Num 12
A gas occupies 500 cm3 at normal temperature. At
what temperature will the volume of the gas be reduced by
20% of its original volume, pressure being constant?
Solution Num 12
V = 500 cm3
Normal temperature, t = 0°C = 0 + 273 K
V1 = Reduced volume + 20% of 500 cm3
Net, V1 = 500 - 100 = 400 cm3
T1= ?
P = P1
Question Num 13
Calculate the final volume of a gas 'X' if the original
pressure of the gas at STP is doubled and its temperature is
increased three times.
Solution Num 13
V1 = X
P1 = 1 atm
V2= ?
T2 = 3 T1
P2 = 2 atm
Question Num 14
A sample of carbon dioxide occupies 30 cm3 at
15°C and 740 mm pressure. Find its volume at STP.
Solution Num 14
V = 30 cm3
P = 740 mm
T = 288 K
P1 = 760 mm
V1= ?
T1 = 273 K
Question Num 15
50 cm3 of hydrogen is collected over water at
17°C and 750 mmHg pressure. Calculate the volume of a dry
gas at STP. The water vapour pressure at 17°C is 14 mmHg.
Solution Num 15
V = 50 cm3
P = 750 - 14 = 736 mm
T = 290 K
P1 = 760 mm
V1= ?
T1 = 273 K
Question Num 16
At 0°C and 760 mmHg pressure, a gas occupies a volume of 100
cm3. Kelvin temperature of the gas is increased
by one-fifth and the pressure is increased one and a half
times. Calculate the final volume of the gas.
Solution Num 16
V = 100 cm3
P = 760 mm
T = 273 K
V1= ?
Question Num 17
It is found that on heating a gas its volume increases by
50% and its pressure decreases to 60% of its original value.
If the original temperature was -15°C,
find the temperature to which it was heated.
Solution Num 17
Let the original volume (V) = 1 and
the original pressure (P) = 1 and
the temperature given (T) = -15°C = -15 + 273 = 258 K
V1 or new volume after heating = original volume
+ 50% of original volume
P1 or decreased pressure = 60%
T1 = to be calculated
Question Num 18
A certain mass of a gas occupies 2 litres at 27°C and 100
Pa. Find the temperature when volume and pressure become
half of their initial values.
Solution Num 18
V = 2 litres
P = 100 Pa
T = 300 K
T1 = 75 - 273 = -198°C
Question Num 19
2500 cm3 of hydrogen is taken at STP. The
pressure of this gas is further increased by two and a half
times (temperature remaining constant). What volume will
hydrogen occupy now?
Solution Num 19
V1 = 2500 cm3
P1 = 1 atm = 760 mm
T1 = 273 K
V2= ?
T2 = 273 K
Question Num 20
Taking the volume of hydrogen as calculated in Q.19, what
change must be made in Kelvin (absolute) temperature to
return the volume to 2500 cm3 (pressure remaining
constant)?
Solution Num 20
V1 = 714.29 cm3
P1 = P2 = P
T1 = 273 K
V2 = 2500 cm3
T2= ?
Question Num 21
A given amount of gas A is confined in a chamber of constant
volume. When the chamber is immersed in a bath of melting
ice, the pressure of the gas is 100 cmHg.
a. What is the temperature when the pressure is 10 cmHg?
b. What will be the pressure when the chamber is brought to
100°C
Solution Num 21
-
V1 = V2 = V
P1 = 100 cmHg
T1 = 273 K
P2 = 10 cmHg
T2= ?
-
V1 = V2 = V
P1 = 100 cmHg
P2= ?
T1 = 273 K
T2 = 373 K
Question Num 22
A gas is to be filled from a tank of capacity 10,000 litres
into cylinders each having capacity of 10 litres. The
condition of the gas in the tank is as follows:
-
Pressure inside the tank is 800 mmHg.
-
Temperature inside the tank is -3°C.
When the cylinder is filled, the pressure gauge reads 400
mmHg and the temperature is 0°C. Find the number of
cylinders required to fill the gas.
Solution Num 22
Capacity of the cylinder V = 10000 litres
P = 800 mm
T =
-3°C
=
-3
+ 273 = 270 K P1 = 400 mmHg
T1 = 0°C = 0 + 273 = 273 K
V1= ?
Question Num 23
Calculate the volume occupied by 2 g of hydrogen at 27°C and
4 atmosphere pressure if at STP it occupies 22.4 litres.
Solution Num 23
V1 = 22.4 litres
P1 = 1 atm
T1 = 273 K
V2 =?
T2 = 300 K
P2 = 4 atm
Question Num 24
What temperature would be necessary to double the volume of
a gas initially at STP if the pressure is decreased to 50%?
Solution Num 24
V1 = V1
P1 = 760 atm
T1 = 273 K
V2 = 2V1
T2 =?
Question Num 25
Which will have greater volume when the following gases are
compared at STP:
-
1.2/N2 at 25°C and 748 mmHg
-
1.25/O2 at STP
Solution Num 25
-
V = 1.2 litres
P = 748 mmHg
T = 298 K
P1 = 760 mmHg
T1 = 273 K
V1= ?
-
V = 1.25 litres
P = 760 mmHg
T = 273 K
P1 = 760 mmHg
T1 = 273 K
V1= ?
1.25 litres O2 will have greater volume than 1.2
litres N2.
Question Num 26
Calculate the volume of dry air at STP that occupies 28 cm3
at 14°C and 750 mmHg pressure when saturated with
water vapour. The vapour pressure of water at 14°C is 12
mmHg.
Solution Num 26
Pressure due to dry air,
P = 750 - 12 = 738 mm
V = 28 cm3
T = 14°C = 14 + 273 = 287 K
P1 = 760 mmHg
V1= ?
T1 = 0°C = 273 K
Using gas equation,
Question Num 27
An
LPG cylinder can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atmosphere.
The pressure gauge of the cylinder indicates 12 atmosphere
at 27°C. Because of a sudden fire in the building, the
temperature rises. At what temperature will the cylinder
explode?
Solution Num 27
P = 14.9 atm
V = 28 cm3
T = ?
P1 = 12 atm
V = V1
T1 = 300 K
Using gas equation,
Question Num 28
22.4 litres of a gas weighs 70 g at STP. Calculate the
weight of the gas if it occupies a volume of 20 litres at
27°C and 700 mmHg of pressure.
Solution Num 28
Step 1:
V1 = 20 litres
P1 = 700 mm
T1 = 300 K
V2= ?
T2 = 273 K
P2 = 760 mm
Step 2:
22.4 litres of the gas at STP weighs = 70 g
16.76 litres of the gas has weight at STP =
Question 1
What do you understand by gas?
Solution 1
Gas is a state of matter in which interparticle attraction
is weak and interparticle space is so large that the
particles become completely free to move randomly in the
entire available space.
Question 2
Give the assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory.
Solution 2
-
Gases are made of tiny particles which move in all
possible directions at all possible speeds. The size of
molecules is small as compared to the volume of the
occupied gas.
-
There is no force of attraction between gas particles or
between the particles and the walls of the container.
So, the particles are free to move in the entire space
available to them.
-
The moving particles of gas collide with each other and
with the walls of the container. Because of these
collisions, gas molecules exert pressure. Gases exert
the same pressure in all directions.
-
There is large interparticle space between gas
molecules, and this accounts for high compressibility of
gases.
-
Volume of a gas increases with a decrease in pressure
and increase in temperature.
-
Gases have low density as they have large intermolecular
spaces between their molecules.
-
Gases have a natural tendency to mix with one and other
because of large intermolecular spaces. So, two gases
when mixed form a homogeneous gaseous mixture.
-
The intermolecular space of a gas is reduced because of
cooling. Molecules come closer resulting in liquefaction
of the gas.
Question 3
During the practical session in the lab when hydrogen
sulphide gas having offensive odour is prepared for some
test, we can smell the gas even 50 metres away. Explain the
phenomenon.
Solution 3
The phenomenon is diffusion. In air, gas molecules diffuse
to mix thoroughly. Hence, we can smell hydrogen sulphide gas
from a distance in the laboratory.
Question 4
What is diffusion? Give an example to illustrate it.
Solution 4
Diffusion is the process of gradual mixing of two
substances, kept in contact, by molecular motion.
Example:
If a jar of chlorine is opened in a large room, the odorous
gas mixes with air and spreads to every part of the room.
Although chlorine is heavier than air, it does not remain at
the floor level but spreads throughout the room.
Question 5
How is molecular motion related with temperature?
Solution 5
Temperature affects the kinetic energy of molecules. So,
molecular motion is directly proportional to temperature.
Question 6
State (i) the three variables for gas laws and (ii) SI units
of these variables.
Solution 6
-
Three variables for gas laws: Volume
(V),
Pressure (P),
Temperature (T)
-
SI units of these variables:
For volume: Cubic metre (m3)
For pressure: Pascal (Pa)
For temperature: Kelvin (K)
Question 7
-
State Boyle's Law.
-
Give its
i. Mathematical expression
ii. Graphical representation and
iii. Significance
Solution 7
-
Boyle's law:
At constant temperature, the volume of a definite mass
of any gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of
the gas.
Or
Temperature remaining constant, the product of the volume
and pressure of the given mass of a dry gas is constant
-
i. Mathematical
representation:
According to Boyle's Law,
where K is the constant of proportionality.
If V' and P' are some other volume and pressure of the gas
at the same temperature, then
ii. Graphical representation of Boyle's Law:
1.
: Variation
in volume (V) plotted against (1/P) at a constant
temperature: A straight line passing through the origin is
obtained.
2. V vs P: Variation in volume (V) plotted against pressure
(P) at a constant temperature:
A hyperbolic curve in the first quadrant is obtained.
3. PV vs P: Variation in PV plotted against pressure (P) at
a constant temperature: A straight line parallel to the
X-axis is obtained.
iii. Significance of Boyle's law:
According to Boyle's law, on increasing pressure, volume
decreases. The gas becomes denser. Thus, at constant
temperature, the density of a gas is directly proportional
to the pressure.
At higher altitude, atmospheric pressure is low so air is
less dense. As a result, lesser oxygen is available for
breathing. This is the reason mountaineers carry oxygen
cylinders.
Question 8
Explain Boyle's Law on the basis of the kinetic theory of
matter.
Solution 8
Boyle's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter:
-
According to the kinetic theory of matter, the number of
particles present in a given mass and the average
kinetic energy is constant.
-
If the volume of the given mass of a gas is reduced to
half of its original volume, then the same number of
particles will have half the space to move.
-
As a result, the number of molecules striking the unit
area of the walls of the container at a given time will
double and the pressure will also double.
-
Alternatively, if the volume of a given mass of a gas is
doubled at constant temperature, the same number of
molecules will have double the space to move.
-
Thus, the number of molecules striking the unit area of
the walls of a container at a given time will become
one-half of the original value.
-
Thus, pressure will also get reduced to half of the
original pressure. Hence, it is seen that if the
pressure increases, the volume of a gas decreases at
constant temperature, which is Boyle's law.
Question 9
The molecular theory states that the pressure exerted by a
gas in a closed vessel results from the gas molecules
striking against the walls of the vessel. How will the
pressure change if
-
The temperature is doubled keeping the volume constant
-
The volume is made half of its original value keeping
the T constant
Solution 9
-
Pressure will double.
-
Pressure remains the same.
Question 10
-
State Charles's law.
-
Give its
i. Graphical representation
ii. Mathematical expression and
iii. Significance
Solution 10
Charles's Law
At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of a dry
gas increases or decreases by 1/273rd of its
original volume at 0°C for each degree centigrade rise or
fall in temperature.
V
∝
T (at constant pressure)
|
At temperature T1 (K) and volume V1
(cm3):
...(i)
At temperature T2 (K) and volume V2
(cm3):
….(ii)
From (i) and (ii),
For Temperature = Conversion from Celsius to Kelvin
1 K = °C + 273
Example:
20°C = 20 + 273 = 293 K
Graphical representation of Charles's law
T vs V: The relationship between the volume and the
temperature of a gas can be plotted on a graph. A straight
line is obtained.
Graphical representation of Charles's law
|
Significance of Charles's Law:
The volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional
to its temperature; hence, the density decreases with
temperature. This is the reason that
(a) Hot air is filled in balloons used for meteorological
purposes. (b) Cable wires contract in winters and expand in
summers.
Question 11
Explain Charles's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of
matter.
Solution 11
Charles's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter:
According to the kinetic theory of matter, the average
kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to
the absolute temperature. Thus, when the temperature of a
gas is increased, the molecules would move faster and the
molecules will strike the unit area of the walls of the
container more frequently and vigorously. If the pressure is
kept constant, the volume increases proportionately. Hence,
at constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of a gas is
directly proportional to the temperature (Charles's law).
Question 12
Define absolute zero and absolute scale of temperature.
Write the relationship between °C and K.
Solution 12
Absolute zero
The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero.
Absolute or Kelvin scale of temperature
The temperature scale with its zero at -273°C and each
degree equal to one degree on the Celsius scale is called
Kelvin or the absolute scale of temperature.
Conversion of temperature from Celsius scale to Kelvin scale
and vice versa
The value on the Celsius scale can be converted to the
Kelvin scale by adding 273 to it.
Example:
20°C = 20 + 273 = 293 K
Question 13
-
What is the need for the Kelvin scale of temperature?
-
What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale?
Convert it into centigrade scale.
Solution 13
-
The behaviour of gases shows that it is not possible to
have temperature below 273.15°C. This act has led to the
formulation of another scale known as the Kelvin scale.
The real advantage of the Kelvin scale is that it makes
the application and the use of gas laws simple. Even
more significantly, all values on the Kelvin scale are
positive.
-
The boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale is 373 K.
Now, K = °C + 273 and °C = K - 273.
The Kelvin scale can be converted to the degree Celsius
scale by subtracting 273 So, the boiling point of water on
the centigrade scale is 373 K - 273 =
100°C.
Question 14
-
Define STP or NTP.
-
Why is it necessary to compare gases at STP?
Solution 14
-
Standard or Normal Temperature and Pressure (STP or NTP)
The pressure of the atmosphere which is equal to 76 cm or
760 mm of mercury and the temperature is 0°C or 273 K is
called STP or NTP. The full form of STP is Standard Tempe
rature and Pressure, while that of NTP is Normal Temperature
and Pressure.
Value:
The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature
and 1 atmospheric unit (atm) or 760 mm of mercury for
pressure.
The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature
and 1 atmospheric unit (atm) or 760 mm of mercury for
pressure.
Standard temperature = 0°C = 273 K
Standard pressure = 760 mmHg
= 76 cm of Hg
= 1 atmospheric pressure (atm)
|
-
The volume of a given mass of dry enclosed gas depends
on the pressure of the gas and the temperature of the
gas in Kelvin, so to express the volume of the gases, we
compare these to STP.
Question 15
Correct the following statements:
-
Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure at constant temperature.
-
Volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional
to its temperature, pressure remaining constant.
-
0°C is equal to zero Kelvin.
-
Standard temperature is 25°C.
-
Boiling point of water is 273 K.
Solution 15
-
Volume of a gas is directly proportional to the pressure
at constant temperature.
-
Volume of a fixed mass of a gas is inversely
proportional to the temperature, the pressure remaining
constant.
-
-273°C is equal to zero Kelvin.
-
Standard temperature is 0°C.
-
The boiling point of water is -373 K.
Question 16
-
What is the relationship between the Celsius and Kelvin
scales of temperature?
-
Convert (i) 273°C to Kelvin and (ii) 293 K to °C.
Solution 16
Temperature on the Kelvin scale (K)
= 273 + temperature on the Celsius scale
Or K = 273 + °C
(i) 273°C in Kelvin
t°C = t K - 273
273°C = t K - 273
t K = 273 + 273 = 546 K
∴
273°C = 546 K
(ii) 293 K in °C
t°C = 293 - 273
t°C = 20°C
∴
293 K = 20°C
Question 17
State the laws which are represented by the following
graphs:
Solution 17
-
Charles's law
-
Boyle's law
Question 18
Give reasons for the following:
-
All temperature in the absolute (Kelvin) scale are in
positive figures.
-
Gases have lower density compared to solids or liquids.
-
Gases exert pressure in all directions.
-
It is necessary to specify the pressure and temperature
of a gas while stating its volume.
-
Inflating a balloon seems to violate Boyle's law.
-
Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them.
-
Gas fills the vessel completely in which it is kept.
Solution 18
-
The advantage of the Kelvin scale is that it makes the
application and use of gas laws simple. Of more
significance is that all values on the scale are
positive, removing the problem of negative (-) values on
the Celsius scale.
-
The mass of a gas per unit volume is small because of
the large intermolecular spaces between the molecules.
Therefore, gases have low density. In solids and
liquids, the mass is higher and intermolecular spaces
are negligible.
-
At a given temperature, the number of molecules of a gas
striking against the walls of the container per unit
time per unit area is the same. Thus, gases exert the
same pressure in all directions.
-
Because the volume of a gas changes remarkably with a
change in temperature and pressure, it becomes necessary
to choose a standard value of temperature pressure.
-
According to Boyle's law, the volume of a given mass of
a dry gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at
constant temperature.
When a balloon is inflated, the pressure inside the balloon
decreases, and according to Boyle's law, the volume of the
gas should increase. But this does not happen. On inflation
of a balloon along with reduction of pressure of air inside
the balloon, the volume of air also decreases, violating
Boyle's law.
-
Atmospheric pressure is low at high altitudes. The
volume of air increases and air becomes less dense
because volume is inversely proportional to density.
Hence, lesser volume of oxygen is available for
breathing. Thus, mountaineers have to carry oxygen
cylinders with them.
-
Interparticle attraction is weak and interparticle space
is large in gases because the particles are completely
free to move randomly in the entire available space and
takes the shape of the vessel in which the gas is kept.
Question 19
How did Charles's law lead to the concept of absolute scale
of temperature?
Solution 19
-
The temperature scale with its zero at -273°C and where
each degree is equal to the degree on the Celsius scale
is called the absolute scale of temperature.
-
The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero.
Theoretically, this is the lowest temperature which can
never be reached. All molecular motion ceases at this
temperature.
-
The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero.
Question 20
What is meant by aqueous tension? How is the pressure
exerted by a gas corrected to account for aqueous tension?
Solution 20
Gases such as nitrogen and hydrogen are collected over water
as shown in the diagram. When the gas is collected over
water, the gas is moist and contains water vapour. The total
pressure exerted by this moist gas is equal to the sum of
the partial pressures of the dry gas and the pressure
exerted by water vapour. The partial pressure of water
vapour is also known as aqueous tension.
Collection of gas over water
|
Ptotal = Pgas + Pwater vapour
Pgas = Ptotal- Pwater vapour
Actual pressure of gas = Total pressure - Aqueous tension
Question 21
State the following:
-
Volume of a gas at 0 Kelvin
-
Absolute temperature of a gas at 7°C
-
Gas equation
-
Ice point in absolute temperature
-
STP conditions
Solution 21
-
Volume of gas is zero.
-
Absolute temperature is 7 + 273 = 280 K.
-
The gas equation is
-
Ice point = 0 + 273 = 273 K
-
Standard temperature is taken as 273 K or O°C.
Standard pressure is taken as 1 atmosphere (atm) or 760
mmHg.
Question 22
Choose the correct answer:
-
The graph of PV vs P for a gas is
-
Parabolic
-
Hyperbolic
-
A straight line parallel to the X-axis
-
A straight line passing through the origin
-
The absolute temperature value that corresponds to 27°C
is
-
200 K
-
300 K
-
400 K
-
246 K
-
Volume-temperature relationship is given by
-
Boyle
-
Gay-Lussac
-
Dalton
-
Charles
-
If pressure is doubled for a fixed mass of a gas, its
volume will become
-
4 times
-
½ times
-
2 times
-
No change
Solution 22
-
(iii) Straight line parallel to the X-axis.
-
(ii) 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
-
(iv) Charles
-
(ii) 1/2 times
Question 23
Match the following:
|
Column A
|
Column B
|
(a)
|
cm3
|
(i) Pressure
|
(b)
|
Kelvin
|
(ii) Temperature
|
(c)
|
Torr
|
(iii) Volume
|
(d)
|
Boyle's law
|
|
(a)
|
Charles's law
|
|
|
|
|
Solution 23
Column A
|
Column B
|
(a) cm3
|
Volume
|
(b) Kelvin
|
Temperature
|
(c) Torr
|
Pressure
|
(d) Boyle's law
|
PV = P1 V1
|
(e) Charles's law
|
|
Question 24
Write the value of
-
Standard temperature in
-
°C
-
K
-
Standard pressure in
-
atm
-
mmHg
-
cmHg
-
torr
Solution 24
-
-
°C = O°C
-
K = 273 K
-
-
1 atm
-
760 mmHg
-
76 cmHg
-
1 torr = 133.32 Pascal
Question 25
-
The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is
proportional to the ………….
-
The temperature on the Kelvin scale at which molecular
motion completely ceases is called……………
-
If temperature is reduced to half, ………….. would also
reduce to half.
-
The melting point of ice is …………. Kelvin.
Solution 25
-
Absolute temperature
-
Absolute zero
-
Volume
-
273
Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise
Ex. 4(A)
What is the contribution of the following in atomic
structure?
a. Maharshi Kanada
b. Democritus
Solution 1
-
According to Maharshi Kanada:
-
Matter consisted of indestructible particles called
paramanus (now called atoms).
-
A paramanu does not exist in the free state,
rather it combines with other paramanus to form a
bigger particle called the anu (now called a
molecule).
-
Democritus called paramanu as atom which comes from the
Greek word atomos,
meaning indivisible.
Question 2
State Dalton's atomic theory.
Solution 2
Main postulates of Dalton's atomic theory:
-
Matter consists of very small and indivisible particles
called atoms.
-
Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
-
The atoms of an element are alike in all respects, but
they differ from the atoms of other elements.
-
Atoms of an element combine in small numbers to form
molecules.
-
Atoms of one element combine with atoms of another
element in a simple ratio to form molecules of
compounds.
-
Atoms are the smallest units of matter which can take
part in a chemical reaction.
Question 3
What is an α (alpha) particle?
Solution 3
An
α-particle is a doubly charged helium ion (He2+)
containing two protons and two neutrons. It is formed by
removing two electrons from the helium atom.
Question 4
What are cathode rays? How are these rays formed?
Solution 4
Cathode rays are the beam of electrons which travel from the
negatively charged end (i.e. cathode to anode) of a vacuum
tube, across a voltage difference between the electrodes
placed at each end.
Formation of cathode rays:
Generally gases are poor conductors of electricity. However,
when a high voltage charge from an induction coil is applied
to tubes filled with gases at very low pressure (0.01 mm of
mercury), the gases become good conductors of electricity
and begin to flow in the form of rays.
These rays are called cathode rays and they travel from the
cathode towards the anode.
Question 5
What is the nature of the charge on
-
Cathode rays and
-
Anode rays?
Solution 5
-
Cathode rays are negatively charged as they consist of
negatively charged particles called electrons.
-
Anode rays
are
made of positively charged particles.
Question 6
How are X-rays produced?
Solution 6
When a beam of cathode rays is made to fall upon hard
metallic targets like tungsten, X-rays are produced.
Question 7
Why are anode rays also called as 'canal rays'?
Solution 7
When perforated rays were used in the discharge tube,
another set of rays travelling in a direction opposite to
that of the cathode rays, i.e. from the anode towards the
cathode, is seen, as in the figure below. These rays are
called canal rays because they passed through the holes or
canals in the cathode. These rays were named positive rays
or anode rays.
Question 8
How does cathode ray differ from as anode rays?
Solution 8
Cathode rays
|
Anode rays
|
These rays travel from the cathode to the anode.
|
These rays travel from the anode to the cathode.
|
They are made of negatively charged particles.
|
They are made of positively charged particles.
|
They produce a greenish yellow fluorescence on a
soda-glass screen.
|
They produce fluorescence on a zinc sulphide screen.
|
They are affected by an electric field, i.e. they
are inflected towards a positive field and deflected
towards a negative field.
|
They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
but in a direction opposite to that of cathode rays.
|
Question 9
State one observation which shows that atom is not
indivisible.
Solution 9
Chadwick discovered neutral particles present in an atom by
bombarding light nuclei like beryllium with alpha particles,
i.e. helium nuclei.
4Be9 +
2He4 → 6C12 +
0n1
Discovery of the neutron also showed that an atom is
divisible.
Question 10
a. Name an element which does not contain neutron
b. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it
carry as a whole is neutral
Solution 10
a. Hydrogen does not contain any neutron.
b. No. It is neutral.
Question 11
On the basis of Thomson's model of an atom explain how an
atom as a whole is neutral.
Solution 11
Thomson's Atomic Model:
According to Thomson's atomic model, an atom is made of
positively charged substances in the form of a sphere.
Electrons are embedded into this sphere, and the total
positive charge of the sphere is equal to the total negative
charge of electrons, and hence, the atom remained
electrically neutral. This model was not accepted because it
was unable to explain how positively charged particles were
shielded from negatively charged particles without getting
neutralised.
|
|
Thomson's atomic model
|
Plum pudding
|
Question 12
Which sub-atomic particle was discovered by
a. Thomson
b. Goldstein
c. Chadwick
Solution 12
a. Thomson discovered particles.
b. Goldstein discovered protons.
c. Chadwick discovered neutrons.
Question 13
Name the sub-atomic particle whose charge is:
a. +1
b. -1
c. 0
Solution 13
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Neutron
Question 15
On the basis of Rutherford's model of an atom, which
subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?
Solution 15
According to Rutherford's model of an atom, the subatomic
particle in a nucleus is a proton.
Question 16
Which part of atom was discovered by Rutherford?
Solution 16
The nucleus was discovered by Rutherford.
Question 17
How was it shown that atom has empty space?
Solution 17
Rutherford performed an experiment by allowing a stream of
alpha particles to pass through a very thin gold foil. He
observed that alpha particles pass through the metal foil
without deviating from their path. This shows that an atom
contains a large empty space called nuclear space.
Question 18
State one major drawback of Rutherford's model
Solution 18
One major drawback of Rutherford's model was the comparison
of electrons with the planets in the solar system.
Thus, when an electron moved around the nucleus continually,
it should radiate energy, i.e. lose energy. As a result it
should be gradually pulled towards the nucleus and end up
colliding with it. This should result in the total collapse
of the atom.
However, we know that the atom is structurally stable. Thus,
Rutherford's model could not explain this stability.
Question 19
In the figure given alongside
a. Name the shells denoted by A,B, and C. Which shell has
least energy
b. Name X and state the charge on it
c. The above sketch is of …………. Model of an atom
Solution 19
a) A
is for K shell or I shell.
B is for L shell or II shell.
C is for M shell or III shell.
Shell K has the minimum amount of energy.
b) X is a nucleus; it is positively charged.
c) The above sketch is of Bohr model of an
atom.
Question 20
Give the postulates of Bohr's atomic model
Solution 20
-
Atom has a central nucleus surrounded by electrons.
-
The electrons revolve around the nucleus in definite
circular paths called orbits.
-
Each orbit has fixed energy. Therefore, these orbits are
also known as energy levels or energy shells.
-
These orbits or energy levels are represented either by
a number 1, 2, 3,... known as the principal quantum
number (n) of the orbit or by K, L, M,....
-
There is no change of energy of electrons as long as
they keep revolving in the same energy level and the
atom remains stable. Electrons can jump from the higher
orbit to the lower orbit when they lose energy and jump
to the next when they gain energy.
4 B excercise
Question 1
-
Name the three fundamental particles of an atom.
-
Give the symbol and charge of each particle.
Solution 1
-
The three fundamental particles of an atom are
electron proton and neutron.
-
Particle
|
Symbol
|
Charge
|
Electron
|
e
|
-1
|
Proton
|
p
|
+1
|
Neutron
|
n
|
No charge
|
Question 2
Complete the table given below by identifying P, Q, R and S.
Element
|
Symbol
|
No. of Protons
|
No. of neutrons
|
No. of Electrons
|
Sodium
|
|
11
|
P
|
11
|
Chlorine
|
|
Q
|
18
|
17
|
Uranium
|
R
|
92
|
146
|
92
|
S
|
|
9
|
10
|
9
|
Solution 2
Element
|
Symbol
|
No. of Protons
|
No. of Neutrons
|
No. of Electrons
|
Sodium
|
|
11
|
12
|
11
|
Chlorine
|
|
17
|
18
|
17
|
Uranium
|
238U92
|
92
|
146
|
92
|
S
|
|
9
|
10
|
9
|
Question 3
The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons
and 4 electrons. What are its atomic number and mass number?
Solution 3
Atomic number = Number of protons or number of electrons = 4
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons = 4 + 5
= 9
Question 4
The atomic number and mass number of sodium are 11 and 23
respectively. What information is conveyed by this
statement?
Solution 4
Atomic number (11) of sodium conveys information that the
number of protons and electrons is the same.
Mass number (23) of sodium indicates the sum of protons and
neutrons.
Question 5
Write down the names of the particles represented by the
following symbols and explain the meaning of superscript and
subscript numbers attached
Solution 5
p = proton
n = neutron
e = electron
Superscript number : These superscript number show their
mass number
Subscript number : These numbers show their atomic number
Question 6
From the symbol
,
state the mass number, the atomic number and electronic
configuration of magnesium.
Solution 6
Mass number = 24
Atomic number = 12
No. of electrons = 24 - 12 = 12
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
Question 7
Sulphur has an atomic number 16 and a mass of 32.
State the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of
sulphur. Give a simple diagram to show the arrangement of
electrons in an atom of sulphur.
Solution 7
Atomic number = 16
Atomic mass = 32
Number of protons = 16
Number of electrons = 16
Number of neutrons = 32 - 16 = 16
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6
Question 8
Explain the rule according to which electrons are filled in
various energy levels.
Solution 8
-
The maximum capacity of a shell to accommodate electrons
is given by the general formula 2n2, where n
is the serial number of a shell.
-
The maximum number of electrons possible in the
outermost shell is 8 and that in the penultimate shell
is 18.
-
It is not necessary for an orbit to be completed before
another is formed. In fact, a new orbit is formed when
the outermost shell attains 8 electrons.
Question 9
Draw the orbital diagram of
ion
and state the number of three fundamental particles present
in it.
Solution 9
Orbital diagram of
Atomic number of Ca2+ is 18.
Electronic configuration of Ca2+ is 2, 8, 8.
Number of three fundamental particles of Ca2+:
Protons: 18
Electrons: 18
Neutrons: 40 - 18 = 22
Question 10
Write down the electronic configuration of the following:
Write down the number of electrons in X and neutrons in Y.
Solution 10
Electronic configuration: 27X13 = 2,
8, 3
Number of electrons in X = 13
Number of neutrons in X = 27 - 13 = 14
Electronic configuration of 35Y17 = 2,
8, 7
Number of electrons in Y = 17
Number of neutrons in Y = 35 - 17 = 18
Hence, formula 27X13 stands for
27Na13 and 35Y17 for
35Cl17
Compound formula = NaCl
Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise
Ex. 4(C)
Question 1
How does the Modern atomic theory contradict and correlate
with Dalton's atomic theory?
Solution 1
The latest research on the atom has proved that most of the
postulates of Dalton's atomic theory contradict. However,
Dalton was right that atoms take part in chemical reactions.
Comparisons of Dalton's atomic theory with the modern atomic
theory.
Dalton's atomic theory:
-
Atoms are indivisible.
-
Atoms of the same element are similar in every respect.
-
Atoms combine in a simple whole number ratio to form
molecules.
-
Atoms of different elements are different.
-
Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
Modern atomic theory:
-
Atoms are no longer indivisible and consist of
electrons, protons, neutrons and even more
sub-particles.
-
Atoms of the same element may differ from one another
called isotopes.
-
Atoms of different elements may be similar called
isobars.
-
Atoms combine in a ratio which is not a simple whole
number ratio; e.g. in sugar, the C12H22O11
ratio is not a whole number ratio.
Question 2
-
What are inert elements?
-
Why do they exist as monoatoms in molecules?
-
What are valence electrons?
Solution 2
-
The elements have a complete outermost shell, i.e. 2 or
8 electrons. They ordinarily do not enter into any
reaction.
-
These exist as monoatoms because molecules of these
elements contain only one atom.
-
Valence electrons: The number of electrons present in
the valence shell is known as valence electrons.
Question 3
In what respects do the three isotopes of hydrogen differ?
Give their structures.
Solution 3
The three isotopes differ only due to their mass number
which is respectively 1, 2 and 3 and named protium,
deuterium and tritium.
Question 4
Match the atomic numbers 4,14,8,15 and 19 with each of the
following:
-
A solid non-metal of valency 3.
-
A gas of valency 2.
-
A metal of valency 1.
-
A non-metal of valency 4.
Solution 4
Atomic Number
|
Name with valency
|
-
15
|
A solid non-metal of valency 3
|
-
8
|
A gas of valency 2
|
-
19
|
A metal of valency 1
|
-
14
|
A non-metal of valency 4
|
Question 5
Draw diagrams representing the atomic structures of the
following:
-
Sodium atom
-
Chlorine ion
-
Carbon atom
-
Oxygen ion
Solution 5
-
Sodium atom
-
Chlorine atom
-
Carbon atom
-
Oxygen ion
Question 6
What is the significance of the number of protons found in
the atoms of different elements?
Solution 6
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines
the element type of the atom.
Question 7
Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 6,9 and 12
respectively. Which one:
-
Forms an onion
-
Forms a cation
-
Has four electrons in its valence shell?
Solution 7
Atomic numbers of X
Y
Z
6 9
12
(2, 4) (2, 7) (2, 8, 2)
-
Y(2, 7) forms an anion.
-
Z(2, 8, 2) forms a cation.
-
X(2, 4) has four electrons in the valence shell.
Question 8
Element X has electronic configuration 2,8,18,8,1. Without
identifying X,
-
Predict the sign and charge on a simple ion of X.
-
Write if X will be an oxidizing agent or a reducing
agent. Why?
Solution 8
-
X1+
-
Oxidising agent, because it has the ability to donate
electrons.
Question 9
Define the terms:
-
Mass number
-
Ion
-
Cation
-
Anion
-
Element
-
orbit
Solution 9
-
Mass number
is the sum of the number of protons and the number of
neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
-
Ion
is an atom or molecule which carries a positive or
negative charge because of loss or gain of electrons.
-
Cation
is a positively charged ion which is formed when an atom
loses one or more electrons; for example, Na+,
Hg2+ and Ca2+.
-
Anion is
a negatively charged ion which is formed when an atom
gains one or more electrons; for example, Cl- and
I-.
-
Element
is a substance which cannot be split up into two or more
simple substances by usual chemical methods of applying
heat, light or electric energy; for example, hydrogen,
oxygen and chlorine.
-
Orbit
is a circular path around the nucleus in which electrons
of the atom revolve.
Question 10
From the symbol
for
the element helium, write down the mass number and the
atomic number of the element.
Solution 10
Atomic number = 2
Mass number = 4
Question 11
Five atoms are labeled A to E
Atoms
|
Mass No
|
Atomic No.
|
A
|
40
|
20
|
B
|
19
|
9
|
C
|
7
|
3
|
D
|
16
|
8
|
E
|
14
|
7
|
-
Which one of these atoms:
-
contains 7 protons
-
has electronic configuration 2,7
-
Write down the formula in the compound formed between C
and D
-
Predict : (i) metals (ii) non-metals
Solution 11
a.
-
Atom E contains 7 protons.
-
Atom B has an electronic configuration 2, 7.
b. Atom C stands for 7Li3, Atom D
stands for 8O16.
Hence, compound formula is Li2O.
c. Metals: A and C, Non-metals: B, D, E
Question 12
An atom of an element has two electrons in the M shell.
What is the (a) atomic number (b) number of protons in this
element?
Solution 12
Number of electrons in the M shell = 2
So, the number of electrons in the K and L shells will be =
2, 8
Hence, atomic number = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12
Number of protons = 12
Question 13
Solution 13
-
i.
|
12Mg24
|
12Mg26
|
No. of electrons
|
12
|
12
|
No. of protons
|
12
|
12
|
No. of neutrons
|
24 - 12 = 12
|
26 - 12 = 14
|
Hence, composition of nuclei
12Mg24 →
ii. Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2
-
Mass numbers of two isotopes of magnesium are different
because of different number of neutrons, i.e. 12 and 14,
respectively.
Question 14
What are nucleons? How many nucleons are present in
phosphorus? Draw its structure.
Solution 14
Nucleons: Particles which constitute the nucleus are called
nucleons.
Protons and neutrons are the nucleons.
Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31
Atomic number = 15
Question 15
What are isotopes? With reference to which fundamental
particle do isotopes differ? Give two uses of isotopes.
Solution 15
Isotopes: Atoms of the same element having the same atomic
number but different mass numbers.
Isotopes differ with reference to neutrons.
Uses of isotopes:
-
Some isotopes are radioactive, i.e. isotopes of cobalt
are used for treating cancer and other diseases.
-
An isotope of 235U is used as a fuel in a
nuclear reactor.
Question 16
Why do
have
the same chemical properties? In what respect do these atoms
differ?
Solution 16
Only electrons take part in chemical reactions. Chemical
properties depend on the electronic configuration. Isotopes
of the element Cl
have
the same atomic number, and hence, the same configuration.
So, they have the same chemical properties. These differ
only in physical contents and weights because neutrons
contribute to the mass of an atom.
have
different number of neutrons 18 and 20, respectively.
Question 17
Explain fractional atomic mass. What is the fractional mass
of chlorine?
Solution 17
Atomic masses of the isotopes of chlorine are 35 and 37.
However, in any given sample of chlorine gas, the isotopes
occur in the approximate ratio 3:1, 75% of Cl35
and 25% of Cl37. So, the relative atomic mass or
atomic weight of chlorine is 35.5.
Fractional atomic mass of chlorine
At. Mass = 3(35) + 1(37) = 105 + 37
2
2
Question 18
a. What is meant by 'atomic number of an element''?
b. Complete the table given below
|
No. of protons
|
No. of electrons
|
No. of Neutrons
|
Atomic Number
|
Mass number
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
c. Write down the electronic configuration of (i) chlorine
atom (ii) chlorine ion
Solution 18
a. Atomic number of an element is the number of protons in
the nucleus of an atom.
b.
|
No. of protons
|
No. of electrons
|
No. of neutrons
|
Atomic number
|
Mass number
|
|
17
|
17
|
18
|
17
|
35
|
|
17
|
17
|
20
|
17
|
37
|
c.
i. Electronic configuration of chlorine = 2, 8, 7
ii. Electronic configuration of chlorine ion = 2, 8, 8
Question 19
Name the following:
-
The element which does not contain any neutron in its
nucleus.
-
An element having valency 'zero'
-
Metal with valency 2
-
Two atoms having the same number of protons and
electrons but different number of neutrons.
-
The shell closest to the nucleus of an atom
Solution 19
-
Hydrogen
-
Helium
-
Magnesium
-
Hydrogen and carbon
-
K
Question 20
Give reasons
-
Physical properties of isotopes are different.
-
Argon does not react.
-
Actual atomic mass is greater than mass number.
-
Solution 20
-
Physical properties depend on atomic mass, and isotopes
have different mass number, i.e. they have different
number of neutrons. So, isotopes have different physical
properties.
-
Argon does not react as it has the outermost orbit
complete, i.e. 8 electrons in the outermost shell.
-
Actual atomic mass is greater than the mass number
because the mass number is a whole number approximation
of atomic mass unit. In fact, neutrons are slightly
heavier than protons, and an atom has over 200
sub-atomic particles.
-
are isotopes
of chlorine element which differ in the number of
neutrons, whereas chemical properties are determined by
the electronic configuration of an atom. Isotopes of an
element are chemically alike.
Question 21
An element A atomic number 7 mass numbers 14
B electronic configuration 2,8,8
C electrons 13, neutrons 14
D Protons 18 neutrons 22
E Electronic configuration 2,8,8,1
State (i) Valency of each element (ii) which one is a metal
(iii) which is non-metal (iv) which is an inert gas
Solution 21
(i)
Element A
Atomic number = 7 = Number of electrons = 2, 5
Valency of A = 8 - 5 = 3
Element B
Electronic configuration 2, 8, 8
Valency of B = Zero
Element C has 13 electrons
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3
Valency of C = 3
Element D
Protons = 18 = Electrons = 2, 8, 8
Valency of D = Zero
Element E
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1
Valency of E = 1
(ii) C and E are metals.
(iii) A is a non-metal.
(iv) A, C and E are not inert gases.
Question 22
Choose the correct option
-
Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment
discovered
A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Atomic nucleus
D. Neutron
-
Number of valence electrons in O2- is :
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 4
-
Which of the following is the correct electronic
configuration of potassium?
A. 2,8,9
B. 8,2,9
C. 2,8,8,1
D. 1,2,8,8
Solution 22
-
Atomic nucleus
-
[6]
-
[2, 8, 8, 1]
Question 23
Explain
a. Octet rule for formation of sodium chloride
b. Duplet rule for formation of hydrogen
Solution 23
Elements tend to combine with one another to attain the
stable electronic configuration of the nearest inert gas.
(a) Sodium chloride
Sodium atom has 1 electron in the valence shell which it
donates to the chlorine atom with 7 electrons in the valence
shell to attain the stable electronic configuration of the
nearest inert gas, i.e. 8 electrons in the valence shell.
This is known as the octet rule. These elements combine to
form sodium chloride.
(b) Hydrogen
Hydrogen atom has one electron in the valence shell which it
shares with another hydrogen atom having one electron to
complete its duplet state, i.e. two electrons in the valence
shell and resulting in the formation of hydrogen.
Question 24
Complete the following table relating to the atomic
structure of some elements.
Element Symbol
|
Atomic
Number
|
Mass
Number
|
Numbers of neutrons
|
Number of Electrons
|
Number of Protons
|
Li
|
3
|
6
|
|
|
|
Cl
|
17
|
|
20
|
|
|
Na
|
|
|
12
|
|
11
|
Al
|
|
27
|
|
|
13
|
S
|
|
32
|
16
|
|
|
Solution 24
Element Symbol
|
Atomic
Number
|
Mass
Number
|
Numbers of Neutrons
|
Number of Electrons
|
Number of Protons
|
Li
|
3
|
6
|
4
|
3
|
3
|
Cl
|
17
|
37
|
20
|
17
|
17
|
Na
|
11
|
23
|
12
|
11
|
11
|
Al
|
13
|
27
|
14
|
13
|
13
|
S
|
16
|
32
|
16
|
16
|
16
|
Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise
Ex. 4(D)
Question 1
Question 1
How do atoms attain noble gas configurations?
Solution 1
Combining atoms attain the noble gas configuration by
transferring or sharing electrons.
Question 2
Define electrovalent bond.
Solution 2
The chemical bond formed due to the electrostatic force of
attraction between a cation and an anion is called an
electrovalent bond.
Question 3
Elements are classified as metals, non-metal, metalloids and
inert gases. Which of them form electrovalent bond?
Solution 3
Metals have a tendency to lose their valence electrons (1, 2
or 3). So, they combine with non-metals which have 7, 6 or 5
electrons in their valence shell to form an electrovalent
bond.
Question 4
-
An atom X has three electrons more than the noble gas
configuration. What type of ion will it form?
-
Write the formula of its (X)
i. sulphate
ii. nitrate
iii. phosphate
iv. carbonate
v. hydroxide.
Solution 4
-
An atom X will lose its three electrons to acquire the
noble gas configuration and form a positive ion (a
cation).
-
The formulae are
i. X(SO4)3
ii. X(NO3)3
iii. XPO4
iv. X2(CO3)3
v. X(OH)3
Question 5
Mention the basic tendency of an atom which makes it to
combine with other atoms
Solution 5
Besides chaos, everything in this world wants stability. The
same is the case with atoms. For atoms, stability means
having the electron arrangement of an inert gas, i.e. octet
in the outermost shell. Helium has two electrons (duplet),
while all other inert gases, i.e. neon, argon, krypton,
xenon and radon have eight electrons (octet) in the
outermost shell.
Question 6
What type of compounds are usually formed between metals and
non-metals and why?
Solution 6
Electrovalent compounds are usually formed between metals
and non-metals.
Atoms of metallic elements which have 1, 2 or 3 valence
electrons can lose electron(s) to atoms of non-metallic
elements which have 5, 6 or 7 valence electrons and thereby
form an electrovalent bond.
Question 7
-
In the formation of the compound XY2, an atom
X gives one electron to each Y atom. What is the nature
of bond in XY2?
-
Draw the electron dot structure of this compound.
Solution 7
-
Nature of bond in XY2 is an ionic bond.
-
Electron dot structure of XY2:
Question 8
An atom X has 2, 8, 7 electrons in its shell. It combines
with Y having 1 electron in its outermost shell.
-
What type of bond will be formed between X and Y?
-
Write the formula of the compound formed.
Solution 8
-
Ionic bond
-
XY
Question 9
Draw orbit structure diagram of sodium chloride (NaCl) and
calcium oxide (CaO).
Solution 9
NaCl
MgCl2
CaO
Question 10
Compare :
-
Sodium atom and sodium ion
-
Chlorine atom and chloride ion, with respect to
i. Atomic structure
ii. Electrical state
Solution 10
-
Sodium atom
|
Sodium ion
|
Sodium atom is electrically neutral.
|
Sodium ion is positively charged.
|
In sodium atom, there are 11 protons and 11
electrons, i.e. equal number of protons and
electrons.
|
In sodium ion, there are 11 protons but 10
electrons, i.e. sodium ion contains lesser number of
electrons.
|
Sodium atom has only one electron in its valence
shell.
|
Sodium ion has 8 electrons in its valence shell.
|
Size of a sodium atom is larger than a sodium ion.
|
Size of a sodium ion is smaller than a sodium atom.
|
-
-
In chlorine atom, the number of protons (17) is
equal to the number of electrons (17).
In chloride ion, there are 17 protons but 18 electrons.
-
Chlorine atom is electrically neutral. Chloride ion
is negatively charged.
-
Chlorine atom is reactive. It reacts with sodium
vigorously forming sodium chloride. Chloride ion is
unreactive. It does not react with sodium.
-
Chlorine (Cl2) is a poisonous, toxic,
corrosive gas which is used in the manufacture of
bleaching agents and disinfectants. It is non-toxic
and readily adsorbed by plants.
Question 11
The electronic configuration of fluoride ion is the same as
that of neon atom. What is the difference between the two?
Solution 11
Fluoride ion is a negatively charged ion with 9 protons and
10 electrons.
Neon atom is electrically neutral with 10 protons and 10
electrons.
Question 12
-
What do you understand by redox reactions?
-
Explain oxidation and reduction in terms of loss or gain
of electrons.
Solution 12
-
Transfer of electron(s) is involved in the formation of
an electrovalent bond. The electropositive atom
undergoes oxidation, while the electronegative atom
undergoes reduction. This is known as a redox reaction.
-
Oxidation: In the electronic concept, oxidation is a
process in which an atom or ion loses electron(s).
Zn
→ Zn2+ + 2e- Reduction: In the
electronic concept, reduction is a process in which an
atom or ion accepts electron(s). Cu2+ + 2e- →
Cu
Question 13
Potassium (at No.19) and chlorine (at No.17) react to form a
compound. Explain on the basis of electronic concept:
i. Oxidation
ii. Reduction
iii. Oxidizing agent
iv. Reducing agent
Solution 13
2K + Cl2 → 2KCl
i. Oxidation: In the electronic concept, oxidation
is a process in which an atom or ion loses electron(s).
K → K+ + e-
ii. Reduction: In the electronic concept, reduction
is a process in which an atom or ion accepts electron(s).
Cl2 + 2e-→ 2Cl-
iii. Oxidising agent
An oxidising agent oxidises other substances either by
accepting electrons or by providing oxygen or an
electronegative ion, or by removing hydrogen or an
electropositive ion.
Cl2 + 2e-→ 2Cl-
iv. Reducing agent
A reducing agent reduces other substances either by
providing electrons or by providing hydrogen or an
electropositive ion, or by removing oxygen or an
electronegative ion.
K → K+ + e-
Chapter 4 - Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Exercise
Ex. 4(E)
Question 1
-
Define covalent bond.
-
Give an example of the covalent bond formed by
(i) Similar atoms (ii) Dissimilar atoms
Solution 1
-
The chemical bond formed between two combining atoms by
mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons is
called a covalent bond.
-
Covalent bond formed by
-
Bond formed between two Cl atoms; Cl‒Cl
-
Bond formed between hydrogen atom and chlorine atom;
H‒Cl
Question 2
Covalent bonds can be single, double or triple covalent
bonds. How many electrons are shared in each? Give an
example of each type.
Solution 2
A single covalent bond is formed by sharing of one pair of
electrons between atoms, each atom contributing one
electron.
A double bond is formed by sharing of two pairs of electrons
between two atoms.
A triple bond is formed by sharing of three pairs of
electrons between two atoms.
Question 3
Show number of bonds in
(i) ethene molecule (ii) ethyne molecule
Solution 3
-
Ethene molecule has one double covalent bond and four
single covalent bonds.
-
Ethyne molecule has one triple covalent bond and two
single covalent bonds.
Question 4
An element A has 1 electron in its first shell. It combines
with element B having 7 electrons in its third shell. What
type of bond is formed?
Solution 4
Element A with 1 electron in its first shell is hydrogen,
and element B with 7 electrons in its third shell is
chlorine.
So, a single covalent bond is formed between hydrogen and
chlorine by sharing one pair of electrons.
Question 5
Match the atomic numbers 4,8,10,15 and 19 with each of the
following:
-
Element which can form trivalent ion
-
Element with four shells
-
Element with 6 valence electrons
-
Element which does not form ion
Solution 5
-
Atomic number 15
Electronic configuration (15): 2,8,5
-
Atomic number 19
Electronic configuration (19): 2,8,8,1
-
Atomic number 8
Electronic configuration (8): 2,6
-
Atomic number 10
Electronic configuration (10): 2,8
Question 6
If electrons are getting added to en element Y; then
(a) Is Y getting oxidized or reduced?
(b)What charge will Y migrate to during the process of
electrolysis?
Solution 6
-
Electrons are getting added to element Y, so, it is
getting reduced.
-
Y will migrate towards the positive charge.
Question 7
-
Elements X,Y and Z have atomic numbers 6,9 and 12
respectively. Which one:
i. Forms an anion
ii. Forms a cation
-
State the type of bond between Y and Z and give its
molecular formula.
Solution 7
-
i. Y = 9
ii. Z = 12
-
Ionic bond with molecular formula ZY2.
Question 8
Taking MgCl2 as an electrovalent compound, CCl4
as a covalent compound, give four difference between
electrovalent and covalent compounds
Solution 8
MgCl2 - Electrovalent compound
|
CCl4 - Covalent compound
|
They are hard crystalline solids consisting of ions.
|
These are gases or liquids or soft solids.
|
They have high melting and boiling points.
|
They have low melting and boiling points.
|
They conduct electricity in the fused or aqueous
state.
|
They do not conduct electricity in the solid, molten
or aqueous state.
|
These are soluble in inorganic solvents but
insoluble in organic solvents.
|
These are insoluble in water but dissolve in organic
solvents.
|
Question 9
Potassium chloride is an electrovalent compound, while
hydrogen chloride is covalent compound, But, both conduct
electricity in their aqueous solutions. Explain.
Solution 9
Potassium chloride is an electrovalent compound and conducts
electricity in the molten or aqueous state because the
electrostatic forces of attraction weaken in the fused state
or in aqueous solution.
Polar covalent compounds like hydrogen chloride ionise in
their solutions and can act as an electrolyte. So, both can
conduct electricity in their aqueous solutions.
Question 10
Name two compounds that are covalent when taken pure but
produce ions when dissolved in water.
Solution 10
HCl and NH3
Question 11
An element M burns in oxygen to form an ionic compound MO.
Write the formula of the compounds formed if this element is
made to continue with chlorine and sulphur separately.
Solution 11
Formula of compound when combined with sulphur - MS
Formula of compound when combined with chlorine -
MCl2
Question 12
Give orbital diagram of the following:
a) Magnesium chloride
b) Nitrogen
c) Methane
d) Hydrogen chloride
Solution 12
Orbital Diagram:
a) Magnesium chloride
b) Nitrogen
c) Methane
d) Hydrogen chloride
Question 13
State the type of bonding in the following molecules.
-
Water,
-
Calcium oxide
-
Hydrogen chloride
Solution 13
-
Polar covalent bond
-
Ionic bond
-
Polar covalent bond
Question 14
Element M forms a chloride with the formula MCl2
which is a solid with high melting point. What type of bond
is in MCl2 . Write the formula of the compound
when M combine with sulphur, oxygen and nitrogen.
Solution 14
The bond formed between metal and nonmetal is ionic bond.
Bond formed between metal M and chlorine is ionic bond.
When metal M combines with sulphur – MgS
When metal M combines with oxygen – MgO
When metal M combines with nitrogen – Mg3N2.
Question 15
-
Mass of an atom is concentrated inside the nucleus of
the atom.
-
Atoms combine by transfer and sharing of electron(s).
-
An element has atoms with different mass number.
-
Carbon-12 and carbon-14 both show similar chemical
properties.
Solution 15
-
Mass of an atom is contributed by mass of protons and
mass of neutrons present inside the nucleus of an atom.
Electrons present outside the nucleus are of negligible
mass. Therefore, the mass of an atom is concentrated
inside the nucleus of an atom.
-
Atoms combine because they have incomplete valence
shells and tend to attain a stable electronic
configuration. So, to attain a stable electronic
configuration, atoms of elements gain or share their
electrons with other atoms.
-
Mass of an atom is contributed by mass of protons and
mass of neutrons present inside the nucleus of an atom.
Atoms of the same element contain the same number of
protons but may differ in their number of neutrons.
Therefore, an element has atoms with different mass
number.
-
Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. They
have the same atomic number (6) and hence the same
electronic configuration. Chemical properties are
determined by the electronic configuration of an atom.
So, carbon-12 and carbon-14 show similar chemical
properties.
Question 16
-
The characteristic of an electrovalent compound is that:
a. They are formed by sharing of electrons.
b. They are formed between metals and non-metals.
c. They are formed between two non-metals.
d. They often exist as a liquid.
-
When a metal atom becomes an ion:
a. It loses electrons and is oxidised.
b. It gains electrons and is reduced.
c. It gains electrons and is oxidised.
d. It loses electrons and is reduced.
Solution 16
(i) B. They are formed between metals and non-metals.
(ii) A. It loses electrons and is oxidised.
Question 17
Identify the following reactions as either oxidation or
reduction:
i. O + 2e- → O2-
-
K - e- → K+
-
Fe3+ + e- → Fe2+
-
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
Solution 17
-
Reduction
-
Oxidation
-
Reduction
-
Oxidation
Question 18
-
Name the charged particles which attract one another to
form electrovalent compounds.
-
In the formation of electrovalent compounds, electrons
are transferred from one element to another. How are
electrons involved in the formation of a covalent
compound?
-
The electronic configuration of nitrogen is (2, 5). How
many electrons in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom are
not involved in the formation of a nitrogen molecule?
-
In the formation of magnesium chloride (by direct
combination between magnesium and chlorine), name the
substance that is oxidized and the substance that is
reduced.
Solution 18
-
Cation and anion
-
By mutual sharing of electrons
-
Two
-
Magnesium is oxidised and chlorine is reduced.
Question 19
What is the term defined below?
-
A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each
bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair.
-
A bond formed by transfer of electron(s).
Solution 19
-
Single covalent bond
-
Electrovalent bond
Question 20
Name or state the following:
(a) An element having valency zero
(b) Metal with valency one
(c) Atoms of the same element differing in mass number
(d) Elements having same mass number but different atomic
number
(e) Bond formed by transfer of electron(s)
(f) Ion formed by gain of electron(s)
Solution 20
(a) Helium
(b) Lithium
(c) Hydrogen: 11H, 21H,
31H
(d) 4018Ar and 4020Ca
(e) Ionic bond
(f) Anion
Question 21
An element X has 2 electrons in its M shell, it forms bond
with an element Y which has 7 electrons in its third orbit.
-
Write the formula of the compound formed.
-
Which nearest inert gas electronic configuration will
element X and Y acquire.
-
Show by orbital diagram the formation of compound
between X and Y.
Solution 21
Element X has 2 electrons in its M shell.
The electronic configuration would be 2, 8, 2.
So, element X is Mg (12).
Element Y has 7 electrons in its third orbit.
The electronic configuration would be 2, 8, 7.
So, element Y is Cl (17).
-
MgCl2
-
The nearest inert gas electronic configuration for
element X is 2,8, while that for element Y is 2,8,8.
-
Orbital diagram showing the formation of the compound
between X and Y:
Magnesium chloride:
Question 22
In the formation of (i) oxygen molecule (ii) carbon
tetrachloride molecule, state the following:
-
Electronic configuration of nearest inert gas attained.
-
How many electrons are shared/transferred in bond
formation
-
Which type of bonds these compounds form?
-
Draw their orbital diagrams.
Solution 22
In the formation of
-
Oxygen molecule
-
Neon (10) 2,8
-
Two pairs of electrons are shared.
-
Covalent bond
-
Orbital Diagram:
-
Carbon tetrachloride molecule
-
Neon (10) 2,8
-
Four pair of electrons are shared.
-
Covalent bond
-
Orbital Diagram:
Chemistry
Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise
Ex. 6(A)
Question 1
Justify the position of Hydrogen in the periodic table.
Solution 1
Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table. Its
atomic number is 1, and it has only one electron in its
valence shell. So, it belongs to the first group and the
first period of the periodic table.
Question 2
Why does hydrogen show dual nature?
Solution 2
Hydrogen shows dual nature because it resembles the alkali
metals of Group IA and the halogens of Group VIIA.
Question 3
Compare hydrogen with alkali metals on basis of:
-
Ion formation
-
Reducing power
-
Reaction with oxygen
-
Oxide formation
Solution 3
-
Each of them can form a cation by loss of an electron.
H → H+ + e-
Li →Li+ + e-
-
Both alkali metals and hydrogen act as reducing agents.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
CuO + Na → Cu + Na2O
-
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns
with a pop sound.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Alkali metals also burn vigorously when heated in oxygen to
form their respective oxides.
Lithium forms monoxide.
4Li + O2 → 2Li2O
-
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns
with a pop sound.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Alkali metals also burn vigorously when heated in oxygen to
form their respective oxides.
Lithium forms monoxide.
4Li + O2 → 2Li2O
Question 4
In what respect does hydrogen differ from:
-
alkali metals
-
halogens?
Solution 4
-
Oxides of alkali metals are basic in nature, whereas the
oxide of hydrogen H2O is a neutral oxide.
-
Hydrogen atom has only one shell, but halogens have two
or more shells.
Question 5
Give the general group study of hydrogen with reference to
-
valence electrons
-
burning
-
reducing power
Solution 5
-
Hydrogen has one valence electron in its outermost
orbit.
-
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form its oxide. It burns
with a pop sound.
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
-
Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent.
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
Question 6
Why hydrogen was called 'inflammable air'?
Solution 6
Hydrogen was called inflammable air because of its
combustible nature.
Question 7
State some sources of hydrogen.
Solution 7
In the free state, hydrogen is found in traces in the
earth's crust and atmosphere.
In the combined state, plant and animal tissues are made of
compounds of hydrogen with carbon, oxygen and nitrogen.
Question 8
Compare hydrogen and halogens on the basis of:
-
physical state
-
ion formation
-
valency
-
reaction with oxygen
Solution 8
-
Like halogens (fluorine and chlorine), hydrogen too is a
gas.
-
Both show a tendency to form anions because they are one
electron short of the nearest inert gas configuration.
H + e- → H-
Cl + e- →Cl-
-
Both have valency 1.
-
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form neutral oxide, H2O.
Halogens react with oxygen to form acidic oxides like Cl2O
and Cl2O7.
Question 9
Which metal is preferred for preparation of hydrogen.
-
from water?
-
from acid?
Solution 9
-
Reactive metals such as potassium, sodium and calcium.
-
Magnesium, aluminium, zinc and iron.
Question 10
-
Write the reaction of steam with red hot iron.
-
Why this reaction is considered as reversible reaction?
-
How the reaction can proceed continuously?
Solution 10
-
3Fe + 4H2O
⇋
Fe3O4 + 4H2
-
The reaction is reversible because if hydrogen formed is
not removed, then the iron oxide formed is reduced back
to iron.
-
Because the reaction is a reversible reaction,
equilibrium is attained at 700°C. At this stage, the
amount of reactants and products does not change.
Question 11
Explain the unique nature of zinc and aluminium. Give
balanced equations to support your explanation.
Solution 11
They react with acids and can even react with hot
concentrated alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
2Al + 6NaOH→ 2Na2Al O3 + 3H2
Oxides and hydroxides of zinc and aluminium are amphoteric.
They react with both bases and acids to give salt and water.
ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O
ZnO + 2NaOH →Na2ZnO2 + H2O
Question 12
Write balanced equations for the following:
-
Iron reacts with dil. HCl
-
Zinc reacts with caustic soda solution
-
Lead reacts with potassium hydroxide
-
Aluminium reacts with fused sodium hydroxide
Solution 12
-
Fe +2 HC l → FeCl2 + H2
-
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
-
Pb + 2KOH → K2PbO2 + H2
-
2Al + 6NaOH→ 2Na2Al O3 + 3H2
Question 13
Write the balanced equations and give your observations when
the following metals react:
i. Sodium with cold water
ii. Calcium with cold water
iii. Magnesium with boiling water
iv. Magnesium with steam
Solution 13
-
The reaction is highly exothermic and vigorous with the
evolution of hydrogen.
2Na + 2H2O →2NaOH + H2
-
Calcium sinks in water and the reaction is less
vigorous.
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
-
Magnesium reacts slowly with boiling water and forms a
base, magnesium hydroxide, liberating hydrogen gas.
Mg + 2H2O →Mg(OH)2 + H2O
-
Magnesium burns in steam with an intense white light
liberating hydrogen gas and white ash, i.e. magnesium
oxide.
Mg + H2O → MgO + H2
Question 14
-
Under what conditions iron reacts with water.
-
Give the balanced equation of the reaction.
-
What is noticed if the products are not allowed to
escape?
Solution 14
-
Iron is less reactive than zinc, but red hot iron reacts
with steam, forming triferric tetra-oxide and hydrogen
gas.
-
3Fe + 4H2O
⇋
Fe3O4 + 4H2
-
If the product formed, i.e. hydrogen is not removed,
then the iron oxide formed is reduced back to iron.
Question 15
From the knowledge of activity series, name a metal which
shows the following properties
-
It reacts readily with cold water.
-
It displaces hydrogen from hot water.
-
It displaces hydrogen from dilute HCl.
-
It forms a base which is insoluble in water.
Solution 15
-
Sodium
-
Magnesium
-
Zinc
-
Calcium
Question 16
Complete the following word equations:
-
Sodium hydroxide + zinc → hydrogen + _________
-
Calcium + water → calcium hydroxide + _________
Solution 16
-
Sodium hydroxide + zinc → hydrogen + sodium zincate
-
Calcium + water → calcium hydroxide + hydrogen
Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise
Ex. 6(B)
Question 1
Hydrogen can be prepared with the metal zinc by using:
-
acid
-
alkali
-
water
Give an equation in each case.
Solution 1
-
Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
-
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
-
Zn + H2O → ZnO + H2
Question 2
For laboratory preparation of hydrogen, give the following:
-
materials used
-
method of collection
-
chemical equation
-
fully-labelled diagram
Solution 2
-
Granulated zinc, dilute HCl or dil. H2SO4
-
It is collected by the downward displacement of water.
-
Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
-
Question 3
-
Name the impurities present in hydrogen prepared in the
laboratory.
-
How can these impurities be removed?
Solution 3
-
Hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen,
phosphine, arsine, carbon dioxide and water vapour are
impurities present in the laboratory.
-
The impurities can be removed from hydrogen by passing
it through
1. Silver nitrate solution to remove arsine and phosphine.
AsH3 + 6AgNO3 → Ag3As +
3AgNO3 + 3HNO3
PH3 + 6AgNO3 → Ag3P + 3AgNO3
+ 3HNO3
2. Lead nitrate solution to remove hydrogen sulphide.
Pb(NO3)2 + H2S → PbS + 2HNO3
3. Caustic potash solution to remove sulphur dioxide, carbon
dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.
SO2 + 2KOH → K2SO3 + H2O
CO2 + 2KOH→ K2CO3+ H2O
2NO2 + 2KOH →KNO2 + KNO3 +
H2O
4. A drying agent used to dry the gas. Common drying agents
such as fused calcium chloride, caustic potash stick and
phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour.
So, the gas is purified and dried and then collected over
mercury because mercury does not react with it.
Question 4
Which test should be made before collecting hydrogen in a
gas jar?
Solution 4
Test: Collect some amount of gas in a test tube and take it
to a flame.
If the gas burns quietly, then there is no more air in the
flask.
Question 5
Why nitric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen?
Solution 5
Nitric acid is a powerful oxidising agent, and the oxygen
formed due to its decomposition oxidises hydrogen to give
water thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.
3Zn + 8HNO3 → 3Zn(NO3)2 +
4H2O + 2NO
Question 6
Why hot concentrated sulphuric acid is not used in the
preparation of hydrogen?
Solution 6
Conc. sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of
hydrogen as it will produce sulphur dioxide.
Zn + 2H2SO4 →ZnSO4 + SO2
+ 2H2O
Question 7
Hydrogen is manufactured by 'Bosch Process'.
-
Give the equations with conditions.
-
How can you obtain hydrogen from a mixture of hydrogen
and carbon monoxide?
Solution 7
-
C + H2O
(CO
+ H2) - ∆
(CO + H2) + H2O
CO2
+ 2H2 + ∆
-
The mixture is passed through ammoniacal cuprous
chloride solution in order to dissolve any uncombined
carbon monoxide.
CuCl + CO + 2H2O →CuCl.CO.2H2O
Question 8
Give equations to express the reaction between:
-
Steam and red hot iron
-
Calcium and water
Solution 8
-
3Fe + 4H2O⇋
Fe3O4 + 4H2
-
Ca + 2H2O
⇋
Ca(OH)2 + H2
Question 9
A small piece of calcium metal is put into a small trough
containing water. There is effervescence and white turbidity
is formed.
-
Name the gas formed in the reaction. How would you test
the gas?
-
Write an equation for the reaction.
-
What do you observe when a few drops of red litmus
solution are added to the turbid solution.
Solution 9
-
Hydrogen gas. When red litmus is introduced in the
solution, it turns blue.
-
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
-
The solution turns blue.
-
If dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the turbid
solution, then they react and neutralise each
other, forming the soluble salt calcium chloride
(CaCl2) and water.
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O
Question 10
Thin strips of magnesium,copper and iron are taken.
-
Write down what happens when these metals are treated as
follows:
-
Heated in presence of air
-
Heated with dil.HCl
-
Added to an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate
-
Arrange these metals in descending order of reactivity.
Solution 10
-
-
On heating thin strips of magnesium, copper and
iron, they form oxides.
-
Magnesium and iron react with HCl liberating
hydrogen and forming their respective salts.
Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals which are
below it in the activity series of metals (such as
copper) because only metals which are more reactive
than hydrogen can displace it from acids.
-
Only magnesium will displace zinc from zinc sulphate
solution because magnesium is more reactive than
zinc in the activity series of metals. No reaction
takes place in case of copper and iron because they
are less reactive than zinc.
-
Mg > Fe > Cu
Question 11
Choose the correct option:
-
Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. HNO3
on
A. Fe B. Cu C. Mg D.
Zn
-
Which metal absorbs hydrogen?
A. Al B.
Fe C. Pd D. K
-
The composition of nucleus of deuterium is
A.
1 e- and 1P B. 1 P and 1 A C.
1 n and 1 e- D. 2P and 1 e-
-
Elements which show unique nature in the preparation of
hydrogen are:
A. Na, K, Li B. Mg, Ca,
Ba C. Al, Zn, Pb D. Fe, Cu,
Ag
Solution 11
-
C.
Mg
-
C.
Pd
-
C.
1 n and 1 e-
-
C.
Al, Zn, Pb
Question 12
Give reasons for the following:
-
Zinc granules are used in lab preparation of hydrogen.
-
Purified and dried hydrogen is collected over mercury.
-
The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under
acid
-
Dilute sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated
acid in the preparation of hydrogen.
Solution 12
-
Zinc granules are preferred over pure zinc in the lab
preparation of hydrogen because the impurity present in
granulated zinc is copper, whose catalysing effect
speeds up the rate of the reaction.
-
Purified and dried hydrogen is collected over mercury
because mercury has no reaction with it.
-
The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under
acid so as to prevent the gas from escaping from the
thistle funnel.
-
Dilute sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated
acid in the preparation of hydrogen because it is a
strong oxidising agent and it will produce sulphur
dioxide.
Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise
Ex. 6(C)
Question 1
-
Where does hydrogen occur in free state?
-
How did the name 'hydrogen' originate?
Solution 1
-
In the free state, hydrogen is found in traces in the
earth's crust and atmosphere. Volcanic gases contain
0.025%, the earth's crust 0.98%, the earth's atmosphere
0.01% and the atmosphere of the Sun and stars 1.1%.
-
The name 'hydrogen' originated on account of its ability
to form water.
Question 2
Hydrogen can be prepared with the help of cold water. Give a
reaction of hydrogen with:
-
A monovalent metal
-
A divalent metal
Solution 2
-
2K + 2H2O →2KOH + H2
-
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
Question 3
Which metal is preferred for collecting hydrogen from:
-
Cold water
-
Hot water
-
Steam
Solution 3
Metal preferred for collecting hydrogen from
-
Cold water: Sodium
-
Hot water: Magnesium
-
Steam: Aluminium
Question 4
Hydrogen may be prepared in the laboratory by the action of
a metal on an acid.
-
Which of the metals copper, zinc, magnesium or sodium
would be the most suitable?
-
Which of the acids dilute sulphuric, concentrated
sulphuric, dilute nitric acid and concentrated nitric
acid would you choose? Explain why you would not use the
acids you reject.
-
How would you modify your apparatus to collect dry
hydrogen? Which drying agent would you employ for this
purpose?
Solution 4
-
Zinc is the most preferred metal in the laboratory
preparation of hydrogen.
-
Dilute sulphuric acid.
Conc. nitric acid, even in its dilute form, is not used in
the preparation of hydrogen from metals because it is a
powerful oxidising agent and oxygen formed due to its
decomposition oxidises hydrogen to give water, thus
defeating the purpose of the reaction.
Conc. sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of
hydrogen as it will produce sulphur dioxide.
-
The gas is collected by the downward displacement of
water.
Common drying agents such as fused calcium chloride, caustic
potash stick and phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour.
Question 5
Why are the following metals not used in the lab.
preparation of hydrogen?
-
calcium
-
iron
-
aluminium
-
sodium
Solution 5
-
Calcium is expensive.
-
Iron has to be heated, and hydrogen thus produced
contains impurities such as hydrogen sulphide and
sulphur dioxide.
-
Aluminium forms a protective coating of Al2O3
due to its great affinity for oxygen. So, it does not
give hydrogen with acid after the reaction has occurred
for some time.
-
Sodium reacts violently with acid.
Question 6
Based on the reactions of water on metals, arrange the
following metals in increasing order of reactivity: iron,
sodium, magnesium, zinc, calcium
Solution 6
Increasing order of reactivity of metals:
Iron < Zinc < Magnesium < Calcium < Sodium
Question 7
Hydrogen is evolved when dilute HCl reacts with magnesium,
but nothing happens in the case of mercury and silver.
Explain.
Solution 7
Hydrogen is evolved when dilute HCl reacts with magnesium
which is placed above hydrogen in the activity series.
However, this does not occur for metals below hydrogen such
as mercury and silver. This is because only metals which are
more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from HCl.
Question 8
Steam can react with metal and non-metal to liberate
hydrogen. Give necessary conditions and equations for the
same.
Solution 8
-
With metals:
3Fe + 4H2O
⇋
Fe3O4 + 4H2
-
With non-metals:
Steam is passed over hot coke (1000°C) in furnaces of a
special design called inverters giving water gas.
C + H2O
(CO
+ H2) - ∆
Water is mixed with excess steam and passed over heated
ferric oxide which acts as a catalyst and chromic oxide
which acts as a promoter.
(CO + H2) + H2O
CO2
+ 2H2 + ∆
The above mixture CO2 + H2 is formed
through cold water under pressure (30 atm) or through
caustic potash solution, which dissolves the more soluble
carbon dioxide leaving hydrogen.
2KOH + CO2 →K2CO3 + H2O
The mixture is passed through ammoniacal cuprous chloride
solution in order to dissolve any uncombined carbon
monoxide.
CuCl + CO + 2H2O →CuCl.CO.2H2O
Question 9
Hydrogen is obtained by displacement from:
-
dilute sulphuric acid
-
dilute hydrochloric acid
Write equations using zinc and iron.
Why does copper not show similar behavior?
Solution 9
-
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
-
Fe + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2
Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals which are below it
in the activity series of metals such as copper because only
metals which are more reactive than hydrogen can displace it
from acids.
Question 10
Give reason for the following:
-
Though lead is above hydrogen in the activity series, it
does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute
sulphuric acid.
-
Potassium and sodium are not used for reaction with
dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid in
laboratory preparation of hydrogen.
Solution 10
-
It forms an insoluble coating of lead sulphate or lead
chloride. So, further reaction is prevented.
-
Potassium and sodium react violently with acid. Hence,
potassium and sodium are not used for reaction with
dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid in the
laboratory preparation of hydrogen.
Question 11
Name two alkalies that can displace hydrogen. Give balanced
equations for the same. Why are the metals you have used
considered to have unique nature?
Solution 11
NaOH and KOH
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
Zn + 2KOH → K2ZnO2 + H2
Metals such as zinc, lead and aluminium have a unique
nature. They react with acids and can even react with hot
alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.
Question 12
Complete and balance the following reactions.
-
Na + H2O →_____________ +___________
-
Ca + H2O →_____________ +___________
-
Mg + H2O →_____________ +___________
-
Zn + H2O →_____________ +___________
-
Fe + H2O →_____________ +___________
-
Zn + HCl →_____________ +___________
-
Al + H2SO4 →_____________
+___________
-
Fe + HCl →_____________ +___________
-
Zn + NaOH →_____________ +___________
-
Al + KOH + H2O→_____________ +___________
Solution 12
-
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2
-
Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2
-
Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2
-
Zn + H2O → ZnO + H2
-
3Fe + 4H2O
⇋Fe3O4
+ 4H2
-
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
-
2Al + 3H2SO4 →Al2(SO4)3
+ 3H2
-
Fe +2HCl →FeCl2 + H2
-
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
-
2Al + 2KOH + 2H2O →2KAlO2 + 3H2
Question 13
If the following are kept in closed vessels at over 400°C,
what would happen to them?
-
iron filing and steam
-
hydrogen and magnetic oxide of iron?
Solution 13
-
Iron oxide is formed with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
-
Hydrogen reduces heated magnetic oxide of iron.
Question 14
-
A metal in the powdered from reacts very slowly with
boiling water, but it decomposes in steam. Name the
metal.
-
Write a balanced equation for the reaction occurring in
(a).
Solution 14
-
Magnesium
-
Mg + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 + H2
Mg + H2O →MgO + H2
Question 15
What do you observe when hydrogen gas is passed through a
soap solution?
Solution 15
On passing hydrogen gas through soap solution, soap bubbles
filled with hydrogen fly high and burst. This behavior
proves that hydrogen is lighter than air.
Question 16
Under what conditions can hydrogen be made to combine with?
-
nitrogen?
-
chlorine?
-
sulphur?
-
oxygen?
Name the products in each case and write the equation for
each reaction.
Solution 16
-
Three volumes of hydrogen and one volume of nitrogen
react at temperature 450-500°C and pressure 200-900 atm
in the presence of finely divided iron catalyst with
molybdenum as promoter to give ammonia.
N2 + 3H2⇋
2NH3
-
Equal volumes of hydrogen and chlorine react slowly in
diffused sunlight to form hydrogen chloride.
H2 + Cl2 →2HCl
-
Hydrogen gas on passing through molten sulphur reacts to
give hydrogen sulphide.
H2 + S → H2S
-
Hydrogen burns in the presence of electric spark with a
'pop' sound in oxygen and with a blue flame forming
water.
2H2 + O2 →2H2O
Question 17
When hydrogen is passed over a black solid compound A, the
products are a 'colourless liquid' and a 'reddish brown
metal B'.
Substance B is divided into two parts each placed in
separate test tubes.
Dilute HCl is added to one part of substance B and dilute
HNO3 to the other.
-
Name the substances A and B.
-
Give two tests for the colourless liquid formed in the
experiment.
-
What happens to substance A when it reacts with
hydrogen? Give reasons for your answer.
-
Write an equation for the reaction between hydrogen and
substance A.
-
Is there any reaction between substance B and dilute
hydrochloric acid? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution 17
-
A = CuO, B = Cu
-
Blue and red litmus paper when dipped in the colourless
liquid do not change colour. This confirms the liquid
formed is neutral and is water.
It changes white anhydrous copper sulphate to blue salt.
-
Black copper oxide (A) on heating with hydrogen reduces
copper oxide to reddish brown copper and itself gets
oxidised to water.
Hydrogen is a strong reducing agent and removes oxygen from
less active metals, i.e. it removes oxygen from heated metal
oxides when passed over them and itself gets oxidised to
water.
-
CuO + H2
Cu
+ H2O
-
Cu + HCl →No reaction
Copper is less reactive than hydrogen and hence cannot
displace it from HCl.
Chapter 6 - Study of the First Element - Hydrogen Exercise
Ex. 6(D)
Question 1
Describe briefly the ionic concept of oxidation and
reduction. Give an equation to illustrate.
Solution 1
In the electronic concept, oxidation is a process in which
an atom or ion loses electron(s).
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-
Oxidation is also defined as a chemical process which
involves
-
Addition of oxygen
-
Addition of electronegative ion
-
Removal of hydrogen
-
Removal of electropositive ion (element)
In the electronic concept, reduction is a process in which
an atom or ion gains electrons.
Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu
Reduction is also defined as a chemical process which
involves
-
Removal of oxygen
-
Addition of electropositive ion
-
Addition of hydrogen
-
Removal of electronegative ion
Question 2
Is it essential that oxidation and reduction must occur side
by side in a chemical reaction? Explain
Solution 2
In a chemical reaction, if one substance is oxidised, the
other substance must necessarily be reduced. This is because
the electrons lost during oxidation are simultaneously
gained during reduction and
vice versa.
For example: Zinc reacts with copper sulphate to form zinc
sulphate and copper.
CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu
Cu + 2SO42- + Zn →Zn + 2SO42-
+ Cu
Writing the half reaction,
Zn → Zn2+ + 2e- (Oxidation)
Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu (Reduction)
They occur simultaneously as
Cu2+ + Zn→ Zn2++ Cu
Thus, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously.
Question 3
State, giving reasons, whether the substances printed in
bold letters have been oxidized or reduced.
-
PbO
+ CO → Pb + CO2
-
Mg +
2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
-
H2S
+ Cl2→ 2HCl + S
-
Cl2
+ H2S
→ 2HCl + S
Solution 3
-
PbO in the given reaction is reduced to Pb by losing
oxygen.
-
Magnesium undergoes oxidation by loss of electrons (Mg -
2e- → Mg2+).
-
H2S undergoes oxidation by loss of hydrogen
to give sulphur.
-
Chlorine undergoes reduction by the addition of hydrogen
to form HCl.
Question 4
State whether the following conversions are oxidation or
reduction:
-
PbO2 + SO2→ PbSO4
-
Cu2+ + 2 e-→ Cu
-
K → K+ + e-
-
2Cl- -
e-→ Cl2
Solution 4
-
Oxidation
-
Reduction
-
Oxidation
-
Oxidation
Question 5
In the following reaction: A+ + B → A + B+.
Write half reactions for this reaction and name:
-
oxidizing agent
-
substance oxidized
-
reducing agent
Solution 5
Half reaction:
A+ + e-→ A (Reduction)
B → B + e- (Oxidation)
a. A
b. B
c. B
Question 6
Divide the following reactions into oxidation and reduction
half reactions:
-
Zn + Pb2+→
Pb + Zn 2+
-
Zn + Cu2+
→
Cu + Zn 2+
-
Cl2 + 2Br- →
Br2 + 2Cl-
Solution 6
-
Zn + Pb2+ → Pb + Zn 2+
Zn → Zn 2+ + 2
e- ---- Oxidation Pb2+ + 2 e → Pb ---- Reduction
-
Zn + Cu2+
→
Cu + Zn 2+
Zn
→
Zn 2+ + 2
e- ---- Oxidation Cu2+ + 2 e → Cu ---- Reduction
-
Cl2 + 2Br- →
Br2 + 2Cl-
Cl2→ 2Cl-
+ 2
e- ---- Oxidation 2Br‒ +
2 e → Br2---- Reduction
Question 7
-
Write the equation in the ionic form
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)→ FeSO4(aq)
+ Cu(s)
-
Divide the above equation into oxidation and reduction
half reactions.
Solution 7
-
Equation in the ionic form:
Cu2+ SO42- +
Fe → Fe2+ SO42- + Cu
-
Fe → Fe2+ 2
e- ---- Oxidation
Cu2+ + 2
e
→ Cu ---- Reduction
Question 8
Give reasons:
-
Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of
water and not of air, even though it is lighter than
air.
-
A candle brought near the mouth of a jar containing
hydrogen gas starts burning but is extinguished when
pushed inside the jar.
-
Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should
be air tight and away from a naked flame.
Solution 8
-
Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of
air because
i. It is insoluble in water. ii. It
forms an explosive mixture with air and therefore cannot
be collected by the downward displacement of air even
though it is lighter than it.
-
Hydrogen is combustible, but it does not support
combustion. So, the candle burns in air or oxygen when
brought near the mouth of a jar containing hydrogen but
is extinguished when pushed inside the jar as the supply
of oxygen is cut off.
-
Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should
be airtight and away from a naked flame because a
mixture of hydrogen and air explodes violently when
brought near a flame.
Question 9
Select the odd one out and justify your answer.
-
Zn, Fe, Mg and Na
-
SO2, H2S, NH3 and CO3
-
Fe, Zn, Cu and Mg
-
Fe, Pb, Al and Zn
Solution 9
-
Na
The other metals react with dil. HCl liberating hydrogen
gas, while sodium reacts violently with acid.
-
NH3 is basic in nature.
-
Cu
Metals more reactive than hydrogen can displace it from
acids.
-
Pb
Lead reacts with dilute sulphuric acid or HCl and forms an
insoluble coating of lead sulphate or lead chloride.
The others react with dilute sulphuric acid or HCl to
liberate hydrogen.
Question 10
-
Helium is preferred to hydrogen for filling balloons
because it is:
-
lighter than air
-
almost as light as hydrogen
-
non-combustible
-
inflammable
-
Reacting with water, an active metal produces
-
oxygen
-
nitric acid
-
a base
-
none of these
c. A metal oxide that is reduced by hydrogen is
i. Al2O3
ii. CuO
iii. CaO
iv. Na2O
-
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is
incorrect?
-
It is an inflammable gas
-
It is the lightest gas.
-
It is not easily liquefied
-
It is a strong oxidizing agent.
-
For the reaction PbO + H2→ Pb + H2O,
which of the following statements is wrong?
-
H2 is the reducing agent.
-
PbO is the oxidizing
agent.
-
PbO is oxidized to Pb.
-
H2 is oxidized to H2O.
-
Which metal gives hydrogen with all of the following:
water, acids, alkalis?
-
Fe
-
Zn
-
Mg
-
Pb
-
Which of the following metals does not give hydrogen
with acids?
-
Iron
-
Copper
-
Lead
-
Zinc
Solution 10
a. non-combustible
b. base
c. CuO
d. It is a strong oxidising agent.
e. (iii) PbO is oxidised to Pb.
f. (ii) Zn
g. (ii) Cu
Question 11
Choose terms from the options given in brackets to complete
these sentences.
-
When CuO reacts with hydrogen,………………… is reduced and
……………….is oxidized to ………………… .
(CuO, H2,Cu,H2O)
-
Hydrogen is ………………… soluble in water.
(sparingly, highly, moderately)
-
Metals like …………….. , ……………… and ……………… give H2 with
steam.
(iron, magnesium, aluminium, sodium , calcium)
-
Sodium ………………. reacts smoothly with cold water.
(metal, amalgam, in the molten state)
-
A metal …………….. hydrogen in the activity series gives
hydrogen with …………… acid or …………… acid.
Solution 11
-
CuO, H2, H2O
-
sparingly
-
magnesium, iron and aluminium
-
amalgam
-
above, dilute hydrochloric, dilute sulphuric acid
Question 12
Correct the following statements:
-
Hydrogen is separated from CO by passing the mixture
through caustic potash solution.
-
All metals react with acids to give hydrogen.
-
Hydrogen is dried by passing it through conc. H2SO4.
-
Very dilute nitric acid reacts with iron to produce
hydrogen.
-
Conc. H2SO4 reacts with zinc to
liberate hydrogen.
Solution 12
-
Hydrogen is separated from CO by passing the mixture
through caustic potash solution.
-
All metals above hydrogen in the activity series react
with acids to give hydrogen.
-
Hydrogen is dried by passing it through calcium
chloride, caustic potash and phosphorous pentoxide.
-
Very dilute nitric acid reacts with magnesium and
manganese to produce hydrogen.
-
Dil.
H2SO4 reacts with zinc to liberate
hydrogen.
Question 13
Name:
-
an oxidizing agent that does not contain oxygen.
-
a substance that oxidizes concentrated HCl to chlorine.
-
a substance that will reduce aqueous Iron(III)ions to
Iron(II)ions.
-
a liquid that is an oxidizing agent as well as a
reducing agent.
-
a gas that is an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.
-
a solid that is an oxidizing agent.
Solution 13
-
Chlorine
-
MnO2
-
H2S
-
Hydrogen peroxide
-
MnO2
Class-9 Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise
Ex. 5(A)
Question 1
What is the need for classification of elements?
Solution 1
It is impossible for a chemist to study all the elements and
their compounds. Hence, classification is a must.
Following are the reasons for the classification of
elements:
-
To study elements better
-
To correlate the properties of the elements with some
fundamental properties which are characteristic of all
the elements
-
To reveal relationships between elements
Question 2
What was the basis of the earliest attempts made for
classification and grouping of elements?
Solution 2
The first classification of elements was into 2
groups-metals and non-metals.
Question 3(a)
A, B and C are the elements of a Dobereiner's triad. If the
atomic mass of A is 7 and that of C is 39, what should be
the atomic mass of B?
Solution 3(a)
At. wt. of A = 7, At. wt. of C = 39
At. wt. of B
= 23
i.e. Average of weights of A and C.
Question 3(b)
Why was Dobereiner's triad discarded?
Solution 3(b)
-
Döbereiner failed to arrange all the known elements in
the form of triads.
-
In the triad of fluorine (19), chlorine (35.5) and
bromine (80), it is observed that the mean of the atomic
masses of fluorine and bromine is ½(19 + 80) = 49.5, not
35.5.
Question 4
Explain 'Newland's Law of Octaves.' Why was the law
discarded?
Solution 4
Elements when arranged in the increasing order of their
atomic weights are similar to the eighth and the first note
of the musical scale. For example, the eighth element from
lithium is sodium. Similarly, the eighth element from sodium
is potassium. Thus, lithium and sodium provide any specific
place for hydrogen.
-
This classification did not work with heavier elements.
-
Newland adjusted two elements Cobalt (Co) and Nickel
(Ni) in the same slot.
-
Fe, which resembles Co and Ni in properties, has been
placed far away.
Question 5
Did Dobereiners triads also exist in the columns of
Newland's Octaves? Compare and find out.
Solution 5
Yes, Döbereiner's triads also exist in the columns of
Newland's octaves. For example, the second column of
Newlands classification has the elements Lithium (Li),
Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K), which constitute a
Döbereiner's triad.
Question 6(a)
Lithium, sodium and potassium elements were put in one group
on the basis of their similar properties. What are those
similar properties?
Solution 6(a)
Elements of lithium, sodium and potassium have the following
similar properties:
-
All these have one electron in the outermost shell.
-
They form unipositive ions.
-
They are good reducing agents.
-
They are soft metals.
-
They impart colour to the flame.
-
Common name of the group is alkali metals [Group 1A].
Question 6(b)
The elements calcium, strontium and barium were put in one
group or family on the basis of their similar properties.
What were those similar properties?
Solution 6(b)
-
All of them are metals.
-
Oxide of each of them is alkaline in nature.
-
Each has valency 2.
Question 7(a)
What was Mendeleev's basis for classification of elements?
Solution 7(a)
Mendeleev's basis for periodic classification:
-
Similarities in the chemical properties of elements.
-
Increasing order of atomic weights of elements.
Question 7(b)
Mendeleev's contributions to the concept of periodic table
laid the foundation for the Modern Periodic Table. Give
reasons.
Solution 7(b)
Mendeleev laid the foundation for the modern periodic table
by showing periodicity of the properties of the elements by
arranging the elements (63) then known into 8 groups, by
leaving gaps for undiscovered elements and predicting their
properties. He made separate groups for metals and
non-metals. He also created periods in which the element
gradually changes from metallic to non-metallic character.
He was also able to show that the element in the same
sub-group had the same valency.
Question 8
State Mendeleev's periodic law.
Solution 8
Mendeleev's periodic law: The physical and chemical
properties of all the elements are a periodic function of
their atomic masses.
Question 9(a)
Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formula of
hydrides of carbon and silicon.
Solution 9(a)
C is in Group 4. So, the hydride will be CH4
(Methane).
Si is in Group 4. So, the hydride will be SiH4
(Silane).
Question 9(b)
Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formula of
oxides of potassium, aluminium and barium.
Solution 9(b)
K is in Group 1. So, the oxide will be K2O
(Potassium oxide).
Al is in Group 3. So, the oxide will be Al2O3
(Aluminium oxide).
Ba is in Group 2. So, the oxide will be BaO (Barium oxide).
Question 10
Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's
original periodic table?
Solution 10
Anomalous pairs of elements were missing from Mendeleev's
periodic table.
Question 11
State the merits of Mendeleev's classification of elements.
Solution 11
Merits of Mendeleev's classification of elements:
-
Grouping of elements
-
Gaps for undiscovered elements: Mendeleev left some gaps
in his periodic table for subsequent inclusion of
elements not known at that time.
-
He predicted the properties of the then unknown elements
on the basis of properties of elements lying adjacent to
the vacant slots (eka-aluminium and eka-silicon).
Question 12
Why did Mendeleev's leave some gaps in his periodic table os
elements? Explain your answer with an example.
Solution 12
He left gaps in the table for the undiscovered elements. He
discovered the properties of such elements with the help of
neighboring elements.
He discovered eka-silicon with atomic mass of 72 which was
later named Germanium with atomic mass 72.6.
Question 13
The atomic number of an element is more important to the
chemist than its relative atomic mass. Why?
Solution 13
Henry Moseley found that when cathode rays struck anodes of
different metals, the wavelength of these metals was found
to decrease in a regular manner of changing the metal of
anode in the order of its position in the periodic table. By
this, he concluded that the number of positive charges
present in the nucleus due to protons (atomic number) is the
most fundamental property of the element.
So, Henry Moseley found that the atomic number is a better
fundamental property of an element compared to its atomic
mass. This lead to the modern periodic law.
This law gave explanations for anomalies in Mendeleev's
classification of elements such as
-
Position of isotopes with the same atomic number can be
put in one place in the same group.
-
Position of argon and potassium: Potassium with higher
atomic number should come later, and argon with lower
atomic number should come first.
Question 14
Consider the following elements: Be, Li, Na, Ca, K. Name the
elements of (a) same group (b) same period.
Solution 14
Element
|
At. No.
|
Electronic distribution
|
Be
|
4
|
2, 2
|
Li
|
3
|
2, 1
|
Na
|
11
|
2, 8, 1
|
Ca
|
20
|
2, 8, 8
|
K
|
19
|
2, 8, 8, 2
|
-
Same IA group (Li, Na, K) and IIA group (Be, Ca)
-
In the second period (Be, Li) and in the fourth period
(K, Ca)
Question 15(a)
Name an element whose properties were predicted on the basis
of its position in Mendeleev's periodic table.
Solution 15(a)
Eka-silicon
Question 15(b)
Name two elements whose atomic weights were corrected on the
basis of their positions in Mendeleev's periodic table.
Solution 15(b)
Gold and Platinum
Question 15(c)
How many elements were known at the time of Mendeleev's
classification of elements?
Solution 15(c)
Only 63 elements were discovered at the time of Mendeleev's
classification of elements.
Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise Ex. 5(B)
Question 1(a)
State the modern periodic law.
Solution 1(a)
Modern periodic law: The physical and chemical properties of
all elements are a periodic function of their atomic
numbers.
Question 1(b)
How many periods and groups are there in the modern periodic
table?
Solution 1(b)
Eighteen groups and seven periods
Question 2
What is the main characteristic of the last elements in the
periods of a periodic table? What is the general name of
such elements?
Solution 2
Last elements of each period have their outermost shell
complete, i.e. 2 or 8 electrons.
The general name is inert gases or noble gases.
Question 3(a)
What is meant in the periodic table by a group?
Solution 3(a)
Vertical columns in a periodic table which have the same
number of valence electrons and similar chemical properties
are called a group.
Question 3(b)
What is meant in the periodic table by a period?
Solution 3(b)
In a periodic table, elements are arranged in the order of
increasing atomic numbers in horizontal rows called periods.
Question 4
From the standpoint of atomic structure, what determines
which elements will be the first and which the last in a
period of the periodic table?
Solution 4
Atomic number determines which element will be the first and
which will be the last in a period of the periodic table.
Question 5(a)
What are the following groups known as?
-
Group 1
-
Group 17
-
Group 18
Solution 5(a)
-
Group 1 is known as the alkali metals.
-
Group 17 is known as the halogens.
-
Group 18 is known as the transition elements.
Question 5(b)
Name two elements of each group.
Solution 5(b)
-
Group 1: Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na)
-
Group 17: Chlorine (Cl), Iodine (I)
-
Group 18: Helium (He), Neon (Ne)
Question 6(a)
What is the number of elements in the 1st period?
Solution 6(a)
There are two elements in the first period.
Question 6(b)
What is the number of elements in the 3rd period,
of the modern periodic table?
Solution 6(b)
There are eight elements in the third period.
Question 7(a)
How does number of (i) valence electrons (ii) valency; vary
on moving from left to right in the second period of a
periodic table?
Solution 7(a)
-
The valence electrons in the same shell (outermost
shell) increase progressively by one across the period.
The first element hydrogen has one valence electron and
helium has two valence electrons.
-
On moving from left to right in a period, valency
increases from 1 to 4, then falls to one and ultimately
to zero in the last group.
Question 7(b)
How does number of (i) valence electrons (ii) valency; vary
on moving from left to right in the third period of a
periodic table?
Solution 7(b)
-
Valence electrons in the same shell (outermost shell)
increase progressively by one across the period. The
first element sodium has one valence electron and
magnesium has two valence electrons.
-
On moving from left to right in the third period,
valency increases from 1 to 7 and ultimately to zero in
the last group.
Question 8
How do atomic structures (electron arrangements) change in a
period with increase in atomic numbers moving left to right?
Solution 8
The size of atoms decreases when moving from left to right
in a period. Thus, in a particular period, the alkali metal
atoms are the largest and the halogen atoms are the
smallest.
Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
Question 9(a)
This question refers to elements of the periodic table with
atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some
elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are
not the usual symbols of the elements.
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
9
|
10
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
E
|
F
|
G
|
H
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
17
|
18
|
I
|
J
|
K
|
L
|
M
|
N
|
O
|
P
|
Which of these is:
-
a noble gas?
-
a halogen?
-
an alkali metal?
-
an element with valency 4?
Solution 9(a)
-
H and P are noble gases.
-
G and O are halogens.
-
A and I are alkali metals.
-
D and L have valency 4.
Question 9(b)
This question refers to elements of the periodic table with
atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some
elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are
not the usual symbols of the elements.
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
9
|
10
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
E
|
F
|
G
|
H
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
17
|
18
|
I
|
J
|
K
|
L
|
M
|
N
|
O
|
P
|
If A combines with F, what would be the formula of the
resulting compound?
Solution 9(b)
Li2O. A stands for lithium and F stands for
oxygen. The valence of lithium is +1 and the valence of O is
-2, i.e. A2F.
Question 9(c)
This question refers to elements of the periodic table with
atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the table below, some
elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are
not the usual symbols of the elements.
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
9
|
10
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
E
|
F
|
G
|
H
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
17
|
18
|
I
|
J
|
K
|
L
|
M
|
N
|
O
|
P
|
What is the electronic configuration of G?
Solution 9(c)
G has atomic number 9; therefore, its electronic arrangement
is 2, 7.
Question 10
Sodium and aluminium have atomic numbers 11 and 13,
respectively. They are separated by one element in the
periodic table, and have valencies 1 and 3 respectively.
Chlorine and potassium are also separated by one element in
the periodic table (their atomic numbers being 17 and 19,
respectively) and yet both have valency 1. Explain.
Solution 10
Na and Al have the capacity to donate an electron due to
which the valency is positive, whereas Cl and K can only
gain or lose one electron due to which their valency is -1
and +1, respectively. This is the only difference between
these two.
Question 11
Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely
low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in
common.
Solution 11
These elements have a full outermost subshell, which results
in high stability. They only react with other elements in
extreme circumstances.
Question 12(a)
In which part of a group would you separately expect the
elements to have the greatest metallic character?
Solution 12(a)
The greatest metallic character can be expected at the
bottom of the group.
Question 12(b)
In which part of a group would you separately expect the
elements to have the largest atomic size?
Solution 12(b)
The largest atomic size can be expected at the lower part of
the group.
Question 13
What happens to the number of valence electrons in atoms of
elements as we go down a group of the periodic table?
Solution 13
The number of valence electrons remains the same as we go
down a group.
Question 14(a)
The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic
table are shown below:
Group 1
|
Group 2
|
Group 17
|
Group 18
|
|
|
|
D
|
|
B
|
C
|
|
A
|
|
|
E
|
State which are metals, non-metals and noble gas in this
table.
Solution 14(a)
Metals: A and B; Non-metals: C; Noble gases: D and E
Question 14(b)
The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic
table are shown below:
Group 1
|
Group 2
|
Group 17
|
Group 18
|
|
|
|
D
|
|
B
|
C
|
|
A
|
|
|
E
|
State which is most reactive (i) metal (ii) non-metal
Solution 14(b)
Most reactive
(i) Metals: Alkali metals (Group I); Caesium
(ii) Non-metals: Halogens (Group 17); Fluorine
Question 14(c)
The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic
table are shown below:
Group 1
|
Group 2
|
Group 17
|
Group 18
|
|
|
|
D
|
|
B
|
C
|
|
A
|
|
|
E
|
Which type of ion will be formed by element A, B and C.
Solution 14(c)
Element A will form a positive ion 1+ (cation).
Element B will form a positive ion 2+ (cation).
Element C will form a negative ion 1- (anion).
Question 14(d)
The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic
table are shown below:
Group 1
|
Group 2
|
Group 17
|
Group 18
|
|
|
|
D
|
|
B
|
C
|
|
A
|
|
|
E
|
Which is larger in size (i) D or E (ii) B or C
Solution 14(d)
-
E
-
B
Question 15
Write the electronic configuration of element 17T35.
-
What is the group number of T?
-
What is the period number of T?
-
How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T?
-
What is the valency of T?
-
Is it a metal or non-metal?
-
State number of protons and neutrons in T.
Solution 15
K L M
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
-
VIIA
-
Third period
-
Seven
-
Valency of T = -1
-
Non-metal
-
Protons = 17, Neutrons = 18
Chapter 5 - The Periodic Table Exercise Ex. 5(C)
Question 1
Element P has atomic number 19. To which group and period,
does P belong? Is it a metal or a non-metal? Why?
Solution 1
Atomic number of P = 19
Its electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1
Group no. of the element = 1A
Period no. of the element = 4
P is a metal.
Question 2
An element belongs to the third period and Group IIIA (13)
of the periodic table. State:
-
the number of valence electrons,
-
the valency,
-
if it is a metal or non-metal?
-
the name of the element.
Solution 2
-
3
-
+3
-
Metal
-
Aluminium
Question 3
Name and state the following with reference to the elements
of the first three periods of the periodic table.
-
Noble gas with duplet arrangement of electrons.
-
Metalloid in Period 3.
-
Valency of elements in Group 14 and 15.
-
Noble gas having electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8.
-
Group whose elements have zero valency.
-
A covalent compound formed by an element in period 2 and
ahalogen.
-
Non-metallic element present in Period 3 of Groups 15
and 16
-
An electrovalent compound formed by an alkaline earth
metal and a halogen.
-
Bridge elements of Period 3 of Group 1,2 and 3.
-
Alkali metal in period 3 that dissolves in water giving
a strong alkali.
-
Typical elements of Groups 14 and 15.
-
Alkaline earth metal in period 3.
Solution 3
-
Helium
-
Silicon
-
4, 3
-
Argon
-
Noble gases
-
Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
-
Silicon, Phosphorus
-
Sodium chloride (Na+Cl-)
-
Li and Mg; Be and Al; B and Si
-
Sodium
-
Typical elements of Period 2 belonging to Group 14 and
15 are carbon and nitrogen.
Typical elements of Period 3 belonging to Group 14 to 15
are silicon and phosphorus.
-
Beryllium
Question 4
Match column A with column B
Column A
|
Column B
|
(a) Element short by 1 electron in octet
|
(i) Transition elements
|
(b) Highly reactive metals
|
(ii) Noble gases
|
(c) Non-reactive elements
|
(iii) Alkali metals
|
(d) Elements of groups 3 to 12
|
(iv) Alkaline earth metals
|
(e) Radioactive elements
|
(v) Halogens
|
(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit
|
(vi)Actinides
|
Solution 4
Column A
|
Answers
|
(a) Element short by 1 electron in octet
|
(v) Halogens
|
(b) Highly reactive metals
|
(iii) Alkali metals
|
(c) Non-reactive elements
|
(ii) Noble gases
|
(d) Elements of Groups 3 to 12
|
(i) Transition elements
|
(e) Radioactive elements
|
(vi) Actinides
|
(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit
|
(iv) Alkali earth metals
|
Question 5
Complete the table:
Atomic number
|
Element
|
Electronic configuration
|
Select element of the same group
|
11
|
Sodium
|
|
(Ca/N/K)…
|
15
|
Phosphorus
|
|
(Ba/N/Rb)…
|
16
|
Sulphur
|
|
(F/Cl/O)…
|
9
|
Fluorine
|
|
(Ca/Cl/K)…
|
Solution 5
Atomic number
|
Element
|
Electronic configuration
|
Select element of the same group
|
11
|
Sodium
|
2, 8, 1
|
K
|
15
|
Phosphorus
|
2, 8, 5
|
N
|
16
|
Sulphur
|
2, 8, 6
|
O
|
9
|
Fluorine
|
2, 7
|
Cl
|
Question 6
Write down the word that will correctly complete the
following sentences:
-
Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is
approximately_____ its atomic number.
-
The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called _____
.
-
Going across a period left to right, atomic size _____ .
-
Moving left to right in the second period, number of
valence electrons _____ .
-
Moving down in the second group, number of valence
electrons___________.
Solution 6
-
Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is
approximately 20 its atomic number.
-
The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called
periods.
-
Going across a period left to right, atomic size
increases.
-
Moving left to right in the second period, number of
valence electrons increases from 1 to 8.
-
Moving down in the second group, number of valence
electrons remain same.
Question 7(a)
Name the alkali metals, How many electron(s) they have in
their outermost orbit.
Solution 7(a)
Name of the alkali metals: Lithium, sodium, potassium,
rubidium, cesium and francium
Electrons in the outermost orbit: 1
Question 7(b)
Take any one alkali metal and write its reaction with
(i)oxygen (ii)water (iii)acid.
Solution 7(b)
-
Reaction of alkali metal with oxygen - React rapidly
with oxygen
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
-
Reaction of alkali metal with water - React with water
violently and produce hydrogen
2M + 2H2O → 2MOH + H2
-
Reaction of alkali metal with acid - React violently
with dil. HCl and dil. H2SO4 to
produce hydrogen
2M + 2HCl → 2MCl + H2
Question 8(a)
Name the method by which alkali metals can be extracted.
Solution 8(a)
Alkali metals can be extracted by the electrolysis of their
molten salts.
Question 8(b)
What is the colour of the flame of sodium and potassium?
Solution 8(b)
The colour of the flame of sodium is golden yellow, and the
colour of the flame of potassium is pale violet.
Question 9
An element A has 2 electrons in its fourth shell. State:
-
its atomic number
-
its electronic configuration
-
its valency
-
position in the periodic table
-
is it a metal or non metal
-
is it an oxidising or reducing agent
Solution 9
-
Ca
-
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
-
2
-
Group 2 Period 4
-
Metal
-
Reducing agent
Question 10(a)
Name the first three alkaline earth metals.
Solution 10(a)
The first three alkaline earth metals are Beryllium,
Magnesium and Calcium.
Question 10(b)
Write the reactions of first three alkaline earth metals
with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Solution 10(b)
Reactions of the first three alkaline earth metals with
dilute hydrochloric acid:
Be + 2HCl → BeCl2 + H2
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
Ca + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2
Question 11(a)
How do alkaline earth metals occur in nature?
Solution 11(a)
Alkaline earth metals occur in nature in the combined state
and not in the free state as they are very reactive.
Question 11(b)
Write the electronic configuration of the first two alkaline
earth metals.
Solution 11(b)
Electronic configuration of the first two alkaline earth
metals:
4Be:
1s22s2
12Mg:
1s22s22p63s2
Question 12
Give reasons:
-
Alkali metals are kept in inert solvent.
-
Alkali metals and halogens do not occur free in nature.
-
Alkali and alkaline earth metal compounds usually form
electrovalent compound.
-
Inert gases do not form compounds.
Solution 12
-
Due to the reactive nature of alkali metals, they are
kept in inert solvents.
-
Alkali metals and halogens are very reactive; hence,
they do not occur in the free state in nature.
-
Alkali metals and alkaline earth metals have 1 and 2
valence electrons, respectively, in their outermost
shell.
They can lose electrons to atoms of non-metals
to form an electrovalent compound.
-
Inert gases have 2 or 8 electrons (duplet/octet) in
their outermost orbit. That is their electronic
arrangement is very stable, so they are unreactive and
do not form compounds.
Question 13
Arrange the following:
-
Elements of group 1, in increasing order of reactivity
-
Elements of group 17, in decreasing order of reactivity
-
He, Na, Mg ( increasing order of melting point)
-
Chlorine, sodium, magnesium (increasing reducing
character)
Solution 13
-
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
-
F > Cl > Br > I
-
He < Na < Mg
-
Cl < Mg < Na
Question 14(a)
State the nature of compounds formed when group 17 elements
combine with (i) metals (ii) non-metals.
Solution 14(a)
-
Group 17 elements react with metals to form metal
halides which are neutral in nature.
-
Group 17 elements react with non-metals to form acidic
compounds such as hydrogen halides.
Question 14(b)
Why group 17 elements are highly reactive?
Solution 14(b)
Group 17 elements are highly reactive because of their
closeness to the noble or stable gas configuration. They can
easily achieve a noble gas electron structure.
Question 15(a)
How many electrons do inert gases have in their valence
shells?
Solution 15(a)
All the noble or inert gases have 8 electrons in their
valence shell except helium which has two electrons in its
valence shell.
Question 15(b)
Name an element of group 18 which can form compounds.
Solution 15(b)
Xenon or krypton from Group 18 can form compounds.
Question 16
Name the gas used in:
-
Filling balloons
-
Light bulbs
-
Bright colour advertising light works
Solution 16
-
Helium
-
Argon
-
Neon
Question 17(a)
What is the name given to group 17 elements? Why are they
called so?
Solution 17(a)
Group 17 elements are called halogens. The name halogens is
from Greek halo
(sea salt) and gens
(producing, forming) and thus means 'sea salt former'.
Question 17(b)
Comment on the (i) reactivity (ii) colour (iii) physical
state of group 17 elements.
Solution 17(b)
Group 17 elements or halogens:
-
Reactivity: Halogens are the most reactive non-metals,
their reactivity decreases down the group. Fluorine is
the most reactive halogen and iodine is the least
reactive halogen.
-
Colour: Fluorine is a pale yellow gas, chlorine is a
greenish yellow gas, bromine is a reddish brown liquid
and iodine is a violet solid.
-
Physical state: Gaseous
Question 18
Two elements P and Q belong to the same period of the modern
periodic table and are in the group 1 and group 2,
respectively. Compare the following characteristics in the
tabular form.
-
Number of electrons i
-
n their atoms
-
Their tendency to lose electrons
-
Formation of their oxides
-
Formulae of their chlorides
Solution 18
As elements P and Q belong to the same period of the modern
periodic table and are in group 1 and group 2, they belong
to alkali metals and alkaline earth metals, respectively.
Characteristic
|
Alkali metals (Element P)
|
Alkaline earth metals (Element Q)
|
(a) Number of electrons in their atoms
|
Valence electron = 1
|
Valence electrons = 2
|
(b) Their tendency to lose electrons
|
Can easily lose electrons
|
They will lose electrons easily but not as easily as
alkali metals can.
|
(c) Formation of their oxides
|
React rapidly with oxygen in air
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
|
Less reactive than alkali metals
|
(d) Formulae of their chlorides
|
NaCl, KCl, CsCl
|
MgCl2, CaCl2, BaCl2
|
Class 9
Biology chapter-7
Solution
A
1. (c) in which glucose is broken down into pyruvate
2. (b) Stomata and lenticels
3. (d) Baker's yeast
Question B.1
Do the plants respire all day and all night or only at
night?
Solution B.1
Respiration is an essential life process for all living
organisms. Therefore, plants also respire all day and all
night.
Solution B.2
(a) ATP
(b) Respiration
(c) Fungus
(d) Glycolysis
(e) Oxygen
(f) Soda lime
Solution B.3
(a) False. Aerobic respiration of one mole of glucose yields
38 ATP.
(b) False. Anaerobic respiration in plants yields ethanol.
(c) True
(d) False.
All leaves of a green plant normally respire aerobically at
night.
Question C.1
What happens to the energy liberated in respiration?
Solution C.1
The energy liberated in respiration is stored in the form of
ATP inside the cells. Some part of it is lost as heat to the
surroundings.
Question C.2
Why is it usually difficult to demonstrate respiration in
green plants?
Solution C.2
During day time, both photosynthesis and respiration takes
place in green plants. Evolution of CO2 is an
indicator to demonstrate respiration in living organisms. CO2 produced
during respiration in plants gets utilized during
photosynthesis and thus, there is no evolution of CO2.
Therefore, it is difficult to demonstrate respiration in
green plants as there is no evolution of CO2 during
day time.
Question C.3
Explain why respiration is said to be the reverse of
photosynthesis.
Solution C.3
Respiration is
said to be the reverse of photosynthesis due to the
following reasons:
(1) In respiration, the organic food is broken down into its
inorganic compounds, i.e., CO2 and H2O,
while in photosynthesis the organic food is synthesized from
its inorganic components, i.e., CO2and H2O.
(2) In respiration, CO2 is given out, while in
photosynthesis CO2 is consumed.
(3) In respiration, O2 is consumed, while in
photosynthesis O2 is released or evolved.
(4) In respiration, energy is liberated, while in
photosynthesis energy is absorbed.
Question C.4
How is tilling of the soil useful for the crops growing in
it?
Solution C.4
Tilling makes the soil porous and airy. The underground
parts of the plants get sufficient amount of oxygen for
respiration. In this way, tilling helps the crops to grow
faster.
Question C.5
Write the full forms of ATP and ADP.
Solution C.5
ATP: Adenosine triphosphate
ADP: Adenosine diphosphate
Question
C.6
Can cell respiration occur in any organism at a temperature
of about 65C? Give reason.
Solution C.6
Cell respiration cannot occur in any organism at a
temperature of about 65C because the enzymes involved in
respiration become inactivated at high temperatures.
Solution C.7
(a) Lenticels
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Glucose
(d) Photosynthesis, respiration
(e) Pyrogallate of potash
(f) KOH (caustic potash)
Question D.1
What is respiration? How are respiration and burning similar
and how are they different?
Solution D.1
Oxidation of organic food particularly carbohydrates in
living cells to release energy is called respiration.
Similarities between respiration and burning:
(i)
Both require oxygen
(ii) Both produce energy
(iii) Both result in the formation of CO2 and
water
Differences between respiration and burning:
Respiration
|
Burning
|
1. Occurs in a series of
chemical
steps
|
1. Occurs in a single
step
|
2. Carried out by
enzymes
|
2. Carried out by heat
|
3. Biochemical process
|
3. Physico-chemical
process
|
4. Energy is liberated
in
the form of ATP and
some
heat
|
4. Energy is liberated
in the form of heat and
light
|
5. No light energy is
produced
|
5. Light energy is
produced
|
6. Cellular process
|
6. Non-cellular process
|
7. Occurs at body
temperature
|
7. Occurs at high
temperature
(at
ignition point)
|
8. No supply of heat
energy
is required
|
8. Supply of heat
energy
is required
|
9. The organic
compound
is oxidized
to
carbon dioxide and
water.
|
9. The organic
compound
initially
chars
and later burns,
producing
a flame.
|
Question D.2
How are
aerobic and anaerobic respiration different
in plants?
Solution D.2
Difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration in
plants:
Aerobic respiration in
plants
|
Anaerobic respiration
in
plants
|
1. Also
called oxybiotic respiration
|
1. Also
called anoxybiotic respiration
|
2. Proceeds in the
presence
of oxygen
|
2. Proceeds in the
absence
of oxygen
|
3. Occurs in
mitochondria
|
3. Occurs in cytoplasm
|
4. Complete breakdown
of
glucose
|
4. Incomplete
breakdown
of glucose
|
5. End-products are
carbon dioxide and
water
|
5. End-products are
ethyl
alcohol and
carbon
dioxide
|
6. Large quantity of
energy
is liberated
(38ATP) from one mole
of
glucose
|
6. Small quantity of
energy
is liberated
(2ATP)
from one mole
of
glucose
|
7. Occurs normally
throughout
the life
|
7. Occurs temporarily
for
short periods
|
Question D.3
Describe one experiment each of you would perform to
demonstrate the following phenomena: The germinating seeds
(a) produce heat, (b) give out carbon dioxide, (c) can
respire even in total absence of air.
Solution D.3
(a) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds produce
heat.
(1) Take two thermos flasks 'A' and 'B'. (2) Take about
200 bean or pea seeds and soak them in water for more than
24 hours. (3) Divide the seeds into two equal groups. Kill
one group of seeds by boiling them and then, wash them with
dilute formalin to prevent bacterial decay. Place the live
germinating seeds in flask A and the killed one in flask B.
(4) Insert a thermometer in each of the flasks and plug
their mouths with cotton wool. Note the initial reading in
the thermometer. (5) After few hours, the thermometer in
flask A will show a higher reading indicating that the
germinating seeds produce heat. There will not be any rise
in the temperature of flask B.
(b) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds
give out carbon dioxide.
(1) Take two flasks 'A'
and' B'. (2) Place some wet cotton wool at the bottom of
both the flasks. (3) Place some soaked seeds of pea in flask
A and an equal number of boiled or dead seeds in flask B.
Add some carbolic acid to flask B to prevent the growth of
bacteria on dead seeds. (4) Cork the flasks and keep them
undisturbed for few days. (5) After few days, the seeds in
flask A will have germinated and the seeds in flask B do not
show any signs of germination. (6) The gases in each of the
flasks are then tested by removing the cork and tilting the
flask over a test tube containing limewater and then shaking
up the test tube. (7) The expected CO2 present in flask A
will turn limewater milky showing that germinating seeds
give out CO2, while the gas in flask B will show no effect
on limewater.
(c) Experiment demonstrating that germinating seeds
can respire even in total absence of air.
(1)
Take few soaked and peeled off pea seeds and push them into
the mouth of a test tube filled with mercury and inverted in
a beaker of mercury. The seeds will float to the top and
will be completely surrounded by mercury. (2) After few
days, the level of mercury falls and the presence of some
gas in the test tube can be detected. (3) Add some KOH to
the test tube. The gas present in the test tube will be
absorbed and the level of mercury will again rise showing
that the gas was CO2. Hence, we can prove that germinating
seeds respire even in the total absence of air.
Question D.4
How do the following structures help in respiration in
plants?
(a) Lenticels _____________
(b)
Stomata _____________
(c)
Root hairs ____________
Solution D.4
(a) Lenticels help the stem to participate in respiration.
(b) Stomata help the leaves to participate in respiration.
(c) Root hairs help the roots to participate in
respiration.
Question E.1
Given below is a set of six experimental set-up (A-F), kept
in this state for about 24 hours.
(a) In how many flasks, the different plant parts have been
kept under observation?
(b) What is the purpose of keeping a test-tube containing
limewater in each flask?
(c) In which tube/tubes the limewater will turn milky?
(d) What is the purpose of the set-up F?
(e) What conclusion can you draw from this experiment?
Solution E.1
(a) Five flasks (A-E) are having different plant parts for
observation.
(b) Limewater absorbs CO2 present in the flasks.
If CO2 is produced, limewater turns milky.
(c) All the five flasks (A-E) containing plant parts will
show respiration and thus, the tubes containing limewater
will turn milky. The flask F does not contain any plant
part. So, there is no respiration and hence, there is no
change.
(d) Set-up F acts as a control for the experiment, where all
the conditions are similar except for the plant part, which
is missing.
(e) It can be concluded from this experiment that CO2 is
produced during respiration.
Question E.2
The following two chemical reactions are supposed to
indicate a certain process occurring in the green plants
under two different conditions:
(a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 +
____ + 38 ATP
(b) C6H12O6 _____
+ 2CO2 + 2 ATP
(i) Fill in the blank in each reaction.
(ii) Name the process represented by the two reactions.
(iii) What are the conditions under which the two reactions
(a) and (b) are occurring respectively?
Solution E.2
(i) (a) 6H2O (b) C2H5OH
(ii) (a) Aerobic respiration; (b) Anaerobic respiration
(iii) Reaction (a) can be completed only in the presence of
oxygen, while reaction (b) can be completed in the absence
of oxygen.
Question E.3
The following diagram refers to an apparatus which is used
to demonstrate a physiological process:
(a) What is the purpose of keeping potassium hydroxide
solution in test tubes X and Y?
(b) Why has the coloured water risen in tubing 1?
(c) What is the purpose of keeping boiled peas soaked in a
disinfectant in test tube Y?
(d) Name the biological process which causes the above
rise.
(e) Define the biological process shown in the experiment.
Solution E.3
(a) Potassium hydroxide solution is kept in test tube X and
Y to check the presence of CO2, as KOH can absorb
CO2, if it is produced.
(b) When the process of respiration takes place in test tube
X, the O2 present in the test tube is consumed.
The CO2 produced due to respiration is absorbed
by the KOH present in the test tube. Hence, a space is
developed due to consumption of oxygen and hence, the
coloured water rises in tubing 1.
(c) In test tube Y, boiled peas soaked in disinfectant are
kept because the boiled seeds are dead and cannot respire.
Therefore, the process of respiration does not take place in
test tube Y.
(d) Respiration is the cause of the above rise.
(e) The catabolic process of releasing energy from simple
sugars for carrying out life processes is called
respiration.
Question E.4
In order to study and prove a particular physiological
process in plants, the following experiment was set up.
Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the physiological process being studied.
(b) What is the function of soda lime in the bottle 'A' and
why is limewater placed in bottle 'B'?
(c) What change would you expect to observe in bottle 'D'?
(d) Represent the physiological process named in (a) above
in the form of a chemical equation.
(e) In order to obtain accurate results, the bottle 'C'
should be covered with a black cloth. Why?
(f) If bottle 'C' was fitted with a 3-holed rubber stopper
and a thermometer was introduced in such a way that its bulb
reaches close to the germinating seeds, what would you
observe? Why?
Solution E.4
(a) The experiment was set up to study that CO2 is
given off from living plant material which performs
respiration.
(b) Soda lime is kept in bottle 'A' so as to check the
(presence of) passage of CO2 present in bottle
'B'. This is because soda lime has a tendency to absorb CO2 present
in air.
The limewater present in bottle 'B' shows that no CO2is
entering bottle C with the air passing through bottle C.
(c) The bottle 'D' having limewater will show that CO2is
produced due to respiration taking place in bottle 'C'
having germinating seeds in it. Due to the CO2produced
in bottle C, the limewater turns milky, which passes through
bottle 'D'.
(d) C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 +
6H2O + 38ATP (Energy)
(e) The bottle 'C' when covered with black cloth will have
no scope for photosynthesis. Hence, only the process of
respiration can be observed.
(f) By introducing a thermometer in bottle 'C', the change
in temperature is checked or observed. If respiration takes
place, there will be a rise in temperature and if there is
no rise in temperature, no respiration occurs. Therefore, a
three-holed rubber stopper and a thermometer were
introduced.
Geography
Ch. 6
ROCKS AND ROCK CYCLE
EX. A
Answer the following questions
1. Sedimentary Rocks formed from material derived from pre -
existing rocks and from organic sources by the process of
denudation.
Igneous Rocks are formed by the process of solidification of
molten rock material which called magma .
2. On the basis of occurrence igneous rocks are divided into
1.
Intrusive
and 2. Extrusive
.
3. The three
rock forming minerals are iron ore, silver, zinc,
gold, lead
etc.
4. Batholith is a large mass of igneous rocks covering about
100 sq. km area. Its floor is not visible.
5. Metamorphism : Alteration of the minerals and textures of
a rock by changes in temperature and pressure and by a gain
or loss of chemical components.
Metamorphism may be caused due to
1. volcanic
eruptions
2. the mountain
building
movement
3. endogenetic
forces
4.
contact with
undergoing water
6. Characteristics of sedimentary rocks :
1. The material of sedimentary rocks is derived from the
pre- existing
rocks.
2. The sedimentary rocks contain layers or strata.
3. Most of the sedimentary rocks are permeable and porous.
4. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
7. The major types of metamorphic rocks are slate, schist,
gneiss, marble, quartzite etc.
8. The agents involved in the formation of sedimentary rocks
are air, water, wind and glacier.
9. Same ans. 7th.
10. Sills-When lava
solidifies before coming out between the horizontal layers
of parent rocks it forms
sills.
Dykes-When
magma solidifies in vertical columns of the bed rocks they
are called dykes.
11.
Sedimentary rocks called stratified rocks because it contain strata or
layers.
12.
Igneous rocks are formed through the
cooling and
solidification of magma.
13.
Rock cycle is a model representing the
interrelationships among the three rock-forming processes:
igneous ,sedimentary and metamorphic.
14. Rock-
An assemblage
of minerals bound
together like granite.
15. Three main types of rocks
according to their origin:
1.
Igneous Rock
2.
Sedimentary Rock
3.
Metamorphic Rock
16.
Intrusive Rocks: Magma that solidifies
below the Earth’s surface and remain surrounded by
pre-existing rock
called intrusive rock.
17. Extrusive Rocks: Rocks formed by the
solidification of magma
above the Earth’s surface are called extrusive rocks.
18. Important of rocks are:
1. Rocks contain minerals which directly or
indirectly help in manufacturing
industries.
2. They also supply a wide variety
of minerals which become the main raw material in
manufacturing industries.
3. They are used as building materials.
4. The entire automobile industry uses petrol
for their transport system.
EX. B
Define the terms:
1. Minerals: A mineral has definite chemical
composition with
its own chemical physical properties.
2. Rocks:
same ans. 14th
3. Sills:
same ans. 10th
4. Dykes: same ans. 10th
5. Conglomerate: Conglomerate consists of
rounded sub- rounded fragments, cemented together by a
matrix of
calcium carbonate, silica, etc.
EX.C
Distinguish between the following terms:
1. ROCKS:
1.Rocks are aggregates f mineral elements.
2.Rocks are heterogeneous in their composition
3. A rock has no definite chemical composition
MINERALS:
1. Minerals are naturally occurring solid
inorganic substance.
2. Minerals are homogeneous in form.
3. Minerals have a definite chemical
composition.
2. VOLCANIC
ROCKS: are formed when lava cools and solidifies on
the Earth’ s surface.
PLUTONIC ROCKS: are formed when magma cools
and solidifies below
the Earth’s surface.
3. THERMAL METAMORPHISM: When the changes
takes place due to high temperature, the new rock formed is
due to thermal metamorphism.
DYNAMIC METAMORPHISM: When the change are
caused due to high pressure, it is called dynamic
metamorphism.
EX. D GIVE REASON:
1. Because all other types of rocks are
directly or indirectly formed from igneous rock.
2.
Because cooling of these rocks are take place very rapidly.
3.
Because rocks contain variety of
minerals which become the main raw material in the
manufacturing industries.
EX. E
DIAGRAM:
1. Volcanic
on ( page no.63 fig. 7.3)
Igneous pg. no. 54 fig. 6.2
2.Rock Cycle page. No. 59 fig. 6.6
Chapter 3 - Chemistry
Water Exercise Ex. 3(A)
Question 1
Water exists in all three states. Discuss.
Solution 1
In the free state, water occurs in the solid, liquid and
gaseous states.
a.
Solid state: A large amount of fresh water is found in the
form of snow or ice.
b.
Liquid state: Most of the water present in oceans and found
in streams, rivers, lakes, ponds and springs on land is
water in the liquid state.
c.
Gaseous state: Water vapour present in the air is in the
gaseous state. Water vapour condenses in the sky to form
clouds. Mist and fog are also examples of water in the
gaseous form.
Question 2
Why is water considered a compound?
Solution 2
Water is considered a compound because it is made of two
elements hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1:8 by
mass.
Mass ratio
of elements H2O
H : O, 2 × 1 : 16 × 1 = 1 : 8
(Atomic mass of H = 1, O = 16)
Components of water cannot be separated by physical methods
but can be separated by electrolysis of water.
Question 3
a.
Why does temperature in Mumbai and Chennai not fall as low
as it does in Delhi?
b.
Give the properties of water responsible for controlling the
temperature of our body.
Solution 3
a)
The temperature in Mumbai and Chennai do not fall as low as
in Delhi because these cities are situated in the coastal
areas. Due to high specific heat capacity, the presence of a
large amount of water is able to modify the climate of the
nearby land areas making them warmer in winter and cooler in
summer. So, the temperature does not fall
as low as
it does in Delhi.
b) Our body is almost 65% of water, and it has the property
of specific heat. Due to high specific heat capacity, the
presence of a large amount of water is able to modify the
climate of the body and control the temperature of our body,
which is warm in winter and cool in summer.
Question 4
'Water is the universal solvent'. Comment.
Solution 4
Water dissolves many substances forming an aqueous solution.
It can dissolve solids, liquids and gases. When a solid
dissolves in water, the solid is the solute, the water is
the solvent and the resultant liquid is the solution. So, it
is said that water is a universal solvent. In other words,
water can dissolve nearly every substance.
Question 5
What causes the violence associated with torrential rain?
Solution 5
The sudden release of the latent heat of condensation causes
the violence associated with torrential rain.
Question 6
a.
Which property of water enables it to modify the climate?
b.
Density of water varies with temperature. What are its
consequences?
c.
What is the effect of impurities present in the water on the
melting point and boiling point of water?
Solution 6
a.
Due to the high specific heat capacity, the presence of a
large amount of water is able to modify the climate.
b.
The property of anomalous expansion of water enables marine
life to exist in the colder regions of the world, because
even when water freezes on the top, it is still liquid below
the ice layer, as the density of water is greater than that
of ice.
c.
The boiling point of water increases due to the presence of
dissolved impurities.
The freezing point of water decreases due to the presence of
dissolved impurities.
Question 7
How do fishes and aquatic animals survive when the pond gets
covered with thick ice?
Solution 7
Water has an unusual physical property. When cooled, it
first contracts in volume, as do other liquids, but at 4°C
(maximum density), it starts expanding, and continues to do
so till the temperature reaches 0°C, the point at which it
freezes into ice.
The property of anomalous expansion of water enables marine
life to exist in the colder regions of the world, because
even when the water freezes on the surface, it is still
liquid below the ice layer.
Formation of ice on the water surface of a pond
|
Question 8
The properties of water are different from the properties of
the elements of which it is formed. Discuss.
Solution 8
Properties of water are different from the
properties of elements from which it is formed.
|
Property
|
Water
|
Elements - Oxygen and Hydrogen
|
Nature
|
It is a clear, colourless, odourless, tasteless and
transparent liquid.
|
These are colourless, odourless, tasteless and
non-poisonous gases.
|
Solubility
|
It can dissolve many substances and is called a
universal solvent.
|
Oxygen and hydrogen are slightly soluble in water.
|
Density
|
Pure water has maximum density at 4°C.
|
Oxygen is heavier than air, and hydrogen is the
lightest of all the known gases.
|
Question 9
How is aquatic life benefited by the fact that water has
maximum density at 4oC?
Solution 9
The property of anomalous expansion of water enables aquatic
life to exist because water freezes on the surface of the
water body, but it is still liquid below the ice layer.
Question 10
What are the observations and conclusions when tap water is
boiled and evaporated?
Solution 10
When tap water is boiled and evaporated:
Observations:
• A number of concentric rings of solid matter are seen on
the watch glass after evaporation of tap water.
Conclusion:
• Tap water contains dissolved salts, minerals and
impurities.
Question 11
What is the importance of dissolved salts in water?
Solution 11
Importance of dissolved salts in water:
-
Dissolved salts provide specific taste to water.
-
Dissolved salts act as micronutrients for the growth and
development of living beings.
Question 12
State the importance of the suitability of CO2
and O2 in water.
Solution 12
They add taste to water for drinking purposes.
Question 13
How is air dissolved in water different from ordinary air?
Solution 13
Oxygen is more soluble in water than nitrogen. Air dissolved
in water contains a higher percentage of oxygen (30-35%).
Oxygen is only 21% in ordinary air. In this way, air
dissolved in water is different from ordinary air.
Question 14
Explain what you understand from the following diagram:
Solution 14
i.
When a solid changes into a liquid, it absorbs heat equal to
the latent heat of fusion. When a liquid changes into a
solid, it loses heat equal to the latent heat of
solidification.
ii.
When a liquid changes into a gas, it absorbs heat equal to
the latent heat of vaporisation. When a gas condenses into a
liquid, it loses heat equal to the latent heat of
condensation.
Question 15
Explain why:
a.
Boiled or distilled water tastes flat.
b.
Ice at zero degrees centigrade has greater cooling effect
than water at 0oC.
c.
Burns caused by steam are more severe than burns caused by
boiling water.
d.
Rivers and lakes do not freeze easily?
e.
Air dissolved in water contains a higher proportion of
oxygen.
f.
If distilled water is kept in a sealed bottle for a long
time, it leaves etchings on the surface of the glass.
g.
Rain water does not leave behind concentric rings when
boiled.
Solution 15
a.
Boiled water tastes flat because it does not contain
dissolved matter such as air, carbon dioxide and other
minerals.
b.
Ice at 0°C gives more cooling effect than water at 0°C
because at 0°C ice absorbs 336 J per gram of energy to melt
to 0°C water.
c.
Burns caused by steam are more severe than burns caused by
boiling water because of high specific latent heat of
condensation. 2268 J/g of heat is released when 1 g of steam
condenses to form 1 gm of water.
d.
Due to the high specific latent heat of solidification of
water, rivers and lakes do not freeze easily.
e.
Air dissolved in water contains a higher percentage of
oxygen because the solubility of oxygen in water is more
than that of oxygen in air.
f.
If distilled water is kept in a sealed bottle for a long
time, it etches the surface of glass because substances
which are apparently insoluble in water actually dissolve in
minute traces in water.
g.
Rain water does not leave concentric rings when boiled
because rain water does not contain dissolved solids.
Chapter 3 - Water Exercise Ex. 3(B)
Question 1
Explain the terms:
a.
Solution
b.
Solute
c.
Solvent
Solution 1
a.
Solution:
A solution is a
homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, the
components of which cannot be seen separately.
b.
Solute:
A solute is the substance which dissolves in a solvent to
form a solution.
c.
Solvent:
A solvent is the medium in which a solute dissolves.
Solution = Solute + Solvent
|
Question 2
Explain why a hot saturated solution of potassium nitrate
forms crystals as it cools.
Solution 2
Solubility of nitrates decreases with a fall in temperature.
Thus, when a hot saturated solution of potassium nitrate
cools, it forms crystals as it separates from the solution.
Question 3
Give three factors which affect the solubility of a solid
solute in a solvent.
Solution 3
Three factors on which the solubility of a solid depend:
i.
Temperature
ii.
Nature of the solid
iii.
Nature of the solvent
Question 4
(a) If you are given some copper sulphate crystals, how
would you proceed to prepare its saturated solution at room
temperature?
(b) How can you show that your solution is really saturated?
Solution 4
a.
Take 100 g of distilled water in a beaker. Add to this one
gram of copper sulphate crystals.
b.
Stir this mixture with the help of a glass rod and dissolve
the copper sulphate crystals. Similarly, go on dissolving
more copper sulphate (1 gram at a time) with constant and
vigorous stirring. A stage is reached when no more copper
sulphate dissolves. It is called a saturated solution at
this temperature.
Question 5
a.
Define (i) Henry's law and (ii) Crystallisation.
b.
State the different methods of crystallisation.
Solution 5
a.
i.
Henry's law:
At any given temperature, the mass of a gas dissolved in a
fixed volume of a liquid or solution is directly
proportional to the pressure on the surface of a liquid.
ii.
Crystallisation:
It is the process by which crystals of a substance separate
out on cooling its hot saturated solution.
b.
In the laboratory, crystals may be obtained by the following
methods:
i.
By cooling a hot saturated solution gently
ii.
By cooling a fused mass
iii.
By sublimation
iv.
By slowly evaporating a saturated solution
Question 6
What would you observe when crystals of copper (II) sulphate
and iron (II) sulphate are separately heated in two test
tubes?
Solution 6
Action of heat on copper (II) sulphate crystals
When copper (II) sulphate crystals are heated in a hard
glass test tube, the following observations are observed:
Action of heat on copper (II) sulphate
|
i.
The crystals are converted to a powdery substance.
ii.
The crystals lose their blue coloration on further heating.
iii.
Steaming vapours are produced inside the tube which condense
near the mouth of the tube to form a colourless liquid.
iv.
On further heating, steam escapes from the mouth of the tube
and water gets collected in a beaker placed under the mouth
of the tube.
v.
On further heating, the residue changes to a white powder
and steam stops coming out.
CuSO4.5H2O
CuSO4 + 5H2O
|
Action of heat on iron (II) sulphate
When iron (II) sulphate is heated in a test tube, the
following is observed:
i.
The crystals crumble to a white powder and a large amount of
steam and gas are given out.
ii.
On strong heating, a brown residue of ferric oxide (Fe2O3)
is produced and a mixture of SO2 and SO3
is given off.
FeSO4.7H2O
FeSO4 + 7H2O
2FeSO4
Fe2O3 + SO2
+ SO3
|
Question 7
Give the names and formulae of two substances in each case:
a.
Hydrated substance
b.
Anhydrous substance
c.
Liquid drying agent
d.
A basic drying agent
Solution 7
a.
i. Washing soda crystals: Na2CO3.10H2O
ii. Blue vitriol: CuSO4.5 H2O
b.
i. Table salt: NaCl
ii. Nitre: KNO3
c.
Sulphuric acid: H2SO4
d.
Quick lime: CaO
Question 8
What is the effect of temperature on solubility of KNO3
and CaSO4 in water?
Solution 8
Solubility of potassium nitrate (KNO3) in water
increases with an increase in temperature.
Solubility of calcium sulphate (CaSO4) in water
decreases with an increase in temperature.
Question 9
Solubility of NaCl at 40oC is 36.5 g. What is
meant by this statement?
Solution 9
Solubility of NaCl at 40°C is 36.5 g means that 36.5 g of
NaCl dissolves in 100 g of water at a temperature of 40°C.
Question 10
Which test will you carry out to find out if a given
solution is saturated or unsaturated or supersaturated?
Solution 10
1.
A solution in which more of a solute can be dissolved at a
given temperature is an unsaturated solution.
2.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at a
given temperature is a saturated solution at that
temperature.
3.
A solution in which some solute separates on cooling
slightly is a super saturated solution.
Question 11
What is the effect of pressure on solubility of gases?
Explain with an example.
Solution 11
With an increase in pressure, the solubility of a gas in
water increases.
With an increase in temperature, the solubility of a gas in
water decreases.
For example, the solubility of carbon dioxide in water under
normal atmospheric pressure is low, but when the water
surface is subjected to higher pressure, a lot more of CO2
gas gets dissolved in it.
Similarly, in case of soda water, on opening the bottle, the
dissolved gas rapidly bubbles out because the pressure on
the surface of the water suddenly decreases.
Question 12
State the term:
a.
A solution where solvent is a liquid other than water.
b.
When a substance absorbs moisture on exposure to moist air
and dissolves in the absorbed water and turned to solution.
c.
A substance which contains water of crystallisation.
d.
When a substance absorbs moisture from the atmosphere but
does not form a solution.
e.
When a compound loses its water of crystallisation on
exposure to dry air.
f.
The substance that can remove hydrogen and oxygen atoms in
the ratio of 2:1(in the form of water) from the compound.
Solution 12
a.
Non-aqueous solution
b.
Deliquescence
c.
Hydrated substance
d.
Hygroscopy
e.
Efflorescence
f.
Dehydrating agent
Question 13
Explain why:
a.
Water is an excellent liquid to use in cooling systems.
b.
A solution is always clear and transparent.
c.
Lakes and rivers do not suddenly freeze in the winters.
d.
The solute cannot be separated from a solution by
filtration.
e.
Fused CaCl2 or conc. H2SO4
is used in a desiccator.
f.
Effervescence is seen on opening a bottle of soda water.
g.
Table salts become sticky on exposure to humid air during
the rainy season.
Solution 13
a.
Water is an excellent liquid to use in cooling systems
because of its high specific heat.
b.
A water-soluble solid disappears in a solution where the
solvent is water, and water has the property of being clear
and transparent. So, the solution is also clear and
transparent.
c.
Lakes and rivers do not freeze suddenly in winters because
of the high specific latent heat of solidification, i.e. the
amount of heat released when 1 g of water solidifies to form
1 g of ice at 0°C. It is about 336 J/g or 80 cal/g.
d.
The component which dissolves in a solvent is known as a
solute. So, it cannot be separated from a solution by
filtration. However, filtration is used when the solute is
insoluble in the solution.
e.
Fused CaCl2 or concentrated H2SO4
is deliquescent in nature, i.e. it absorbs moisture, and
hence, these are used in desiccators as drying agents.
f.
Carbon dioxide is dissolved in soda water under pressure. On
opening the bottle, the pressure on the surface of water
suddenly decreases; therefore, the solubility of CO2
in water decreases and the gas rapidly bubbles out.
g.
Table salt becomes sticky on exposure during the rainy
season, because it generally contains a small percentage of
magnesium chloride and calcium chloride as impurities. These
impurities absorb moisture from the monsoon air due to their
deliquescent nature, and thus, table salt become sticky.
Question 14
Normally, solubility of crystalline solid increases with
temperature. Does it increase uniformly in all cases? Name a
substance whose solubility:
a.
Increases rapidly with temperature.
b.
Increases gradually with temperature.
c.
Increases slightly with temperature.
d.
Initially increases then decreases with rise in temperature.
Solution 14
a.
Potassium nitrate
b.
Potassium chloride
c.
Sodium chloride
d.
Calcium sulphate
Question 15
What are drying or desiccating agents? Give examples.
Solution 15
These are substances which can readily absorb moisture from
other substances without chemically reacting with them.
Examples:
Phosphorous pentoxide (P2O5), quick
lime (CaO)
Question 16
Complete the following table:
Common Name
|
Chemical Name
|
Formula
|
Acid, base or salt
|
Efflorescent,
hygroscopic or deliquescent substance
|
Solid caustic potash
|
|
|
|
|
Quick lime
|
|
|
|
|
Oil of vitriol
|
|
|
|
|
Washing soda
|
|
|
|
|
Solid caustic soda
|
|
|
|
|
Blue vitriol
|
|
|
|
|
Solution 16
Common Name
|
Chemical Name
|
Formula
|
Acid, base or salt
|
Efflorescent,
hygroscopic or deliquescent substance
|
Solid caustic potash
|
Potassium hydroxide
|
KOH
|
Base
|
Deliquescent substance
|
Quick lime
|
Calcium oxide
|
CaO
|
Base
|
Hygroscopic substance
|
Oil of vitriol
|
Sulphuric acid
|
H2SO4
|
Acid
|
Hygroscopic substance
|
Washing soda
|
Hydrated sodium carbonate
|
Na2CO3.10H2O
|
Salt
|
Efflorescent substance
|
Solid caustic soda
|
Sodium hydroxide
|
NaOH
|
Base
|
Deliquescent substance
|
Blue vitriol
|
Copper sulphate
|
CuSO4
|
Salt
|
Efflorescent substance
|
Question 17
In which of the following substances will there be
a.
Increase in mass
b.
Decrease in mass
c.
No change in mass when they are exposed to air?
1.
Sodium chloride
2.
Iron
3.
Conc. sulphuric acid
4.
Table salt
5.
Sodium carbonate crystals
Solution 17
a.
Increase in mass: Iron and conc. sulphuric acid
b.
Decrease in mass: Sodium carbonate crystals
c.
No change in mass: Sodium chloride
Question 18
State the methods by which hydrated salts can be made
anhydrous.
Solution 18
Hydrated salts can be converted to anhydrous substances by
heating and also when exposed to dry air.
Example:
Glauber's salt becomes powdery anhydrous sodium sulphate
when exposed to dry air.
Chapter 3 - Water Exercise Ex. 3(C)
Question 1
What is the composition of water? In what volume its
elements combine?
Solution 1
The composition of water is 2 atoms of hydrogen with 1 atom
of oxygen (H2O).
By number of atoms, they combine in the ratio 2:1.
Question 2
What is the use of solubility of oxygen and carbon dioxide
in water?
Solution 2
Air dissolved in water is biologically very important.
• Oxygen dissolved in water is used by marine life like fish
for respiration, and thus, marine life is sustained.
• Aquatic plants make use of dissolved carbon dioxide in
photosynthesis to prepare food.
• Carbon dioxide dissolved in water reacts with calcium
carbonate to form calcium bicarbonate.
Marine organisms such as oysters and snails extract calcium
carbonate from calcium bicarbonate to build their shells.
Question 3
Hot saturated solution of sodium nitrate forms crystals as
it cools. Why?
Solution 3
Solubility of sodium nitrate decreases with a fall in
temperature. Thus, when a hot saturated solution of sodium
nitrate cools, it forms crystals as it separates from the
solution.
Question 4
What are hydrous substances? Explain with examples.
Solution 4
Substances which contain water molecules along with salt are
hydrated substances.
Examples: Sodium carbonate decahydrate: Na2CO3.10H2O
Copper sulphate pentahydrate: CuSO4.5H2O
Question 5
Name three methods by which hydrous substances can be made
anhydrous.
Solution 5
Methods by which hydrous substances can be made anhydrous:
-
By heating
-
Exposure to dry air
Question 6
What is the importance of dissolved impurities in water?
Solution 6
The dissolved impurities in water are salts and minerals.
-
Dissolved salts provide specific taste to water.
-
Salts and minerals are essential for growth and
development.
-
They supply the essential minerals needed by our body.
Question 7
State two ways by which a saturated solution can be changed
to unsaturated solution.
Solution 7
-
On heating, a saturated solution becomes unsaturated and
more solute can be dissolved in the solution.
-
By adding more solvent, a saturated solution can be made
unsaturated.
Question 8
What do you understand by
a.
Soft water
b.
Hard water
c.
Temporary hard water
d.
Permanent hard water
Solution 8
a.
Water is said to be soft when the water containing sodium
salts easily gives lather with soap.
b.
Water is said to be hard when it does not readily form
lather with soap.
c.
Water which contains only hydrogen carbonates of calcium and
magnesium is called temporary hard water.
d.
Water containing sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and
calcium is called permanent hard water.
Question 9
What are the causes for
a.
Temporary hardness
b.
Permanent hardness
Solution 9
a.
The presence of hydrogen carbonates of calcium and magnesium
makes water temporarily hard.
b.
The presence of sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and
calcium makes water permanently hard.
Question 10
What are the advantages of (i) soft water and (ii) hard
water?
Solution 10
i.
Advantages of soft water:
-
When the water is soft, you use much less soap and
fewer cleaning products. Your budget will reflect
your savings.
-
Plumbing will last longer. Soft water is low in
mineral content and therefore does not leave
deposits in the pipes.
-
Clothes last longer and remain bright longer if they
are washed in soft water.
ii.
Advantages of hard water:
-
Water free from dissolved salts has a very flat
taste. The presence of salts in hard water makes it
tasty. So, hard water is used in making beverages
and wines.
-
Calcium and magnesium salts present in small amounts
in hard water are essential for bone and teeth
development.
-
Hard water checks the poisoning of water by lead
pipes. When these pipes are used for carrying water,
some lead salts dissolve in water to make it
poisonous. Calcium sulphate present in hard water
forms insoluble lead sulphate in the form of a layer
inside the lead pipe and this checks lead poisoning.
Question 11
What are stalgmites and stalactites? How are they formed?
Solution 11
In some limestone caves, conical pillar-like objects hang
from the roof and some rise from the floor. These are formed
by water containing dissolved calcium hydrogen carbonate
continuously dropping from the cracks in the rocks. Release
of pressure results in the conversion of some hydrogen
carbonate to calcium carbonate.
Ca(HCO3)2 → CaCO3 + CO2
+ H2O
This calcium carbonate little by little and slowly deposit
on both roof and floor of the cave.
The conical pillar which grows downwards from the roof is
called stalactite and the one which grows upward from the
floor of the cave is called stalagmite.
These meet after a time. In a year, some grow less than even
a centimetre, but some may be as tall as 100 cm.
CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Ca(HCO3)2
MgCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Mg(HCO3)2
If the water flows over beds of gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O),
a little bit of gypsum gets dissolved in water and makes it
hard.
Question 12
Name the substance which makes water (i) temporarily hard
and (ii) permanently hard.
Solution 12
i.
Hydrogen carbonates of calcium and magnesium
ii.
Sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium
Question 13
Give equations to show what happens when temporary hard
water is
a.
Boiled
b.
Treated with slaked lime
Solution 13
a.
Ca(HCO3)2
CaCO3
+ H2O + CO2↑
Mg(HCO3)2
MgCO3
+ H2O + CO2↑
b.
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2
2CaCO3
+ 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2+ Ca(OH)2
MgCO3
+ 2H2O
Question 14
State the disadvantages of using hard water.
Solution 14
-
It is more difficult to form lather with soap.
-
Scum may form in a reaction with soap, wasting the soap.
-
Carbonates of calcium and magnesium form inside kettles.
This wastes energy whenever you boil a kettle.
-
Hot water pipes 'fur up'. Carbonates of calcium and
magnesium start to coat the inside of pipes which can
eventually get blocked.
Question 15
What is soap? For what is it used?
Solution 15
Soap is chemically a sodium salt of stearic acid (an organic
acid with the formula C17H35COOH) and
has the formula C17H35COONa.
Soap is used for washing purposes.
Question 16
What is the advantage of a detergent over soap?
Solution 16
Detergents are more soluble in water than soap and are
unaffected by the hardness of water as their calcium salts
are soluble in water.
Question 17
Why does the hardness of water render it unfit for use in a
(i) boiler and (ii) for washing purposes.
Solution 17
i.
Steam is usually made in boilers which are made of a number
of narrow copper tubes surrounded by fire. As the cold water
enters these tubes, it is immediately changed into steam,
while the dissolved solids incapable of changing into vapour
deposit on the inner walls of the tubes. This goes on and
makes the bore of the tubes narrower. The result is that
less water flows through the tubes at one time and less
steam is produced. When the bore of the tube becomes very
narrow, the pressure of the steam increases so much that at
times the boiler bursts.
ii.
If hard water is used, calcium and magnesium ions of the
water combine with the negative ions of the soap to form a
slimy precipitate of insoluble calcium and magnesium usually
called soap curd (scum).
Formation of soap curd will go on as long as calcium and
magnesium ions are present. Till then, no soap lather will
be formed and cleaning of clothes or body will not be
possible. Moreover, these precipitates are difficult to wash
from fabrics and sometimes form rusty spots if iron salts
are present in water.
Question 18
Explain with equation, what is noticed when permanent hard
water is treated with
a.
Slaked time
b.
Washing soda
Solution 18
a.
Slaked lime
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2
2CaCO3
+ 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2+ Ca(OH)2
MgCO3
+ CaCO3 + 2H2O
Lime is first thoroughly mixed with water in a tank and then
fed into another tank containing hard water. Revolving
paddles thoroughly mix the two solutions. Most of the
calcium carbonate settles down. If there is any solid left
over, it is removed by a filter. This is known as Clarke's
process.
b.
Washing soda
When washing soda or soda ash is added to hard water, the
corresponding insoluble carbonates settle down and can be
removed by filtration.
Ca(HCO3)2 + Na2CO3
CaCO3
+ 2NaHCO3
Mg(HCO3)2+ Na2CO3
MgCO3
+ 2NaHCO3
Question 19
Explain the permutit method for softening hard water.
Solution 19
Permutit is an artificial zeolite. Chemically, it is
hydrated sodium aluminium orthosilicate with the formula Na2Al2Si2O8.XH2O.
For the sake of convenience, let us give it the formula Na2P.
A tall cylinder is loosely filled with lumps of permutit.
When hard water containing calcium and magnesium ions
percolates through these lumps, ions exchange. Sodium
permutit is slowly changed into calcium and magnesium
permutit, and the water becomes soft with the removal of
calcium and magnesium ions.
When no longer active, permutit is regenerated by running a
concentrated solution of brine over it and removing calcium
chloride formed by repeated washing.
CaP + 2NaCl → Na2P + CaI2
Class – 9 Biology
Progress check(pg8)
Ans1.(i)Simple microscope
(ii)Concave mirror
Ans2(i)2,000times
(ii)200,000times
Progress
check(pg11)
Ans1(i)Amoeba, Bacteria
(ii)Nerve cells
(iii)WBCs
(iv)Amoeboid
Ans2Nutrients, metabolic waste and respiratory gases
Progress
check(pg18)
Ans1(i) Cytoplasm
(ii)Nucleus
(iii)Cell wall
Ans2(i)Already done in chapter3
(ii)Plastids are present in plant cell but absent in animal cell
Ans3(i)Golgi apparatus
(ii)Chloroplasts
(iii)Ribosomes
(iv)Lysosome
(v)Mitochondria
Ans4(i)Cell wall
(ii) Endoplasmic reticulum
(iii)Vacuoles
(iv)Chromosomes
Ans5(i)False,smaller
(ii)True
(iii)False,eukaryotes
(iv)False,no cellorganelle but possess ribosomes
Progress
check (pg20)
Ans1(i)Cell division
(ii) Gland cells give out sweat for evaporation
(iii) Contactility of cells
(iv)Cells devour germs
Ans2.Nucleus is the key to the life of the cell as it
controls various life processes of the cell and without it,
cell dies.
Ans3.A cell has organelles like mitochondria (respiration
centre)and lysosomes(suicidal bags) which shows that cells
have a lifespan and death like an organism.E.g old skin
cells die and replaced by new cells.
Ans4.Since the cell is living,it also excretes wastes.E.g
Amoeba(whose body is made up of single cell) have
contractile vacuole that collects wastes and water generated
by the body,swells up,and come to the surface to liberate
the contents outward.
Ans5.Yes,a cell also needs food like an organism to get
energy to carry out various functions like digestion,
movement,etc.
Review
Questions
Ex.A
multiple choice type
1.(a)ribosomes-synthesis of proteins
2(b)a single cell
3(d) cell membrane
4(a)absence of centrosome
5(c)cellulose
6(a)mitochondria
Ex.B
Very short answer type
Ans1.
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Ribosomes
(c)Chromosomes
(d)Centrosome
(e)lysosomes
(f)cell membrane
Ans2.
(a)false,all animals cells contain a cell membrane.
(b)false,the cell wall is made of cellulose.
(c)true
(d)true
(e)false, cytoplasm is the part of the cell which surrounds the nucleus.
(f)true
(g)true
Ans3.23 pairs of chromosomes found in human cells.
Ans4.The name of chemical substance is DNA(Deoxyribonucleic
acid)
Ans5.(a)covered by tonoplast
(b)forms RNA
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) dissolved in the cytoplasm
(e) respiratory enzymes
Ans6.
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Centrioles
(c)cell membrane/plasma membrane
(d) insects
(e)genes
(f)leucoplast
Ex.C
Short Answer Type
Ans1.Protoplasm cannot be analysed chemically because of two
reasons:
(1)The chemical composition of protoplasm is very complex.
(2)It ceases to be protoplasm as soon as it is removed from the organism.
Ans2.Already done in chapter 3
Ans3.The cellsize is independent of the size of an
organism.The cell size of a rat and that of an elephant are
the same.However,what varies is the number of cells.No of
cells in an elephant is much more compared to that of a rat.
Ans4
(a) protoplasm:
1.It is the living matter of the cell i.e nucleus and cytoplasm.
2.It includes nucleus
cytoplasm:
1.It is the semi liquid substance present inside the cell where
organelles are present
2.It excludes nucleus.
(b) Nucleolus
1.It is present in the nucleus.
2.It helps in protein synthesis.
Nucleus
1.It is an organelle present in the cytoplasm.
2.It controls the transmission of hereditary characters.
(c) Centrosome
1.It is an organelle present near the nucleus.
2.It initiates cell division.
Chromosome
1.They are the condensed chromatin fibres present in the nucleus.
2.They help in the transmission of hereditary characters.
(d)Cell wall
1.It is the outer covering of plant cell.
2.It is freely permaeble.
Cell membrane
1.It is the outer covering of animal cell.
2.It is selectively permeable.
(e)plant cell and animal cell
Given in the book.
(f) Prokaryotes and eucaryotes
Given in the book
Ans5.Features found only in plant cells are
presence of large vacuoles ,presence of plastids and presence of cell
wall.feature found in animal cell is presence of centrosome.
Ans6.Cells are generally of a small size because of two
reasons:
(1)To communicate effectively between the different regions of a cell
(2)To increase the surface area volume ratio for greater diffusion of
substances in and out of the cell.
Ex.D
Long answer type
Ans1.Schwann and Schleiden propounded the cell theory in1839. Later in
1858,Rudolf Virchow made an addition to the cell theory.The
three points of the cell theory are:
(1)The cell is the smallest unit of structure of all living things.
(2)The cell is the unit of function of all living things.
(3)All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Ans2.Living cell:
(1)It is living and flexible.
(2)It performs various functions.
(3)It needs nutrition.
Brick:
(1)It is non-living and .rigid.
(2)It is non-functional.
(3)It doesn't need nutrition.
Ans3(a)plastid-Chromoplast,pigment -Xanthophyll.
(b)Plastid-Chromoplast, pigment-Carotene.
(c)plastid-Chloroplast,pigment-Chlorophyll
(d)Plastid-Leucoplast, pigment-no pigment.
Ans4.Learn the functions from the book(given in the table).
(g)Asters of centosome:They surround the centriole and help in spindle
fibres formation during cell division.
(h) Chromosomes:They help in the transmission of hereditary characters
from parents to offsprings.
Ans5.Six features found both in plant and animal cells are
presence of cell membrane, mitochondria, endoplasmic
reticulum, nucleus, ribosomes and golgi apparatus.
Ex.E
Structured/Application/Skill type
(a)fig B is a plant cell because it has a cell wall and larger vacuole.
(b) The cell structure common to both the types are cell membrane,
nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and
golgi apparatus.
(c)The structure found only in plant cells are cell wall,plastids and
large vacuoles.and The structure found only in animal cells
are centosome.
Physical Education (9th Class)
NOTE:
FIRST TERM 3 GAMES
BASKETBALL
BADMINTON
AND
VOLLEYBALL
BASKETBALL
1.
(a) It is a direct pass to own teammate at chest level. Ball is passed
with initial momentum depending upon the distance to pass.
It is passed with both hands which are flexed initially and
later extended towards passing.
(b) Player passes the ball with a bounce to his teammates after faking
defender. It should reach at normal height.
(c) To start the game in the beginning, ball is tossed and players jump
for the collection of the ball. They are not allowed to push
or hit the opponent player, usually performed by a tall
player. For the next time it continues with throw-in.
(d) It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around keeping
one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of body
while one foot maintains the contact with floor.
(e) This is the most common shot for 3 points. In this one hand is used
to push the ball and other directs the ball towards the
basket with the jump. Hand extends over the head with full
accuracy.
(f) It is a defensive dribble to keep the control over the ball when
opponent is close. The ball is bounced at low height up to
knee and body shields the opponent, body is slightly
crouched.
(g) After faking opponent, the player takes two steps to reach near the
ring and places the ball inside the ring.
(h) After faking opponent, the player reaches near the ring and pushes
the ball inside the ring with hand.
(i) It is a personal contact which impedes the progress of opponent
player with or without the ball.
(j) It is a violation in which illegal movement of ball by dribbling i.e.
player moves without the bounce, passes or collects ball
while running.
(k) It is a violation given when any player dribbles the ball with both
the hands at the same time. Throw-in is awarded to the
opponent team.
(l) It is an interruption of game requested by coach. It lasts not more
than one minute. It can be taken one time in 1st,2nd and 3rd
quarter and two times in 4th quarter by each team.
(m) It is illegal attempt to delay or prevent opponent player who does
not control the ball from reaching desired position.
(n) There are two team foul indicators, one for each team. It is shown by
table official which indicates that how many fouls are done
by each team in ongoing quarter.
(o) It is the apparatus used to count 24 seconds which raises its alarm
after 24 seconds. It starts with the possession of ball to
each team.
(p) It occurs when two opponents have firmly gripped the ball, and
neither can gain possession without undue roughness. With
new changes, throw-in(by turn) is taken from nearest side or
end line.
(q) When any offensive Player stays inside opponent's restricted area
consecutively for more than 3 seconds, else 3 seconds
violation will be given and throw-in will be awarded to
opponents. 3 seconds violation is not given during basket
attempts or rebounds.
(r) The fast movement of the player towards the basket through two or
more opponents to receive the ball.
(s) It is attempting an unhindered shot from the position behind the free
throw line. Opponent players can not interrupt the player
who is taking free throw. Each successful free throw carries
1 point. One,two or three free throws can be awarded to
fouled player according to situation.
(t) It is an offensive move in which one player who is placed/standing
close to the opponent ring, immediately after rebound,
basket or throw-in,ball is quickly passed to him by
teammate. It is a easy basket before defence can set up.
2. Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith,a physical education
teacher in YMCA training school at Springfield,USA in 1891.
It was played as demonstration game in 1924 at Paris
Olympics. It was officially introduced in 1936 Berlin
Olympics games. In 1950, Federation International de
Basketball Association (FIBA) was founded. In India,
Basketball Federation of India (BFI) was constituted in
1950. Americans have developed a new form of basketball
named as National Basketball Association (NBA). In India,
United Basketball Alliance of India (UBA) started in 2016.
3. Two teams of 5 players each try to score points by tossing the ball
into opposing team's basket. Players must use only their
hands to control the ball. Players are not allowed to run
while holding the ball. A field goal counts for 2 or 3
points. Free throw counts for 1 point. In case of common
ball, teams are given throw-in from side in alternate
turn-wise.
4. Draw from book with all dimensions.
5. 180cm x 105cm(120cm inside the end line). It is made up of transparent
fibre glass. To check ball air pressure,ball is dropped from
1.5m and it should bounce back up to height of 1m.
6.
Time Rules(explanation is given in book)
:- Playing time(explain)
:-Extra time(explain)
:- 24 seconds rule(explain)
:- 8 seconds rule (explain)
:- 5 seconds rule (explain)
:- 3 seconds rule (explain)
:- Charged time out(explain)
Game Clock(to record overall game duration of playing time)
Stop Watch(to record small breaks in between the playing time).
7. BFI chest numbers are from 4 to 15.
8. Chest pass, Bounce pass, Long pass, One hand pass, One hand side pass,
Underhand pass, Baseball pass, Oulet pass , No Look pass
etc.
9. Charging, illegal blocking, guarding from behind, holding opponent,
pushing opponent, illegal screening, using abusive language,
Arguing, misbehavior etc.
10.
Dribble (It is pumping of ball with hands so that it bounces back by
which the movement of ball takes place by a player.
Pivoting (It is a restricted motion with ball. A player rotates around
keeping one foot stationary. It is changing the direction of
body while one foot maintains the contact with floor.
11.
Playing Time (explain from book).
Game lock starts immediately after jump ball, when referee tosses the
ball in air in the beginning of the game.
12.
Time outs(explain charged time out from book)
Each time out duration is 1 minute.
13. Match equipments (All the equipments, given in tips to remember)
14. From book, in the end of the chapter.
15. From book,in the end of the chapter.
16. Explain both separately from book, under FOULS heading.
17.
After Held Ball(Alternate throw-in is taken from nearest side line or end
line by each team according to their turn.
After the Basket (Throw-in is taken from end line by defending team)
18. Records play time, records stoppage of time, records breaks
time in-between each quarter, records extra time, records
charged time out etc.
19.
A player is substituted, when any player is injured, when he
commits more than 5 fouls(Player is expelled), when he is
not playing well, when he is tired etc.
How a player is substituted (A coach demands substitution from
officials,only when ball is not in play(dead ball). A
substituted player should enter the court only when the
other player has moved out of the court boundaries.
20. Then, points will be awarded to opponent team according to
shooting area i.e. 2 or 3 points.
21. Then, two free throws will be awarded to opponent team followed by
side throw-in.
22. Then, match will be awarded to opponent team according to forfeit
rule.
23. It was an old rule,not followed now a days. Earlier if any player
gets 2 free throws on foul from free throw line, if player
misses either of the free throw from the 2, he gets a bonus
1 more free throw.
24. Records personal fouls, records technical fouls, records team scores,
records individual player scores and records chest numbers
of players while baskets, fouls, substitutions etc.
25. Extra period (Extra time) In case of tie during normal time period of
40 minutes, the game is extended for 5 minutes. It can
further be extended, till the tie breaks.
26. Can be explained in class only.
27. According to Forfeit rule, matching is awarded to one team and other
team looses the match. There are certain conditions when
Forfeit rule is applied like when one team reaches late on
match venue, when one team shows unsportsman behaviour, when
one team have less number of players than required, when any
team is loosing the match badly and coach of that team
himself requests for stopping the match etc.
28. Done
29.
:- After jump ball
:- During Lay-up shot
:- During Dribbling
30.
Unsportsman like foul(It is an intentional personal foul done by a
player, whether there is a struggle for snatching the ball
from each or even without the ball. In this foul, the one
who commits goes physical with the opponent player. Two free
throws are given to opponent player followed by a throw-in
from side line.
Disqualifying Fouls(When any bench player or a coach shouts or uses
abusive language from outside for referee or opponent
players and disturbs the game momentum and after repeated
warnings also they continue, then officials disqualify such
person and send away from the playing area for the rest of
the match.
31.
:- Free throw for 1 point, from free throw line.
:- Lay-Up shot for 2 points, from just under ring i.e. inside the three
points line.
:- Jump Shot for 3 points, from behind the three points line.
9th BIOLOGY
CHAPTER-6
SEED STRUCTURE AND GERMINATION
Solution 1
1. (c) Maize grain ______ coleoptile
2. (d) do not get enough oxygen
Solution 2
(a) F (False). Monocotyledonous seeds contain one cotyledon
and dicotyledonous seeds contain two cotyledons.
(b) T (True)
(c) T (True)
(d) T (True)
Solution 3
(a) Maize
(b) Pyrogallic acid
(c) Shoot
(d) Rhizophora
(e) Aleurone layer
(f) Bean
Solution 4
(a) plumule,
above
(b) Coleorhiza, coleoptile
(c) seed coat, testa
(d) micropyle
(e) starch
Solution 5
(a) Micropyle, 1st male gamete, egg cell, zygote,
embryo
(b) Allogamy, fusion of gametes, zygote, embryo, seed
(c) Seed coat bursts, radicle grows downward, hypocotyls
form loop above the soil, epicotyls elongate
Question 6
What is the difference between an embryo and a seed?
Solution 6
A seed is a mature ovule after fertilization. It contains a
tiny living-plant called the embryo. The embryo within the
seed remains in an inactive or dormant state, until it is
exposed to favourableconditions,
when it germinates.
Question 7
Give any two examples each of endospermic (albuminous)
seeds, and non-endospermic
(exalbuminous)
seeds.
Solution 7
Endospermic (albuminous)
seeds: E.g. Castor, Maize, Poppy
Non-endospermic (exalbuminous)
seeds: E.g. Bean, Gram, Pea
Question 8
Germinated grams are considered highly nutritive. What is
the reason for this belief?
Solution 8
Germinated grams are considered highly nutritive because the
cotyledon of the seed absorbs food from the endosperm,
making it nutritive. It is rich in starch and its outermost
layer is rich in protein.
Question 9
Why do we not use the terms maize fruit and maize seed? What
do we say instead?
Solution 9
Maize grain is actually a fruit in which the fruit wall and
the seed coat are fused together to form a protective layer.
Therefore, we do not use the terms maize fruit and maize
seed. Instead, we call such fruits as grains.
Solution 10
(a) Seed coat: It protects the delicate inner parts of the
seed from injury and the attack of bacteria, fungi and
insects.
(b) Micropyle:
During germination, micropyle allows
water to enter the seed through its pore.
(c) Cotyledons: They contain food for the embryo.
(d) Radicle:
It forms the future root.
(e) Plumule:
It forms the future shoot.
Question 11
Suggest an experiment to prove that a suitable temperature
is necessary for germination.
Solution 11
Aim: To
prove that a suitable temperature is necessary for
germination.
Apparatus: Two
beakers, wet cotton wool, refrigerator
Procedure:
(1) Take two beakers and label them as A and B.
(2) Place some gram seeds on wet cotton wool in each of the
beakers.
(3) Keep beaker A at ordinary room temperature and beaker B
in the refrigerator.
(4) In 1-2 days, the seeds in beaker A will germinate,
showing the importance of a suitable temperature for
germination. Seeds in beaker B may not show the signs of
germination or may germinate after several days, though not
to the extent as the seeds in beaker A.
Inference: Seeds
require a suitable temperature for germination.
Solution 12
Yes, we call it germination because all the changes leading
to the formation of a seedling collectively constitute
germination. During germination, either the epicotyl or
the hypocotyl elongates.
Solution 13
(a) Epigeal germination
and Hypogeal germination
Epigeal germination
|
Hypogeal germination
|
1. Cotyledons are pushed above the ground
|
1. Cotyledons remain underground
|
2. Hypocotyl elongates
|
2. Epicotyl elongates
|
(b) Coleorhiza and Coleoptile
Coleorhiza
|
Coleoptile
|
1. Protective sheath of radicle
|
1. Protective sheath of plumule
|
2. Present towards the pointed end of embryonic
region
|
2. Present towards the upper broader side of the
embryonic region
|
(c) Bean seed and Maize grain
Bean seed
|
Maize grain
|
1. Two cotyledons
|
1. One cotyledon
|
2. No endosperm
|
2. Large endosperm present
|
Question 14
Differentiate between germination and vivipary.
Solution 14
Germination
|
Vivipary
|
When the embryo in the seed becomes activated and
begins to grow into a new plant, then it is known as
germination.
|
Vivipary is known as the germination of seed within
the fruit, while it is still attached to the parent
plant.
|
Question 15
Justify the statement that the maize grain is a 'one seeded
fruit'.
Solution 15
A fruit is the enlarged ripened ovary in which the ovarian
wall forms the fruit wall and encloses the seed. The fruit
protects the seed and helps in seed dispersal.
The maize grain is regarded as a 'one-seeded fruit' because
the fruit wall and the seed coat are fused to form a
protective layer. Such a fruit is called grain.
Question 16
What is the role played by the hypocotyl in epigeal
germination?
Solution 16
Germination of a seed which takes place above the ground is
called epigeal germination. In epigeal germination, the
hypocotyl grows forming a loop above the soil. It then
straightens pushing the cotyledons above the ground.
Solution 17
(a) The 'micropyle' serves two important functions:
·
Allows absorption of water and makes it available to the
embryo for germination.
·
Enables diffusion of respiratory gases for the growing
embryo
(b) The embryo of the seed grows into the seedling.
(c) Structure of embryo
(d) The cotyledons of the seed provide nutrition for the
growing seedling or the embryo.
BIOLOGY CHAPTER 4 FLOWER
C. SHORT TYPE ANSWER
2. Distinguish
(a). Flower—- flower is a specialised shoot in which the
leaves are modified into floral structures .
Inflorescence—- Inflorescence is the mode of arrangement of
flowers on the axis of the plant.
(b). Petals—- a non-reproductive part of the flower, usually
brightly Coloured.
Petaloid sepals—- In some flowers sepals are coloured like
petals are called petaloid sepals.
(C). Polyandraus—- when stamens are many and free.
Polyadelphous—— when the filaments are united in many groups
with their anthers remaining free.
BIOLOGY
CHAPTER-
5
POLLINATION AND FERTILIZATION
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. (c). Stigma and anther mature at the same
time
2. ( b). Pollen grain
B. Very Short Answer Type
1. (a). Butterflies
(b). Wind
(c). Water
2. Match
(a). Male nuclei
(b). Pollen tube
(C). Rough
(d). Endosperm
(e). Testa
(f). Fertilization
3. Fill ups
(a). Self pollination
(b). Dichogamy
(C). Vallisneria
4. Name the parts
(a). Ovule
(b). Ovary
(c). Ovarian wall
5. One word
(a). Bisexual flower
(b). Inflorescence
(C). Autogamy
(d). Dichogamy
(e). Heterostyly
(f). Entomophilous
(G). Ornithophily
C. Short Answer Type
1. Explain
(a). Ornithophily— pollination of flowers by birds.
(b). Elephophily— pollination of flower by elephant.
(c). Artificial Pollination— when man himself transfers
pollen to the stigma.
2. What happen to following....
(a). Ovule— become seed
(b). Calyx— may either fall off or may remain intact in a
dried and shrivelled form
(C). Petal— wither and generally fall off
(d). Stamen— wither and generally fall off
3. Ans— (1) unisexuality
(2) Dichogamy
D. LONG ANSWER TYPE
1. Advantages of following
(a). Ans— to trap the pollen grains
(b). Ans— to attract insects
(C). Ans— to get easily carried away by wind
(d). Ans— so that slightest wind can carry the pollens
(e). Ans— to attract insects
2. Ans— ADVANTAGES
(1) the offsprings are healthier
(2) the seeds produced are abundant and viable
(3). New varieties may be produced
DISADVANTAGES
(1). The pollination is not always certain
(2). The pollen has to be produced in large quantity
(3). The process is uneconomical for the plant
Class 9 Chemistry-Chemical Changes and Reactions
Question 1
(a) What is a
chemical reaction?
(b) State the conditions necessary for a chemical
change or reaction.
Answer 1
(a) A chemical reaction is the process of
breaking the chemical bonds of the reacting substances
(reactants) and making new bonds to form new substances
(products).
(b) Conditions necessary for a chemical change or
reaction are
(i) Evolution of gas
(ii) Change of colour
(iii) Formation of precipitate
(iv)Change of state
Question 2
Define the following terms
(a). Chemical bond
(b). Effervescence
(c). Precipitate
Answer 2
(a). A chemical bond is the force which holds the atoms of a
molecule together as in a
compound.
(b). Formation of gas bubbles in a liquid during a reaction
is called effervescence.
(c). Chemical reactions which are characterised by the
formation of insoluble solid substances are called
precipitates.
Question 3
Give an example of a reaction where the following are
involved
(a) Heat
(b) Light
(c) Electricity
(d) Close contact
(e) Solution
(f) Pressure
(g) Catalyst
Answer 3
Question 4
Define
(a) Photochemical reaction (b) Electrochemical reaction Give
an example in each case.
Answer4
(a) It is a reaction which occurs with
absorption of light energy.
(b) It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of
electrical energy.
Question 5
Give an example of each of the following chemical changes:
(a) A photochemical reaction involving
(i) Silver salt (ii) water
(b)A reaction involving
(i) Blue Answer
(ii) Formation of dirty green precipitate
(c)Two gases combine to form white solid
(d)Two solids combine to form a liquid
(e)A reaction where colour change is noticed
REFER THE BOOK CHAPTER OF NOTES PROVIDED
Question 6
Write the chemical reaction where the following changes are
observed.
(a) Gas is evolved
(b) Colour change is noticed (c) Precipitate is formed
(d) Physical state is changed
Answer 6 REFER THE BOOK CHAPTER
OF NOTES PROVIDED
Question 7
Give reason for the following:
(a) Silver nitrate Answer is kept in coloured
bottles.
(b) Molybdenum is used in the manufacture of ammonia.
(c) Blue Answer of copper sulphate changes to
green when a piece of iron is added to this
solution.
(d) Colourless concentrated sulphuric acid in a test
tube changes to blue on adding a small piece of copper to
it.
Answer 7
(a)Silver nitrate Answer is kept in brown bottles in the
laboratory because it decomposes in the presence of light.
(b)Molybdenum increases the efficiency of the catalyst iron
used in the manufacture of ammonia.
(c)This is because the blue colour of the copper sulphate
Answer fades and eventually turns into light green due to
the formation of ferrous sulphate.
(d)Copper displaces hydrogen from sulphuric acid and forms
blue-coloured copper sulphate and hydrogen gas is evolved.
Exercise-2(B), Chapter-2
Question 1
Complete the following statements:
(a)The chemical change involving iron and hydrochloric acid
illustrates a _________________ reaction.
(b)In the type of reaction called_______________, two
compounds exchange their positive and negative radicals.
(c)A catalyst either ______ or _____________ the rate of a
chemical change but itself remains ______________ at the end
Of the reaction.
(d)On heating, hydrated copper sulphate changes its colour
from ________ to __________.
Answer 1
(a)Displacement
(b)Double decomposition
(c)Accelerates, decelerates, unaffected
(d)Blue, white
Question 2
When hydrogen burns in oxygen, water is formed; when
electricity is passed through water, hydrogen and oxygen are
given out. Name the type of chemical change involved in the
two cases.
Answer 2
When hydrogen burns in oxygen, water is formed – Combination
Reaction.
When electricity is passed through water, hydrogen and
oxygen are given out – Decomposition Reaction.
Question 3
Explain, giving one example for each of the following
chemical changes:
(a) Double decomposition
(b) Thermal decomposition
(c) Reversible reaction
(d) Displacement
Answer 3
(a)
Double decomposition reaction
This is a type of chemical change in which two compounds in
solution to form two new compounds by mutual exchange of
radicals
(b)
Thermal decomposition
A decomposition reaction brought about by heat is known as
thermal decomposition.
2HgO(s) 2Hg(s)
+O2(g)
(c) Reversible reaction
A chemical reaction in which the direction of a chemical
change can be reversed by changing the conditions under
which the reaction is taking place is called a reversible
reaction.
CuSO4.5H2O(s)
CuSO4(s) + 5H2O
(g)
(d) Displacement Reaction
It is a chemical change in which a more active element
displaces a less active element from its salt solution.
CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu
Question 4
(a) What is synthesis?
(b) What kind of chemical reaction is synthesis?
Support your answer by an example.
Answer 4
A reaction in which two or more substances combine together
to form a single substance is called a synthesis or
combination reaction.
A + B → AB
In the above reaction, substances A and B combine to give a
molecule of a new substance, AB. Carbon burns in oxygen to
form a gaseous compound, carbon dioxide.
C + O2
== CO2
Question 5
Decomposition brought about by heat is known as thermal
decomposition. What is the difference between thermal
dissociation and thermal decomposition?
Answer 5
A decomposition reaction brought about by heat is known as
thermal decomposition.
2HgO(s) —- 2Hg(s) + O2 (g)
A simultaneous reversible decomposition reaction brought
about only by heat is thermal dissociation.
NH4Cl
NH3 +HCl
Question 6
(a)Define neutralization reaction with an example.
(b)Give balanced
equation for this reaction.
(c)Give three applications of neutralization reactions.
Answer 6
(a)The reaction between an acid and a base to form salt and
water only is referred to as a neutralisation reaction.
(b)NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(c) Applications of neutralisation reactions:
(i) When someone is stung by a bee, formic acid enters the
skin and causes pain, which can be relieved by rubbing the
spot with slaked lime or baking soda, both of which are
bases. (ii) Acid which is accidentally spilled on to our
clothes can be neutralised with ammonia solution.
(iii) If soil is somewhat acidic and thus unfavourable for
growing of certain crops, slaked lime is added to neutralise
the excess acid.
Question 7
What do you understand by precipitation reaction? Explain
with an example.
Answer 7
A chemical reaction in which two compound in their aqueous
state react to form an insoluble salt (a precipitate) as one
of the product is known as precipitation reaction.
For example: BaCl2 (aq) +NaSO4 (aq)
→BaSO4(s) white ppt + 2NaCl (aq).
Question 8
(a)What are double displacement reactions?
(b) Give an example of double displacement reaction, where a
gas is evolved.
Answer 8
(a)This is a type of chemical change in which two compound
in a solution react to form two compound by mutual exchange
of radicals Double decomposition reaction is also called
double displacement reaction.
AB +CD→ AD +CB
(b) Double displacement reaction, gas evolved are
FeS(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4
(aq) + H2S
Question 9
(a)What is a decomposition reaction?
(b) Decomposition reaction can occur by (i) heat
(ii) Electricity and (iii) sunlight
Give two balanced reaction for reaction
Answer 9
(a)The chemical reaction in which a compound splits into two
or more simpler substance (elements or compound) is called
decomposition reaction. 1 2HgO(s) —- 2Hg(s) + O2
(g)
2)DECOMPOSITION OF WATER BY PASSING CURRENT
3)
DECOMPOSITION OF
SILVER NITRATE
Question 10
State the type of reactions each of the following
Answer 10
(a) Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl +
Br2
Displacement
reaction
(b) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Neutralisation reaction
(c) 2HgO → 2Hg + O2
Decomposition reaction
(d) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4
+ Cu
Displacement reaction
(e) PbO2 + SO2
→ PbSO4
Combination reaction
(f) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
Decomposition reaction
(g) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
Decomposition reaction
(h) KNO3 + H2SO4→
HNO3 + KHSO4
Double decomposition reaction
(i) CuO+H2 → Cu+ H2O
Displacement reaction
(j) CaCO3 → CaO+ CO2
Decomposition reaction
(k) NH4Cl → NH3 +
HCl
Decomposition reaction
(l) PbO + 2HNO3 →
Pb(NO3) + 2H2O
Neutralisation reaction
(m) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
Double decomposition reaction
Question 12
Multiple choice
(a) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
chemical change?
(i) It is irreversible.
(ii) No net energy change is involved.
(iii). New substance is formed.
(iv)Involves absorption or liberation of energy.
(b)
A reaction of a type: AB
+ CD → AD + CD, involves
(i) No chemical change
(ii) Decomposition of AB and CD
(iii) . Exchange of ions of AB and CD
(iv) Combination of AB and CD
(c) The reaction BaCl2(aq)+ H2SO4(aq)
→ BaSO4(s) + 2HCl(aq) is
(i) Displacement
reaction
(ii) Neutralisation reaction
(iii) . Decomposition reaction
(iv) Double displacement reaction
(d) Thermal decomposition
of sodium carbonate will produce
(i) Carbon dioxide
(ii) Oxygen
(iii) Sodium hydroxide
(iv) No other product
Answer 12
(a) (ii) No net energy change is involved
(b) (iii) Exchange of ions of AB and CD
(c) (iv)double displacement reaction
(d) (i) Carbon dioxide
Exercise -2
(C),
Question 1
What is a chemical change? Give two examples of chemical
change?
Answer 1
A chemical change is a permanent change in which the
chemical composition of a substance is changed and a new
substance is formed.
Examples:
Heating of copper carbonate
Formation of curd from milk
Question 2
Why energy is involved in a chemical change?
Answer 2
In every chemical change, change in energy is involved.
There is a difference between the chemical energies of the
reactants and products. It involves the breaking up of
chemical bonds between the atoms resulting in the absorption
of energy in the form of heat and simultaneous formation of
bonds with the release of energy.
Question 3
What do you understand by ‘chemical reaction’?
Answer 3
A chemical reaction is the process of breaking the chemical
bonds of the reacting substances (reactants) and making new
bonds to form new substances (products).
A chemical change or chemical reaction occurs when particles
collide. Collisions occur when reactants are in close
contact or by supply of energy.
Question 4
Give an example of a reaction where the following are
involved
(a) Evolution of heat
(b) Absorption of heat
(c) High pressure is required
Answer 4
(a) C + O2 → CO2 + Heat
(b) C + 2S → CS2
(c)
N2
+ 3H2→ 2NH3
Question 5
State the main characteristics of chemical reactions. Give
at least one example in each case.
Answer 5
(i)
Evolution of gas Example:
Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
[Zinc] + [dil.sulphuricAcid] [zinc sulphate] [hydrogen]
(ii)
Change of colour Example:
Fe + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 + Cu
[Iron] [Blue solution] [Green Solution] [copper]
(iii) Formation of precipitates: Example:
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(ppt) + NaNO3(aq)
Question 6
Give an example of each of the following chemical changes.
(a) A reaction involving
(i) Change of state
(ii) Formation of precipitate
(b) An exothermic and an endothermic reaction
involving carbon as one of the reactants.
(c) A reaction where colour change is noticed.
Answer 6
(a) (i) Change of state
Ammonia gas reacts with HCl gas to give solid ammonium
chloride.
NH3
(g) + HCl(g)
NH4Cl(s)
(ii) Formation of
precipitate
When a Aq, sol.of silver nitrate is added to a Aq, sol.of
sodium chloride, a white insoluble substance, silver
chloride, is formed.
AgNO3
(aq)
+ NaCl
(aq)
→ AgCl
(ppt)
+ NaNO3
(aq) (b) Exothermic
reaction:
When carbon burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, a lot of
heat is produced.
C + O2 → CO2
+ Heat Endothermic reaction:
When carbon is heated with sulphur at high temperature,
liquid carbon disulphide is formed.
C + 2S CS2
(c) Colour change
A few pieces of iron are added into a blue coloured copper
sulphate solution; the blue colour of copper sulphate fades
and eventually turns into light green due to the formation
of ferrous sulphate.
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
Question 7
Define exothermic and endothermic changes. Give two examples
in each case.
Answer 7
Exothermic reaction:
A chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called an
exothermic reaction. Example:
When carbon burns in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, a lot of
heat is produced.
C + O2 → CO2 + Heat
When hydrogen is burnt in oxygen, water is formed and heat
is released.
2H2 + O2---à
2H2O + Heat
Endothermic reaction:
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic
reaction.
Example:
When carbon is heated with sulphur at high temperature,
liquid carbon disulphide is formed.
C + 2S---à CS2
When nitrogen and oxygen are heated together to a
temperature of about 3000°C, nitric oxide gas is formed.
N2 +
O2 ---à+ 2NO
Question 8
State the effects of endothermic and exothermic reactions on
the surroundings.
Answer 8
Exothermic reactions are spontaneous and warm their
surroundings with the release of heat energy.
Endothermic reactions absorb heat energy from their
surroundings and cause their surroundings to cool down.
Question 9
Define:
(a) Photochemical reaction
(b) Electrochemical reaction
Give one example in each case.
Answer 9
(a) It is a reaction which occurs with
absorption of light energy.
Example: Photosynthesis
(b) It is a reaction which occurs with absorption of
electrical energy.
Example: Acidulated water breaks into hydrogen and oxygen
Answer 10
(a) NaCl(aq)
+ AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(aq)
+ NaNO3(aq)
(b) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI →2KNO3
+ PbI2
(c) CuCO3
CuO(s)
+ CO2
(g)
(d) 2Pb (NO3)2 2PbO + 4NO2
+ O2
(e) 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO +6H2O
Question 11
What do you observe? When (a)Lead nitrate is heated.
(b)Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(c)Hydrogen peroxide is exposed to sunlight.
(d)H2S gas is passed through copper sulphate
solution. (e)Barium chloride is added to sodium sulphate
solution (f)Water is added to the quick lime.
(g)Sodium chloride Answer is added to silver nitrate
solution.
Answer 11
(a)Lead nitrate decomposes on heating, leaving a yellow
residue of lead monoxide, and brown nitrogen dioxide and
colourless oxygen gases are evolved.
(b)Due to thermal decomposition, silver chloride breaks down
into silver and chloride.
(c)Hydrogen peroxide breaks down to form water and oxygen
gas along with heat energy.
(d)When hydrogen sulphide is passed through a blue Answerof
copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is
obtained, and sulphuric acid so formed remains in the
solution.
(e)A white insoluble precipitate of barium sulphate is
formed.
(f)Quick lime reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked
lime, i.e. calcium hydroxide. (g)When sodium chloride is
added to the silver nitrate solution, a white curdy
precipitate of silver chloride is formed.
Question 12
(a) a carbonate which do not decompose on heating.
(b) a nitrate which produces oxygen as the only gas.
(c) a compound which produces carbon dioxide on heating (d)
a nitrate which produces brown gas on heating.
Answer 12
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium nitrate
(c) Zinc carbonate
(d) Lead nitrate
Class 9 subject Biology chapter3 "Tissues"
Ans1.Meristematic tissue and Permanent tissue.
Ans2.(i) permanent tissue.
(ii) parenchyma.
(iii) Collenchyma.
(iv) Xylem and phloem.
Ans3.(i)True.
(ii)True.
(iii)True.
(iv) false, The Sclerenchyma consists of dead cells.
Progress Check(pg-30)
Ans1(i) Epithelial tissue
(ii) Glandular epithelium
(iii)Muscular tissue
(iv) Nervous tissue
Ans2(i)Ciliated columnar epithelium is located in the
lining of the windpipe(trachea).
(ii)Elastic cartilage is located at the tip of the nose and
external ear.
(iii) Unstrained muscles are located in the walls of the
intestine and muscles of the iris of the eye.
Ans3(i)cartilage: It is elastic, on-porous and has no
blood vessels and nerves.
(ii)bone: It is hard, porous and has rich supply of blood
vessels and nerves
(iii) striated muscles: They are under the control of our
will. They are made of long fibres which are nucleated and
striated.
(iv)cardiac muscles: They are involuntary in function and
found only in the walls of the heart.
Ans4(i)true
(ii)false, axons bundled together form a nerve
(iii)false, cardiac muscles do not
get tired soon.
(iv)false, epithelial cells leave no space in between
(v)false, perikaryon is the cell body of a nerve cell
(vi)false, muscles of the iris of the eye are involuntary
type.
(vii)true
Review questions
Ex. A
1(c)parenchyma
2(a)fibrous connective tissue
3(a)meristem-actively dividing cells
4(d) chlorenchyma
5(d)layers of xylem in a stem
6(d) sclerenchyma
7(c)tendon
8(d) involuntary and striated
Ex. B Very short answer type:
And1(a)Apical meristem
(b)protective tissue
(c) glandular epithelium
(d)connective tissue (ligament)
(e) conducting tissue
(f) sclerenchyma
Ans2.Parenchyma is the least specialized tissue
located in plants.
Ans3.(a) tissue
(b)parenchyma
(c)lateral meristem or cambium
Ans4(a)At the tips of roots, stem and branches
(b)At the tip of nose and ear
(c)in the mouth and nasal cavity
(d)in stems and veins of leaves
(e)in the lining of windpipe (trachea)
(f)at the end of two bones
And5(a) epithelial tissue
( b)cuboidal epithelium
(c)nerve cell(neuron)
(d)ciliated epithelium
Ex. C Short answer type
Ans1Ciliated epithelium is found in the inner lining
of windpipe(trachea).
The cilia present in it keep lashing and move the materials
out which enter these regions.
Ans2 Nervous tissue: It is made up of elongated cells
called neurons. This tissue is concerned with the perception
and responses of animals.
Nervous system: It consists of brain, spinal cord and the
nervous tissue. This system controls and coordinates all the
systems and parts of your body.
Ans3Tissues found in human heart are:
Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue and
nervous tissue
Ans4.No, we cannot consider because tissue is a group of
cells performing a particular function but cluster of eggs
cannot perform a specific function rather they perform it
individually
Ans5.The three types of muscles found in the human
body are:
(1)Striated muscles: found in arms and legs.
(2)Unstrained muscles: found in intestine and stomach.
(3)Cardiac muscles: found in heart.
Ex D Long answer type
An1(a)Cell and tissue:
Cell: It is the structural and functional unit of life.
E.g. nerve cell
Tissue: It is the group of similar cells performing a
specific function.
E.g. connective tissue
(b)organ and organism:
Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform
function within your body.
E.g. heart, liver
Organism: several organ system make up an organism.
E.g. humans, animals
(c)Organ and organelle
Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform
function within your body.
E.g. heart, liver
Organelle: little organs found within the cell. They perform
function within the cell
E.g. ribosomes, mitochondria.
(d)Organ and Organ system.:
Organ: several tissue make up an organ. They perform
function within your body.
E.g. heart, liver
Organ system: several organs together performing a specific
life process form an organ system
E.g. circulatory system
And(a)Parenchyma and collenchyma:
Parenchyma: They are the thin walled cells which may be
oval, or round in shape. These cells help in the storage of
food.
Collenchyma: They are the elongated cells with thickened
cell wall at the corners. These cells give mechanical
support to the parts of the plant
(b)Meristematic tissue and permanent tissue:
Meristematic tissue: These are made up of actively dividing
cells. Cells are small usually cuboidal.
Permanent tissue: These are made up of cells which have lost
their ability to divide.
(c) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma:
Sclerenchyma: They are made up dead cells. Here, cell wall
is thick. They give strength to the parts of the plants.
Parenchymal: They are made up of living cells. Here, cell
wall is thin. These cells help in the storage of food.
(d)cells of involuntary muscles are spindle shaped
with tapering ends. Dark and light bands are not present.
These muscles don't work according to our will while cells
of voluntary muscles are long. Striations that is dark and
light bands are present in these cells. These muscles work
according to our will.
(e)fibres of voluntary muscles are long cells
constituting voluntary muscles. They are not branched. They
are found in arms, legs, face, neck, etc.
Cardiac muscles are made up of short cells but they are
branched They are found in the heart.
Ans. E Structured/application questions
1 (a)The given diagram is the phloem tissue of
plant as it contains the cellular components of phloem.
(b)1.sieve cell or sieve tube
2.phloem parenchyma cells
3.companion cells
4.sieve plate
(c)This tissue is likely to be found in the stem and
leaves of plants.
(d)sieve tubes helps in the transport of food from
leaves to storage organs and other parts of the plant.
Phloem parenchymal helps in the storage of starch and fats.
Companion cells help in the functioning of the sieve tubes.
Sieve plate allows the transportation of food as it contains
perforations.
Ans2(a)This cell is nerve cell or neuron.
(b)1-Cellbody
2-Axon
3-Nucleus
4-Nissl granule
5-Neurolemma
6-Axon endings
(c) This cell is likely to be found in nervous system. Nerve
cells conduct impulses from one part of the body to other.
Class
9 physics chapter2
Motion in one dimension.
Exercise 2 (a)
Q1.
Differentiate between scalar and vector quantities, giving
two examples of each.
Ans Scalar
quantities: These are physical quantities which are
expressed only by their magnitudes.
Examples:length and mass.
Vector quantities:These physical quantities requires the
magnitude as well as direction to express them.
Examples:Force and weight.
Q2. when is
a body said to be at rest?
Ans A body
is said to be at rest if it does not change its position
with respect to it's surroundings.
Q3
When is a body said to be in motion?
Ans A body
is said to be in motion if it change it's position with
respect to it's surroundings.
Q4
What do you mean by motion in one direction?
Ans When a
body moves along a straight line path, it's motion is said
to be one dimensional motion.
Q5
Define displacement. State it's unit.
Ans The
shortest distance from the initial to the final position of
the body. It's S. I. Unit is metre(m).
Q6
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Ans from
book, page no. 29.
Q7
Can displacement be zero even if distance is not
zero? Give one example to explain your answer.
Ans yes
,displacement can be zero even if distance is not zero. For
example: if a body moves in a circle,
then displacement in one rotation is zero but
distance covered in one rotation is circumfrence of the
circular path.
Q8 Define
velocity. State it's s. I. Unit.
AnsThe
velocity of a body is the distance travelled per second by
the body in a specified direction. Its S.
I unit is ms-1.
Q9
Define speed. What is its S. I. Unit?
Ans The
speed of a body is the rate of change of distance with time.
Its S. I. Unit is ms-1.
Q10
Distinguish between speed and velocity.
Ans from
book, page no. 32.
Q11 When is
the instantaneous speed same as the average speed?
Ans When the
body moves with uniform speed.
Q12
Distinguish between uniform velocity and variable velocity.
Ans uniform
velocity:1when a body covers equal distance in a straight
line, in equal interval of time.
2.
in this case, direction of motion remains same.
3. eg.a body
moving with a constant speed in a straight line has uniform
velocity.
Variable
velocity:1.when a body covers unequal distance in equal
intervals of time in a straight line.
2. in this
case, direction of motion changes.
3.
eg.circular motion is example of variable velocity.
Q13
Distinguish between average speed and average velocity.
Ans Average
speed:
1. it is the
ratio of total distance travelled by the body to total time
taken to travel that distance.
Thus,
Average
speed=total distance travelled/total time taken.
2. It is a
scalar quantity.
Average
velocity:
1. if the
velocity of a body moving in a particular direction changes
with time, the ratio of displacement
to time taken in the entire journey is called its
average velocity. Thus,
Average
velocity=Displacement/total time taken
2. it is a
vector quantity.
Q14 Give an
example of motion of a body moving with a constant speed,
but with variable velocity. Draw a
diagram to represent such a motion.
Ans The
motion of a body
in a circular path even with constant speed, but with
variable velocity because in
a circular path, the direction of motion of body
continuously changes with time. Its velocity changes at a
uniform rate. At any instant, it's velocity is along the
tangent to the circular path at that point. Fig. 2.5 from
book
Q15Give an
example of motion in which average speed is not zero, but
average velocity is zero.
Ans if a
body starts its motion from a point and comes back to the
same point after a certain time, the displacement is zero,
so the average velocity is also zero, but total distance
travelled is not zero so the average speed is not zero.
Q16Define
acceleration. State it's S. I. Unit.
Ans
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time.
Its S. I. Unit is ms-2.
Q17Distinguish between acceleration and retardation.
Acceleration
(1). Rate of change of velocity with time is called
acceleration.
(2). A body
falling towards the earth has positive acceleration.
Retardation
(1). When velocity of body decreases with time, the motion
is said to be decelerated or retarded.
(2). A ball
thrown vertically upward has retardation.
Q18Differentiate between uniform acceleration and variable
acceleration.
Ans Uniform
acceleration:(1) The acceleration is said to be uniform when
equal change in velocity take place in equal interval of
time.
(2) The
motion of body under gravity is an example of uniform
acceleration.
Variable
acceleration:(1) if change in velocity is not same
in the same interval of time, the acceleration is
said to variable.
(2) The
motion of vehicle on a crowded road is with variable
acceleration.
Q19What is
meant by the term retardation? Name its
S. I unit.
Ans Negative
acceleration is called retardation. Its S. I. Unit is ms-2.
Q20 Give
example of each type of the following motion:(a) uniform
velocity:The rain drops reach on earth's surface falling
with uniform velocity.
(b) variable
velocity:the motion of a body in a circular path.
(C) variable
acceleration:the motion of a vehicle on a crowded or hilly
road.
(d) uniform
retardation:if brakes are applied on a train approaching a
station to stop it.
Q21 Define
the term acceleration due to gravity. State its average
value.
Ans When a
body falls freely under gravity, the acceleration produced
in the body due to earth's
gravitational attraction is called acceleration due
to gravity(g). The average value of g is 9.8ms-2.
Exercise
2 (b)
Q1
What
informations about the motion of a body are obtained from
the displacement time graph?
Ans (1)The
slope of displacement-time graph gives the velocity.
(2) The
displacement-time graph is a straight line inclined to the
time axis. It shows linear relationship
between the displacement and time.
(3) The
displacement time graph is a straight line parallel to time
axis mean the body is at rest.
Q2. (a)
What does the slope of a displacement time graph
represent?
Ans The
slope of a displacement time graph gives velocity.
(b) Can
displacement time sketch be parallel to the displacement
axis? Give reason to your answer.
Ans No, the
displacement time graph can never be a straight line
parallel to the displacement axis because
such a line would mean that the distance covered by
the body in a certain direction increases without
any increase in time(I.e.velocity of the body is
infinite) which is impossible.
Q3
Draw a displacement time graph for a boy going to
school with a uniform velocity.
Ans from the
book at page no 37 figure 2.8
Q4
State how the velocity time graph used to find (1)
the acceleration of a body
Ans:
acceleration=velocity÷time, if slope is positive mean
accelerated motion. If slope is negative mean
retardation. If slope is zero means acceleration is
zero.
(2) the
distance travelled by the body in a given time(3) the
displacement of a body in a given time.
Ans The
distance travelled by the body in a given time can be
obtained by finding area enclosed between the
velocity time graph and X axis gives displacement of
the body. Total distance travelled by body is their
arithmetic sum(without sign)
The
total displacement is obtained by adding them numerically
with proper sign.
Q5
Draw a velocity time graph for a body moving with
initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a. Use
this graph to find distance travelled by the body in
time t.
Ans from
book at page no. 51,figure 2.45.
Distance travelled by body in time t=area of Trapezium OABD
=area of rectangle OAED+area of triangle ABE
Or
S=OA*OD+1/2*BE*AE=ut+1/2(v-u) *t
=ut+1/2at2.
Q6 Draw the
shape of the velocity time graph for a body moving(a)
uniform velocity, (b) uniform
acceleration.
Ans from
book at page no. 40,fig 2.13 for part a
and fig 2.14 for part b.
Q7 Draw a
graph for acceleration against time for a uniformly
accelerated motion. How can it be used to
find the change in speed in certain interval of time?
Ans fig.
2.19 at page no. 42
Since acceleration=velocity÷time
therefore, acceleration×time=change in speed. So in the
given graph the area enclosed between the
acceleration time sketch and time axis gives change
in speed of the body.
Q8
Draw a velocity time graph for the free fall of a
body under gravity, starting from rest. Take g=10ms-2.
Ans figure
2.22 at page no. 43
Q9
A body falls freely from a certain height. Show
graphically the relationship between the distance
fallen and square of time. How will you determine g
from this graph?
Ans
fig. 2.24 at page no. 44
The value of g can be obtained by doubling the slope
of the S-t2
graph for a freely fallig body.
Please learn and write on your copies.
History
Class 9 - Chapter 2
structured questions
( based on 2019
edition)
1. With reference to the sources of information about the
Vedic age......
a. The Vedas. b. The Epic c. Role of iron
implements
Ans- a. The social, economic, political and religious
aspects of the life of the people came to be reflected in
the Vedic literature. Thus, Vedas became the storehouse of
knowledge. The Vedic literature was written in Sanskrit. The
term, Veda' has been derived from the Sanskrit word, 'vid'
which means knowledge.
.
b. The Epics serve as the main source of information on the
political institutions and the social and cultural
organisation of the Epic Age
(ii) They provide information on various Aryan Kingdoms,
their armies and the weapons they used.
iii.They reveal the high ideals of family life of the
Aryans.
c. i. Agriculture: Discovery of iron gave the Aryans
new implements like axes to clear the forest and cultivate
the land.
(ii) Occupation: The use of iron gave rise to new trades by
providing durable implements like saws, chisels, hammers,
nails and tongs.
(iii) Defence: Because of its durability and easy
availability, iron was extensively used in making weapons
like swords, armours and shields.
2. With reference to Vedic Literature, answer the following
questions:
(a) List the categories into which Vedic literature is
divided.
(b) Give a brief account of the four Vedas.
(c) What are known as Brahmanas and Aranyakas?
Ans- a. The Vedic literature can be classified into the
following categories: (i) The four Vedas, i.e., the Rig,
Sama, Yajur and Atharva Vedas and their Samhitas. (ii) The
Brahmanas attached to each Samhita (iii) The Aranyakas (iv)
The Upanishads.
b. i. The Rig Veda : It is the oldest religious text of the
world. It is said to have been composed during the early
Vedic Period . The hymns are dedicated by the sages to Gods
ii.
) The Sama Veda: In this veda some of the hymns are borrowed
from the Rig Veda, These hymns were meant to be sung at the
time of the sacrifice by the priests]
(iii) The Yajur Veda: (It deals with hymns recited during
the performance of Yajnas
(iv) The Atharva Veda: The hymns contained in this Veda deal
with magic and charm. Most of the hymns are taken from the
Rig Veda.
c. The Brahmanas
Written after the Vedas as their simple commentary, the
Brahmanas are in prose. They explain the social and
religious importance of rituals as well as the value of
sacrifices.
The Aranyakas
They are known as forest books' written for the guidance of
the hermits and the students living in forests.
3. With reference to the Society during the Vedic Age,
answer the following
(a) Explain briefly the class divisions that existed in the
society. (b) Explain the four stages in the life of an
Aryan.
(c) State the position of women in the Vedic period.
a. People followed different professions which became
hereditary in course of time. This resulted in the division
of society into occupational stages classes. Gradually, this
took the form of caste and the present caste system emerged.
In the Later Vedic Period, Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas
and Shudras became four distinct castes or Varnas.
b. i. The The Brahmacharya Ashrama lasted upto the age
of 25 years. During this period, the pupil was expected to
acquire knowledge in the gurukul and observe strict
discipline.
ii.Grihastha Ashrama,25 to 50 years
Man was supposed to marry and raise a family. As a
householder, he was to take responsibility of maintaining
his family.
iii. The third stage was Vanaprastha Ashrama,50 to 75 years.
During this period man was expected to retire from worldly
life and acquire spiritual and philosophical knowledge.
iv. The Sanyasa Ashrama,75 to 100 years.
This was the period of renunciation. Man had to leave
everything forever and go into meditation in order to attain
moksha or salvation.
c. POSITION OF WOMEN
During the Rig Vedic Period women were respected. The
institution of marriage had become sacred. The daughters
were given freedom to choose their husbands.
In the Later Vedic Period, there was significant decline in
the status of women.They did not enjoy the right to
property. The freedom to choose husbands by women was
curtailed.
4. With reference to economic organisation of the people in
the Vedic Period, answer te following questions:
(a) State the methods used by the Aryans in agriculture.
(b) Why was domestication of animals important to the
Aryans? (c) How was trade managed during this period?
Ans- a. Agriculture: Discovery of iron gave the Aryans new
implements like axes to clear the forest and cultivate the
land. Thus, agriculture became their important occupation.
With the use of iron plough-heads, sickles and hoes, they
could bring vast tracts of land under cultivation. The
production of more rice, wheat, barley, vegetables and
fruits improved their standard of living.
b. In the beginning the main occupation was domestication
agriculture was secondary. Cattle was the important source
of wealth.Cows were domesticated and milk and milk products
like curd, butter, ghee, etc. were used.
c.Trade:During the Later Vedic phase agricultural surplus
led to trade, giving rise to markets from which developed
towns and cities. Thus, trade became the pivot around which
the whole town and city life moved. Although the Aryans had
introduced coins, barter system was still dominant in trade
with other countries.
5. With reference to the picture given, answer the following
questions:
(a) Identify this ancient education system. Persons
belonging to which ashrama of life attended this?
(b) Describe briefly the life in this ancient education
institution.
(c) What do you think are the advantages and disadvantages
of studying in this educational setup?
Ans- a. This system was known as Gurukul system of
education.
The person belonged to the Brahamacharya Ashrama.
b. The student was required to do household chores for his
teacher. He had to get up early in the morning, take a bath
and chant the Vedic mantras. Most of the teaching was done
orally. At the completion of the education, a student used
to give guru dakshina – a gift to his teacher.The main
object of education was to bring about physical, mental and
spiritual development of the pupils.
c. Advantages;
i. It was focused on all round development of a student like
mental, physical etc.
ii. Pupils learnt to live a disciplined life.
Disadvantages;
i. Pupils had to left the home at tender age which deprived
them from parental love.
ii. There was no formal system of evaluation.
History
Chapter 1 structured questions
Q1
Answer
a.
The great bath: it indicates the following
1. the art of building had reached a high degree of
perfection.
2. There might have existed a ruling class that could
mobilize labour.
3. The importance attached to ceremonial bathing
4. The efficient planning in the structural features
relating to water supply
b.
The seals:
1.
These are used by the Harappans to show their artistic
skills.
2.
These provide useful information about script, trade,
religion and beliefs.
3.
These were used by the traders to stamp their goods.
C.
script : the harappans used a script which is regarded as
pictographic since its signs represent birds, fish and
varieties of the human form. The number of signs of harappan
is known to be between 375 and 400.
Q2. answer:
a.
In
1921, dayaram sahni an officer in the archaeological
department. Survey of India got ruins dug out, around
harappa. In 1922, R.D Banerjee along with a biddhist monk
found the city of mohenjo daro under a mound. Later, sir
john marshall ordered large scale excavations.
b.
The entire area of the harappan civilization is triangular
in shape covering an area of about 1,299,600 sq. km,
extending from
sutkagendor in balochistan in the west to alamgirpur, in
ganga yamuna doab and from manda in jammu in north to
bhagatrav in narmada estuary in the north.
c.
Manda, banawali, kalibangan, alamgirpur, lothal rupar and
rangpur.
Q3. answer:
a.
Town planning: it is the most remarkable feature of the
Harappan civilisation. The indus cities were set up on a
grid-pattern, consisting of regular planning with division,
alignment of streets, planning of the houses and public
building with the provision of thoroughfares.
b.
Special features of
the houses: the houses at street corners were rounded to
allow carts to pass easily and the house drains emptied all
waste water into the street drains.
c.
Common elements:
given on page no. 9 shaded portions.
Q4. answer:
a.
A
large number of stone images have been found; out of these
the statue of a yogi draped with a shawl is well-known.
Bronze statues of
a dancing girl, animals and carts etc. are
noteworthy.
b.
Harappans produced their own characteristics pottery which
was made glossy and shining. Earthen vessels and pottery
crafted on the potter’s wheel, were decorated with black
geometrical designs.
The large jars with narrow necks and red pots with
black decoration bear evidence of their artistic skill.
c.
The sculpture in metal was done through the special lost wax
process. In this process wax figures were covered with a
coating of clay. Then the wax was melted by heating and the
hollow mould thus created was filled with molten metal which
took the original shape of the object.
Q5
answer:
a.
The seal given in the picture is a pashupati seal.
The seals were used for trade in the vast area of indus
valley, as these have been found from various spots spread
over the civilisation sites. The seals with short
inscriptions gave some message which cannot be deciphered
yet.
b.
The seals were made of terra-cotta, steatite, agate etc.
c.
The seals reveal the mythical and religious beliefs. The
figures carved in the seals depict the worship of mother
goddess and Pashupati and various animals, trees etc.
Q6
answer:
a.
The picture is of a great bath.
1.
It
has a large rectangular tank in a courtyard surrounded by a
corridor on all four sides.
2.
There are two flights of steps one in the north and the
other in the south leading into the tank.
b.
. same as first a.
C.
the citadel: the raised area of each city was called the
citadel. It owed its height to the buildings constructed on
mud brick platforms. The citadel had the houses of the
ruling class and important buildings like the great bath,
the granary, the assembly hall and the workshops.
Chapter 3 jainism and
buddhism
Q1
answer
a.
Same as 1 short answer.
b.
Same as 2 short answer.
c.
Jatakas : the jatakas tales written in pali language refer
to the previous birth of lord buddha. They also throw light
on the political, economic and social conditions ranging
from the fifth to second century.
Q2. answer:
a.
Monopoly of the priests, expensive rituals, difficult
sanskrit language and rigid caste system universally
affected the life and feelings of the common people. Some
kings had also realised certain social evils and
so patronised Jainism and Buddhism for a better
pattern of life and simple rules for spiritual uplift.
Ahimsa and the safety of animals were also prefered by
farmers.
b.
Causes for the rise of jainism and buddhism :
1.
Corruption in the religion: in order to extract money,
priests encouraged ordinary people to perform yajnas and
conduct household rites beyond their means.
2.
Rigid caste system: the division of society becomes rigid.
It did not allow any mobility. A person of one caste could
not become a member of another society.there were
restrictions on the basis of caste.
3.
Difficult language: vedic literature was written in sanskrit
which was very difficult to understand and it gave birth to
the monopoly of brahmins over religion. They started
exploiting other castes.
4.
Political impact: the republics of shakays, vajjis, and
mallas embraced buddhism ashoka and kanishka made buddhism
their state religion.
c
. when bhadrabahu took jainism to karnataka; at the
same time sthulibhadra in magadh spread jainism with
different ideas. So after the first jain council held around
300BC, jainism was divided into two groups or sects.
Q3. answer:
a.
Mahavira was the twenty fourth and the last of the
tirthankaras. He made Jainism popular and systematic.
Mahavira was born in kundagram near vaishali in bihar in the
2nd half of the 6th century B.C.
b.
He
got absorbed in spiritual pursuits from early childhood. At
the age of thirty, after the death of his parents,Mahavira
renounced the world and became ascetic. He practised severe
penance for 12 years and attained supreme knowledge.
c.
Mahavira conquered all worldly desires and was named as
jina, which means the conqueror.
Q4. answer:
a.
Nine truths:
1.
Punya (results of good deeds).
2.
Pap (sin)
3.
Ashrav (good deeds)
4.
Sanvar (hindrance in the way of karma)
5.
Nirjara (destruction of the karmas)
6.
Moksha (salvation)
7.
Jiva (living things)
8.
Ajiva (non living things)
9.
Bandha (bondage).
b.
. doctrines:
1)
triratnas : right faith, right knowledge, right conduct.
2)
Karma: good deeds provide moksha.
3)
Equality: universal brotherhood.
4)
Eternal soul: soul is immortal.
5)
Belief in penance: sacrifice of physical desires,
6)
Salvation: freedom from life and death.
C.
causes
1)
Jainism preached rigid austerity.
2)
The religion did not spread to the foriegn countries.
3)
Jainism did not get royal patronage.
4)
Hinduism revived during the Gupta period.
Q5
a.
Gautam buddha was the son of sakya king, suddhodana of
kapilvastu. He was born in 563 B.C at lumbini. After
studying under renowned teachers of rajgriha, he went to
gaya and practised severe penance and at the age of thirty
-five he attained enlightenment.
b.
After enlightenment he preached his first sermon at deer
park sarnath this incident is known as
dharmachakrapravartana.
c.
He
established a bodh sangha at magadha. He received the
patronage of several rulers of magadha, kosala and kosambi
and followed by a large number of followers from all classes
of society.
Q6
Answer:
a.
Membership: the members of monastic order required to
renounce the world before joining the sangha. The members
had to take the oath, they also had to undergo training for
10 years.
b.
1. To speak the
truth.
2. Not to harm the creatures.
3. Not to keep money.
c.
The principles of Buddhism have a deep effect on social
life. Which gave impetus to weaker sections of the society
to fight for their rights and survival. The social-religious
reform movements were the plus points and the solid
political ground.
Q7
answer:
a.
1)
Gautam buddha founded Buddhism. 2) Mahavira founded the
jainism.
b.
Main teachings
1.
Ahimsa i.e non violence.
2.
Asateya i.e not stealing.
3.
Satya i.e not telling a lie.
4.
Apargriha i.e not possessing property.
5.
Brahamcharya i.e practising chastity.
Four noble truths:
1.
The world is full of suffering.
2.
The suffering has a cause.
3.
Desire is the cause of suffering
4.
If
desire is stopped, suffering can also be stopped.
C.
similarities:
1.
Both did not accept the vedas.
2.
Non-violence was their creed.
Dissimilarities:
1.
Buddhism followed a middle path but Jainism believed in hard
penance.
2.
It
is silent about the existence of god whereas jainism denies
the existence of god.
GEOGRAPHY
STD
IX
CHAPTER 5
LANDFORM OF THE EARTH
Ans 1 Plains are comparatively flat and a level surface of
land with least
in its highest and
lowest points
Ans 2The process of
mountain building that occurs on large scale. Literally, the
birth of mountain.
Ans 3 The different types of mountains are fold mountain,
block mountain and volcanic mountain.
Fold mountain- These mountains have been formed due to the
sedimentary deposits and large scale earth movements caused
by tectonic force . e.g. Himalayas,
Alps, Andes etc.
Block mountain – These mountain have been formed due to
faulting in the ground surface. E.g. Vosges and black forest
Mt.
Volcanic mountain- These mountain have been formed by the
accumulation of lava around the crater which is thrown out
during a volcanic eruption.e.g.fujiyama and Mauna loo.
Ans 4 An extensive almost flat topped region is called
plateau.
Ans 5 The various typed of plateaus are:
[1] Intermundane plateau eg Columbia plateau in north
America.
[2] Piedmont plateau eg Patagonian plateau in south America.
[3] Volcanic plateau eg Deccan plateau in India.
Ans 6 Advantages of plains are :
1-
They are extensive area of lowland.
2-
Many of them are smooth or have a gentle undulating surface.
Ans 7 Following are the types of depositional plains.
1 Alluvial plains These are formed by the depositional work
of rivers and are divided into three categories.
a-piedmont alluvial plains-These are formed at the foothill
of the mountains, due to the deposition of the material like
cobbles, pebbles, boulders
B-Flood plains- A low lying area near a stream.
C – Delta plains-These are formed at the mouth of a river in
the lower valley
2-Loess plains- These are formed by the depositional work of
wind.
3-Glacial depositional plains-these plains are formed by the
depositional work of glaciers
Ans 8 The main uses of mountains are –
1-They are the storehouse of minerals like coal, iron ore,
gold etc.
2-They are the source of rivers.
3-They are important for their natural vegetation.
4 They are a natural barrier and also form an important
political boundary
5 They have a great impact on the climate.
Ans 9-The difference between intermundane plateau and
volcanic plateau;
INTERMONTAIN PLATEAU are surround by mountain. Their surface
show an variety of topographic features for eg. Plateau of
Tibet and Mexican plateau.
VOLCANIC PLATEAUS are formed by lava flow from volcanic
eruption for eg. The plateau of peninsular India.
Ans 10 Plains are flat and level surface of land with least
difference in its highest and lowest point .They are
extensive area of low land.
AND Plateau is an extensive flat topped region.
Ans 11 A mass of very high rock rising to great height above
the surrounding areas is called mountains.
Ans 12 CHARACTERISTICS OF YOUNG FOLG MOUNTAIN:
[1] These have been formed in the most recent phase OF
Mountain building.
[2] They have rugged relief feature.
Ans 13 The mountains of young fold type are characterized by
ruggedness of relief and rounded contours of mountain areas
which have been subjected to weathering agents for long
period of time.eg. the alps and the Scottish highlands.
Ans 14 Alluvial plains are formed by the depositional work
of river.
Ans 15: [1] Fold mountains eg Himalayas.
[2] Block mountains eg African rift valley.
[3] Volcanic plateau eg Deccan plateau.
[4] Structural plain eg. The great plain of USA.
[B] DEFINE THE FOLLOWING :
[1] same as ans 9
[2] Block mountain- see ans 3.
[C] DIAGRAMS:
[1] FIG 5.5
[2]FIG 5.11
Class-9
Geography Ch-2 Latitudes and Longitudes Ex-A
Answers the following:-
1]We
need to locate places on earth because earth is a huge
planet & to know it properly
we
need to locate place.
2]The
latitude of a place is the angular distance of that place
north or south of the
equator,as measured from the
centre of the earth.
3]Pg.-30 from technical terms.
4]Because there is no land mass beyond 90° north & 90°
south.
5]These lines are called meridians,meaning "mid-day" as all
the places on the same
meridians have their noon at the
same time.
6]pg-29,content analysis 4th point
7]phg-29-30,content analysis 6th point
8]The
distance between each latitude,is approximately 111KM,as
earth represent 360°
and the circumference of te
earth is approximately 40000KM. THUS,40000/360°Pg-30
content b=111KM
9]The north temperate lies
between 23 1/2° N to 66 1/2° N and south temperate
zone 23 1/2° S to 66
1/2°.stretch from torrid zone to frigid zone
10]Because torrid zone receives
direct rays of the sun.
11]Because of inclination of earth's axis and recieve very
slant rays of the sun.
12]Local time of a place is that time when sun is overhead
to meridian.It is fixed by
the apparent movement of the
sun.
13]
YES
14]
1°=4min
30°=4x30=120min or 2hrs
12noon +2hrs=14hrs or 2pm
15]If
each city werre to keep the time of its own meridian,there
would be much diffrence
in local time betweeen one city
and another.Therefore, a system ofr standard time is
observed by all countries
16]Pg-30 from technical terms.We have 24 time zones.
17]Because singapore lies in the torrid zone and london lies
in the temperate zone.
18]pg-30 content analysis g point.international date line is
a line concerned with
the dates of the calender and
adopted international.
19]Due
to its large east west extent.
20]Except the equator,other parallels of latitudes are known
small circle.
21]Because these latitudes do not divide the earth into two
equal half.
22]If
each town,village anf city in the world had kept its on time
it would have cause
utter confusion,as the clocks
and watches would have to be constantly altered as one
travelled from one place to
another.
23]Pg-30 from technical terms.
24]Earthosthens.
25]Important climatic zones of the world are- The Torrid or
Tropical zone,Temperate zone
and
Frigid zone.
26]The
earth takes 24 hrs to run throw 360 degrees.The sun appears
to moves at the rate
of 15° in 1hr or 360°in 24hrs or
1°in 4 minutes.
27]The
intrection of latitude and longitude at right angle is the
extact position of a
place on the earth's
surface.latitude give us the location of any place in
northen
and southern hemisphere while
longitude help us locate the place in eastern or
western hemisphere.with the help
of these intersecting line we can locate the
position of any place on the globe or map.
28]
1-Latitude
2-Longitude
3-40°North
29]
A-Local Time-Local time of a
place is that time when sun is overhead to the meridian.
it is fixed by the appearent
movement of the sun.
Standard Time-Most country adopt their standard from the
local time of their central
meridian.for eg-India follows
the local time of its central meridian 82 1/2° East
which passes throw Allahabad.
B-Parallel run from east to west and never intersect with
each other whereas
meridians run from north to
south and intersect at north and south poles.
C-Equator separates the Northern and Southern
hemispheres.The equator is at 0°latitude.
the prime meridian separates the
Eastern nad Western hemispheres.The prime meridian
run
through Greenwich,England and is at 0°Longitude.
ex-B,Define the terms:-
1,2,3,4 from technical terms
pg-30
5,6 same ans 29a
7-In
india the longitude 82 1/2° East is selected as standard
meridian,which passes
which passes through
Allahabad.since its local time is taken as standard Time,the
whole country follows it,it is
called indian standard time.
8-pg-30 content analysis F point
9-same
ans 18
10-The
0°Latitude is known as great circle.It divides the earth
into two equal halves
11-same ans 20
12-Same ans 23
Ex-c
Distinguish between the
following:-
1-pg-29 table 2.1
2-from
ex-b 10 and 11 define
3-from
ex-b 8 & 7 define
EX-D
Give reasons:-
1-Because latituides are angular
distance of a place north and south to the equator and
longitude are the angular
distance of a place east and west to the prime meridian.
2-Due
to large east-west extent.
3-To
avoid cutting through the continent.
4-Because the places east of
greenwich see the sun earlier and gain time or Because sun
rise in the east and set in the
west.
5-Because latitudes are parallel to each other.
6-Because mumbai lies in the east of prime meridian and
london lies in the prime
meridian.
7-The
difference between the indian standard time and the
greenwich is 82 1/2°,i.e.,
5 1/2 hrs.0° to 82 1/2°east =82
1/2°X 4=330 minutes or 5 1/2 hrs.
Ex-E
1-pg-21 fig.2.7
2-pg-23 fig.2.10
3-pg-20 fig.2.3
Dear students some questions are not given in new book. Here
we are adding few questions to cover inside portion.
Class 9th history and civics harappan
civilisation
I.
Short answer
questions:
QUESTION1. what is
meant by the term civilisation?
Answer:
Civilisation is
defined as an advanced stage of human cultural development
it ipmlies the use of superior technology and complex
economic relationships. Following are the traits which mark
a civilisation:
1.
Surplus food
2.
Division of labour
3.
System of writing
4.
Development of technology
Question2. mention
any three features that led to the emergence of civilisation
Answer:
1.
The ruins of the sites reveal that the
harappan people were primarily urban and their cities were
designed skillfully.
2.
The unique features of the city was its
elaborate drainage system. A brick-lined drainage channel
flowed alongside every street.
3.
The great bath was also unearthed. The
pool was filled with water taken from a well nearby. The
walls of the pool were made.
QUESTION3.
What are known as
bronze age civilisation?
Answer:
Man learnt the art
of mixing copper with tin of zinc to produce the alloy
called bronze. Bronze is hard and more ductile than copper
and is therefore, more suitable for the mannufacture of tool
and weapons. Because of the importance of bronze in the
growth of the civilisations, these civilisations are known
as the bronze age civilisation.
QUESTION4
Name the important
sources of information on the harappan civilisation
Answer:
The archeaological
remains
Seals, sculptures
QUESTION5.
Why did ancient man
start using bronze for making tools and weapons
Answer:
Ancient man start
using bronze for making tools ans weapons because bronze is
harder and more ductile than copper. Therefore, it is more
suitable for the manufacture of tools and weapons.
QUESTION6.
Why is harappan
civilisation called so?
Answer:
The harappan
civilisation is called so because the harappan site was the
first to be discovered in 1921 at the modern site of harappa
situated in the province of west punjab in pakistan.
QUESTION7.
What types of
weights and measures did the indus people use?
Answer:
The indus people
used sets of cubical stone weights. The basic unit was
16(equalto mmodern 14 grams). the larger weights were
multiples of 16 like 32,48,64,128 and so on. The smaller
ones were all fractions of 16.
QUESTION8.
Name one important
public building of indus valley civilisation and its
importance.
Answer:
The great bath is
one of the largest public buildings at mohen-jo-daro. It was
used by a large group of people while performing some
religious rituals.
QUESTION9.
Name the process by
which sculpture in metal was done
Answer:
It was known as lost
wax process.
QUESTION10.
QUESTIONwhat do you
know about the indus script?
Answer:
Indus scripts has
not been deciphered as yet. So the only source of script are
some seals and copper tablet. Seals display some sort of
pictorial writing. Besides this similar inscriptions have
been found engraved on copper tablets with figures of men
and animals.
QUESTION11.
Mention the types of
dress worn by the indus valley people.
Answer:
Most people used
cotton clothes. Rich people also used woollen clothes in
winter. The women’s dress included skirts, cloaks and scarfs
and the men’s dress was dhoti and shawl. Spinning wheels and
needles of that time prove the art of spinning was practiced
by the people.
QUESTION12
State two features
of the trade in the indus valley civilisation.
Answer:
1.
the harappan carried on considerable
trade in stone, metal, shell etc.
2.
They however, did not use metal money but
carried on all exchange through barter system
Question13.
Name three animals
depicted on pashupati seal
Answer:
Seals of pashupati
shows a three faced deity wearing a buffalo-horned head
dress, seated cross legged on a throne and surrounded by an
elephant, a tiger, a buffalo and a rhinoceros, with two deer
at his feet.
QUESTION14.
State any two causes
that led to the decline of the harappan civilisation
Answer:
1.
Floods and earthquake: it is held by some
scholars that floods in mohenjo-daro led to the abandonment.
2.
Attack: some historians believed that the
invading aryans destroyed the indus valley civilisation.
QUESTION15.
In what two respects
is harappan civilisation our greatest heritage?
Answer:
The harappan
civilisation present a basic ground of indispensible
heritage which imparts a soild imprint on the latter
civilisation e.g the way of making baked pottery, bricks,
beads jwellery etc the cultivation of cotton was adopted by
the egyptians after several centuries.
QUESTION16.
Give two
characteristic features of the citadel
Answer:
It owed its height
to the building constructed on mud brick platforms. The
citadel had the houses of ruling class and important
building like the great bath, the grannary, the assembly
hall and the workshops.
QUESTION17.
How were seals used?
What information do they give about harappan trade?
Answer:
The seals were used
by traders to stamp their goods. After a bag with goods was
tied, a layer of wer clay was applied on the knot, and the
seal was passed on it. These seals were found in different
regions. This indiacates that the harappan trade had spread
over a vast area.
QUESTION18
Briefly describe
granaries at harappa.
Answer:
In harappa there
were two rows of six granaries each. To the south of the
granaries at harappa working floors consisting of rows of
circula brick platforms were discovered. It is believed that
these floors were meant for threshing grain because wheat
and barley were found in the crevices of the floors.
QUESTION19.
Breifly describe the
ornaments.
Answer:
Ornaments were worn
by both men and women. Some of the common ornaments were
necklaces, finger -rings, bangles, armlets, anklets, nose
rings, fan shaped gead dress and earings. They were made
gold, silver, precious stones and ivory.
Question20.
Breifly describe the
dancing girl.
Answer.
The bronze statue of
a dancing girl, found at mohen jo daro, is a masterpiece of
art and it shows a high degree of development in art of
sculpture. The figurine shows vigour, variety and ingenuity.
The right arm of the dancing girl rests on the hip and the
left arm in heavily bangled. It holds a small bowl against
her left leg.
QUESTION21.
Mention the
evidences which suggest that the harappan peoplehad trdae
relations with other counteries.
Answer ;
1.
The mesopotamian records from about 2350
BC refer to trade relations with meluha(name given to
indians)
2.
objects of sumerian origin found at the
ruins of the indus cities indicate that their trade
relations between these countries were actively practised
into.
3.
The seal bearing a mastless ship holds
the evidence of popularity of the sea routs
NOTE: these include some
internal part also.
Chapter
2. vedic period
QUESTION1 name the categories of
vedic literature. Why was early vedic literature is known as
shruti?
Answer:
Vedic literature is
divided into two categories:
1.
Early vedic literature( Shruti)
2.
Later vedic literature (samriti)
It is believed that
four vedas and its parts( the brahmanas, the Aranyakas, the
upnishads) are given by god to sages by hearing(shruti means
which is heard) and so it is called Shruti.
QUESTION2.
Name the four vedas
and state what the hymns in each veda deal with?
Answer:
Four vedas:
1.
The Rig veda.
2.
The sama veda
3.
The Yajur veda
4.
The Atharva veda
1.The hymns of rig
veda dedicated by the sages to the gods. It contains the
famous gayatri mantra.
2. the hymns of sama
veda sung at the time of the sacrifice by the priests
3. the hymns of
Yajur veda deals with rituals perfomed at the time of
Yajnas.
5. the hymns of
Atharva veda deals with the power of ghosts, spirits, gyan,
karma and upasna.
QUESTION3.
What are upnishads?
Answer
The Upnishads are
philoshophical commentaries on the vedas. These form the
basic source of indian philoshophy. They are said to form
the foundation on which later additions to vedic literature
rest.
QUESTION4
What are
dharmashatras?
Answer
The law- books
called the dharmashatrasand the samritis together with their
commentaries are called dharmshastras.
Question5
What is known as
bhagwad gita? Answer:
Bhagwad gita is the
compilation of the text, teachings imparted by lord
krishnato arjun explaining the importance of Karma or duty,
immortal soul, the right way of life. It also includes the
glimpse of mahabharat battle. It is a sacred book of hindus.
QUESTION6.
Mention the
importance of the Epics as a source of information about the
aryans.
Answer.
1.
these inform about the political, social
and cultural organisation of the epic age.
2.
these provide information about aryan
kingdom.
3.
These reveal the high ideals of family
life of the aryans.
QUESTION7
Which battle is
known as the mahabharata
Answer: the battle
between kurus and pandavas along the battlefield of
kurukshetra is known as the mahabharats.
Questiion 8
Give two features of
painted grey ware.
Answer:
The PGW is a very
fine, smooth and even-coloured pottery. It was made out of
well worked, high quality clay with geometric patterns
painted on it in black colour. Floral pattern and sun
symbols are seen in some cases. The pottery include open
mouthed bowls and dishes.
QUESTION9
How did trade become
a pivot(central point) around which the life of the people
revolved?
Answer:
During the later
vedic age, trade became quite prominent; so the settlement
or the towns and cities developed around the main trade
centres. Thus, the city life moved according to the
activities associated with the trade.
QUESTION10
What was the role of
iron?
Answer
Iron played a
significant role in the lives of peasants as the use iron
became popular for making agricultural tools. Iron
ploughshares and metal tools were used and a variety of
crops cultivated.
QUESTION11.
State the difference
in the position of women between the early vedic age and
later vedic age.
Answer:
During the early
vedic period wome were respected. The institution of
marriage had become sacred.
The daughters were
given freedom to choose their husbands.
In the later vedic
age, there was significant decline in the status of women.
Their participation in yajnas was not considered necessary.
They did not enjoy the right to property. Man’s opinion were
respected. As a result the freedom to choose the husbands by
women was curtailed.
QUESTION12
What are varnas?
Name them
Answer;
Varna was a division
on the basis of skin colour. In vedic age it became popular
as the society was divided into four varnas. Brahmins,
Kshatriya, vaishayas and shudras.
QUESTION13.
Name the four
ashrams into which the human life span was divided,
indicating the time span for each
Answer:
The four ashramas
are Brahmacharaya, Grihastha, Vanaprasthas and sanyasa
1.
Brahmacharya ashrama: it lasted upto the
age of 25 years. During this period, the pupil was expected
to acquire knowledge in the gurukul and observe strict
discipline.
2.
Grihastha ashrama: during this peiod, man
was supposed to marry and raise a family. This perios lasted
from the age of 25-50 years.
3.
Vanaparastha ashrama: it lasted from the
age of 50-75 years. This period man was expected to retire
from worldly life and acquire and philosophical knowledge.
4.
Sanyasa ashrams: the last stage lasts
from the age of 75 to 100 years this period of renunciation
QUESTION14.
State the change
that occured in the position of brahmins in the later vedic
age?
Answer:
In the later vedic
age brahmins or the priests performed religious rituals. The
caste system become rigid. The priests came to be considered
as gods on earth.
QUESTION15.
State three
important changes that took place in the society in the
process of its transition from early vedic period to the
later vedic period.
Answer:
Three changes:
1.
Single family converted to joint family.
2.
Equal rights enjoyed by women changed to
declination in status of women.
3.
General caste system converted to rigid
caste system.
Question16
Difference between
the economy of early vedic age and later vedic age.
Answer
Early vedic age:
In the beginning the
main occupation was domestication of animals and agriculture
was secondary.
Cattle was the
important source of wealth.
Many engaged in
trade and commerce. Dyeing, embroidery;carpentry, weaving,
pottery, crafts in gold and iron were important occupations.
Later vedic age:
Agriculture became
the chief accupation while domestication of animals also
continued.
Land was the
important source of wealth.
Traders guilds had come up and
trade had become very important. Besides occupation of
earlier period, many new occupations like physicians,
musicians, and many other profession emerged.
Note
: these questions will include an inside portion.
Class 9th subject history and civics
Chapter 1 of civics
Question 1:
What is meant by the
term constitution
Answer:
The Constitution is
a comprehensive document containing the set of rules
according to which the government of a country runs. It
regulates the position and powers of three organs of the
government- the legislative, the executive and judiciary.
Question 2:
On the basis of
which plan was the constituent assembly constituted?
Answer:
Cabinet mission
plan.
Question 3
What is objective
resolution?
Answer:
Objective resolution
was proposed by pt. Jawahar lal nehru on december 13,
1946 for highlighting the national goals.
Question 4;
By whom was the
objective resolution proposed?
Answer:
It was proposed by
the Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.
Question 5:
Who was appointed as
the chairman of the drafting committee of the constitution?
Answer
Dr. Bhim Rao
Ambedkar was appointed as the chairman of the Drafting
committee.
Question 6:
When was the
constitution adopted and passed? When did it come into
force?
Answer
-
Adopted and
passed: 26 November 1949.
-
Come into force:
26 January 1950.
Question 7:
State the
significance of January 26.
Answer :
It was on this date,
January 26, in 1929, that the lahore session of the indian
national congress had for the first time given the call for
purna swaraj. Since then, the day was celebrated as
independence day upto 1947, but later on, it was designated
as the republic day.
Question 8:
What is the
preamble?
Answer :
The Preamble is the
introductory part of the constitution, which sets out the
main objectives of the constitution.
Question 9;
Explain the
significance of the term sovereign.
Answer:
It means that India
is its own supreme power and not a subject of any other
state or country.
Question 10.
Mention any two
features indicating the significance of the preamble.
Answer:
1.The preamble
represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the
entire constitution of india.
2. It contains the
five basic features of the constitution ie. sovereign,
socialist, secular, democratic and republic.
Question 11.
Who represented the
anglo indians in the constituent assembly /
Answer
Mr. frank anthony
and S.H prater
Question 12.
Why is our
constitution known as the fundamental law of the land?
Answer
Being superior to
the ordinary law of the state, the constitution of India is
known as the fundamental law of land.
Structured questions
Question 1
With the reference
to the making of indian constitution explain the following
Part a.
When and
how……...elected?
Answer 1.
The first sitting of
the assembly was held on december 9, 1946
The cabinet mission
plan arrived in India in 1946 and put forward a set of
proposals to meet the demands of freedom fighters. One of
these proposals involved setting up of a constituent
assembly whose members were to be elected
indirectly by the provincial legislative
assemblies.
Part b. How was
the membership……..partition of the country? Answer
The muslim league
boycotted the constituent assembly consequently the members
representing the territories went
to pakistan withdrew from the cosntituent assembly of
india. As a result, the membership of the constituent
assembly of india stood at 299n against the original number
of 385.
Part. c how can you
say that constituent …………….of the indian society.
Answer:
The wide ranging
membership of the constituent assembly gave representation
to all shades of public opinion.it was composed of members
from all the categories and communities belonging to india.
Question 2
With the reference
to objective resolution
Part a.
Same as the 4th
answer. Indian idependence act 1947 gave legal sanctity to
the constituent assembly.
Part b
Main points
Answer1.
-
India will be a
republic.
-
The ideals of
social, political and economic democracy would be
guaranteed to all the people.
-
The republic
would grant fundamental rights to citizens.
-
The state would
safeguard the rights of backward and minorities.
Part c.
Three principles
Answer:
-
Making indian
constitution workable, flexible and strong enough to
hold the country together both in peace and in war.
-
Providing special
safeguard to the minorities.
-
Incorporating the
right to constitutional remedies.
Note: these questions cover the inside portion also.
9th Class Chapter 3rd Jainism and Buddhism
Question 1 angas and subject matter
Answer
Jain scriptures are popularly known as agamas i.e what comes
out from the mouth of the lord. The teaching of lord
mahavira compiled by his disciples in 12 parts called angas.
These deal with code of conduct for jain monk, and also
expound the jain doctrines in a comprehensive manner.
Question 2.
Triptikas…?
Answer:
The triptikas are the most important literary works of the
buddhists. The word triptikas means three baskets of
buddhists canon.
name :
3.
The vinaya pitaka.
4.
The suta pitaka.
5.
The abhidhamma pitaka.
Question 3. Causes … rise.
Answer:
5.
The rigid caste system.
6.
Monopoly of priest for expensive rituals.
7.
Difficulty of the common people to understand Sanskrit
language.
8.
Role of kshatriya princes.
Question 4.
Who
was………. His name?
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavira was the 24th and the last of the
tirthankaras.
His father held a prosperous kingdom at his birth time, so
he was called vardhamana which meant prosperity.
Question 5.
Five vows….
Answer.
4.
Ahimsa - non violence.
5.
Asateya - not to steal.
6.
Satya - not to tell a lie.
7.
Aparigraha - not to possess propoerty.
8.
Brahamcharya- to practise chastity.
Question 6.
Tri ratnas.
Answer: according to mahavira, there were three ways to
attain moksha, known as tri ratnas ie.
1.
Right faith.
2.
Right knowledge
3.
Right conduct.
Question 7.
Causes…. Jainism.
answer:
1.
The use of simple dialect that is prakrit for preaching.
2.
The solid patronage by great kings.
Question 8
Two sects…..
Answer:
The two sects of jainism were as follows:
1.
Shvetambaras.
2.
digambaras.
Question 9
Gautam buddha… born?
Answer:
Gautam buddha was the founder of buddhism. He belonged to
the kashatriya clan of sakya. He was born in 563 BC at
lumbini near kapilavastu.
Question 10.
What are ……...sights?
Answer:
1.
An old man bent with age
2.
A sick man groaning with pain.
3.
A dead body of man being carried .
4.
An ascetic in search of salvation.
Question 11.
When and ……….. Enlightenment?
Answer:
After leaving home in search of truth, gautama wandered from
place to place. Afterwards he studied under renowned
teachers of rajgriha and at last he went to gaya and
practised severe penance and life of austerity and finally
at the age of thirty five was enlightened sitting under a
peepal tree that place is known as bodh
gaya in bihar.
Question 12.
Noble truths ….
Answer:
1.
The world is full of suffering.
2.
The suffering has a cause.
3.
Desire is the cause of suffering
4.
If desire is stopped, suffering can also be stopped.
Question 13.
Four points……….buddha.
Answer:
1.
Right action
2.
Right thought
3.
Right belief
4.
Right living.
Question 14
Meaning ...name
Answer: Buddha: gautama after attaining knowledge came to
be known as buddha means the enlightened one.
Tathagat: buddha is also called tathagat means the founder
of the truth.
Question 15.
Two principles……..sangha.
Answer:
1.
To speak the truth.
2.
To abide by brahmacharya.
Question 16.
Features of buddhism…
Answer:
1.
Buddha inspired the people to lead a simple life.
2.
He used simple language.
3.
Easy to follow no complex rituals.
Question 17.
difference …. Hinyana and mahayana.
Answer:
Hinyana
|
mahayana
|
Buddha was
regarded as human being who attained enlightenment
through own efforts
|
Buddha was
regarded as the incarnation of god and provider of
salvation
|
It shuns
idol- worship, buddha was not believed as god
|
The image of
buddha was worshipped
|
Question
18.
Give ….causes of ….
Answer:
1.
Division of Buddhism into two sects.
2.
Corruption in sungha.
3.
Monks and nuns started living worldly lives.
Class
9 Geography
CHAPTER-ROCK STRUCTURE [4]
Ans 1:Lithosphere is the solid crust of rocks on the surface
of the earth on which we live.
Ans 2: The continental layer and oceanic layer are the two
layers of the lithosphere.
Ans 3: Mantle lies below the crust. Its exact position is
between the lithosphere and the core of the earth.This layer
is also known as Mesosphere.
Ans 4: Mantle is the second layer of the earth between the
crust and the core with its upper boundary marked by
Mohorovicic Discountinuity and its lower boundary marked by
the Gutenburg Discountinuity.
Ans 5:Core is the central part of earth below a depth of
2900 km. It is also known as Barysphere.
Ans 6: Sial layer is composed of silica [Si] and aluminium
[Al]. Therefore it is known as the layer of sial.
Ans 7: PROPERTIES OF CORE OF THE EARTH:
[1]Core the inner most layer of the earth.
[2] It is composed mainly of iron and nickel.
[3]It is the thickest part of the earth and divided into two
parts outer core and inner core.
Ans 8 earth is composed of three parts crust , mental and
core.
Ans 9 Core is composed of iron and nickel and is called
nife.
Ans 10 The temperature increase as we go down due to the gas
and pressure present inside the surface of the earth.
Ans 11 The difference between sial and sima.
SIAL [1]Upper most layer of the earth crust.
[2]Its thickness is nearly 20km.
[3]It is composed of silica and aluminium.
SIMA [1]Lower part of the crust.
[2]Its average thickness is about 25 to 30 km.
[3] It is composed of silica and magnesium.
Ans 12 : The two most important and abundant chemical
elements present in the earth crust are oxygen 46% and
silicon 28%.
Ans 13 : The contacts zone of the crust and mantle is called
Mohorovicic Discontinuity.
Ans 14 : Mantle is composed of magnesium and iron silicates
along with substantial quantities of sulphites in the upper
mantle and nickel and iron in the lower mantle.
Q-DEFINES THE FOLLOWING TERMS:-
[1] Crust-Earths outer shell of crystalline surface rock,
ranging from 5-60 km in thickness from oceanic crust to
mountain ranges.
[2] Mantle- It is a layer of silicate rock between the crust
and the outer core.
[3] Core- The central part of the earth below a depth of
2900 km .
[4] Nife- Core is composed of iron and nickel and is called
nife.
CHAPTER- 3 Rotation and Revalution
Ans no.1= The earth is tilted on Its axis. This tilting of
the earth on its axis is know as the inclination of the
earth axis .
Ans no.2= Coriolis Force.
Ans
no.3 = .The rotation of the Earth from west to east
determines the direction in which the sun moon and stars
appear to rise and set. .Another proof of rotation of
earh is that if one drops a stone from top of a multistorey
building it will fall slightly towards the east.
Ans
no.4 = Centrifugal force causes slight flattening of the
earth at two polls .
Ans no.5 = The spinning of the
earth on its polar axis is termed as rotation. . Effect
of Rotation . The daily occurrences of the day and
night. . The apparent movement of the celestial bodies.
Ans no.6 = Meaning of the term solstice and Equinoxes
solstice : An event occurring when the sun appears to
reach its most northerly or southerly excursion relative to
the celestial equator on the celestial sphere. .
Equinoxes : The time when the sun crosses the plane of the
earths equator makng night and day of equal length all over
the earth.
Ans no .7 = Rotation causes the formation
of day and night . [Diagram on page no. 33 figure 3.2].
Ans no . 8 = Summer solstice on june 21, winter sostice
on december 22 After the spring equinox the sun appears to
move north and is directly overhead tropic of cancer on june
21 this is term as summer solstice . On dec 22 the sun
shines overhead on tropic of capricorn in southern
hemisphere. The northern hemisphere has its winter solstices
.
Ans no .9 = Dec 22 is the longest day in the
southern
hemisphere .
Ans no. 10 = June 21 is the longest day in the northern
hemisphere.
Ans no. 11 = Orbit is the path along which the earth travels
when moving around the sun in 365 ¼ days.
Ans no. 12 = The arctic circle experience mid night sun on
june 21.
Ans no. 13 = Earth compete one circle around the sun 365 ¼
days. Every four years the extra one-fourth day is taken as
one whole day.
Ans no. 14 = Days and nights of equal duration on the
equator on 21 march and 23 september.
Ans no . 15 = If axix was perpendicular to the place of
ecliptic, every place on the earth surface
would have had 12hrs of day and 12hrs of night and
there would have been no seasons. [Draw figure no 3.5]
Ans no. 16 = The
period of rotation or the time required for the earth to
turn through 360 degree is 23hrs , 56minutes ,4.09sec . This
period is termed as sidereal day.
Ans no. 17 = The earth is said to be in perihelion on
January 3rd when distance least or about
147million km
Ans no.18= The speed of earth revolution varies according to
the path of the orbit occupied .The velocity is greatest at
perihelion and least at aphelion
Ans no. 19= The effect of speed of earth rotation are-
.The daily occurrences ofday and night.
.The apparent movement of the celestial bodies
Ans no.20= The two features of summer solstice are –
.The duration of day is longer than night.
.The length of day increases with increasing latitude north
of the equator.
Ans no .21= The two motions of the earth are rotation and
revolution
Ans no.22= The path along which the earth travel when moving
round the sun.
Ans no. 23= The earth rotates on an imaginary line called
axis but it is not at right angle to the plane of revolution
it make an of 66 1/2degree with the plane of ecliptic andis
tilted 23 1/2degree from a line perpendicular to that palne.
Ans no.24= SAME AS ANSWER NO 3.
Ans no.25=The time when the sun crosses the plane of the
earth equator making night and day of equal length all over
the earth.It occurs on march 21 and September 23.
Class 9 Physics chapter 3 ( A to E) Law's of Motion
Exercise
3 (A)
EQ1. Explain giving two examples each
of:(a) contact force and (b) non contact forces.
1.Frictional force:when a book placed
on the table top is pushed to the right, the force of friction acts on the
book towards left. This force comes into play as soon as book tends to move
and resists the motion of book on the table.
2.Normal reaction force:when you hold a
block on your palm, the block exerts a force due to it's weight downwards on
your palm and you have to exert a
reaction force upward on the block normal to the palm to keep the block in
position.
Non contact forces:(1) if a body is
thrown up in air, it goes up, reaches to a height and then returns to ground.
(2) A coin falls down when it is
released at a height.
Q2give one example in each case
where:(1) force is of contact
Ans force of friction.
(2) force is at a distance
Ans:gravitational force.
Q3state the effects of a force applied
on rigid and non rigid body. How does the effects of force differ in two
cases.
Ans A force when applied on a rigid
bodydoes not change the dimension of the body but cause motion in it. On the
other hand when force is applied on a non rigid body causes a change in its
dimension and can also produce motion in it.
Q4Give one example in each case where a
force:(1) stops a moving body.
AnsAfielder on the ground stops a
moving ball by applying force with his hands.
(2) moves a stationary body.
AnsThe push exerted by a broom move the
trash.
(3) changes the size of a body.
AnsBy loading a spring hanging from a
rigid support, the length of spring increases.
(4) changes the shape of a body.
Ans On pressing a piece of rubber, it's
shape change
Exercise
3 (B)
1.
A What is the Galileo's law of inertia?
Ans:- According to Galileo's law of
inertia- a body continues to be in the state of rest or in the state
of uniform motion unless an external force is applied on it.
2.
State the Newton's first law of motion.
Ans:- Newton's first law of motion
states that "A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion
will continue in motion in a straight line with uniform speed,unless it
is compelled by an external
force to change its state of rest or of uniform motion."
3.
State and explain the law of inertia (or Newton's first law of motion).
Ans:- Law of inertia."Is the property
of a body due to which it resists a change in its state of
rest or of uniform motion.
4.
What is meant by the term inertia?
Ans:- Inertia is the property of a body
due to which it cannot change its state (rest or of uniform motion)
Itself, untill some external force is applied on it.
5.
Give qualitative definition of force on the basis of Newton's first law
of motion.
Ans:- Force is that external cause
which tends to change the state of rest or the state of motion of an object
6.
Give two examples to show that greater the mass,greater is the inertia
of the body.
Ans:- (1)It is difficult to
set a loaded trolley (which has more mass)in motion than an unloaded
trolley
(which has less mass).
(2) A cricket ball is more massive than a tennis ball.In case when they
are moving with the same
velocity,it is more difficult to stop the cricket ball (which has more
mass)in comparision to the
tennis ball (which has less mass).
7.
'More the mass,the more difficult it is to move the body from rest'.
Explain this statement by giving
an example.
Ans:- A truck has more mass than a
car.More force is required to move or start a truck than a car.
8.
Name the two kinds of inertia.
Ans:- The two kinds of inertia are:-
(1) Inertia of rest.
(ii) Inertia of motion.
9.
Give one example of each of the following (a) inertia of rest and (b)
inertia of motion.
Ans:- (A) When a hanging carpet is
beaten with a stick, the dust particles start falling out of it due to inertia
of rest and that part of the carpet moves ahead.
(B) An athlete often runs before taking a long jump.The reason is that
by running he brings his entire
body in the state of motion.When the body is in motion,it becomes
easier to take a long jump.
10.
Why does a person fall when he jumps out from a moving train?
Ans:- This is so because inside the
train,his whole body was in a state of motion with the train.On jumping
out of the moving train, as soon as his feet touch the ground,the lower
part of his body comes to rest,
while the upper part still remains in motion due to inertia of
motion.As a result,he falls in the
direction of motion of the train and gets hurt.
11.
Why does a coin placed on a card, drop into the tumbler when the card
is rapidly
flicked with the finger?
Ans:- The reason is that when the card
is flicked a momentary force acts on the card,so it moves away.
But the coin kept on it does not share the motion at once ant it
remains at its place due to inertia
of rest.The coin then falls down into the tumbler due to the pull of
gravity.
12.
Why does a ball thrown vertically upwards in a moving train,come back
to the thrower's hand?
Ans:- A ball thrown vertically upwards
in a moving train,come back to the thrower's hand because at the
moment the ball was thrown,it was in motion along with the person and
the train.During the time,the
ball remains in air,both the person and the ball move ahead through the
same distance.This makes
the ball to come back to the thrower's
13.
Explain the following:-
(a)
When a train suddenly moves forward,the passenger standing in the
compartment tends to fall backwards.
Ans:- When the train is at rest,
passengers standing in the compartment are also at rest.When train suddenly
moves forward, the passenger tends to fall backward as upper part of
his body continues to be in state
of rest due to moment of inertia while lower part of his body comes in
motion.
13.(B)When a corridor train suddenly
starts,the sliding doors of some compartments may open.
Ans:- Due to inertia of rest,the
sliding door of compartment opens or closes when train suddenly starts and
due to inertia of motion,the sliding door of the compartment opens or
closes when train suddenly stops.
13.(C)People often shake branches of a
tree for getting down its fruits.
Ans:- The reason is that when the
branches of the tree are shaken,they come in motion,while the fruits due
to inertia,remain in the state of rest.Thus,the massive and weakly
attached fruits fall down due to the
pull of gravity.
Exercise-3 (C)
1.
Name the two factors on which the force needed to stop a moving body in
a given time,depends.
Ans:- The force needed to stop a moving
body in a given time depends both on the mass of the body
and its velocity.
2.
Define linear momentum and state its S.I.unit.
Ans:- Linear momentum of a body is the
product of its mass and velocity.
p=mv
Its S.I.unit kgms-1.
3.
Show that the rate of change of momentum =massx acceleration. Under
what condition does th
relation hold?
Ans:- Let a force F be applied on a
body of mass m for time t due to which its velocity changes
from u to v.Then
Initial momentum of the body = mu
Final momentum of the body =mv
Change in momentum of the body in t second = mv-mu = m(v-u)
Rate of change of momentum =m(v-u)/t
=m a
Rate of change of momentum = mass x acceleration
This relation holds true when mass of the body remains constant.
4.
State Newton's second law of motion.What information do you get from
it?
Ans:- According to Newton's second law
of motion,the rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional
to the force applied on it and the change in momentum takes place in
the direction in which the force is applied.
We get information that the rate of change of momentum of a body is
directly proportional to the force applied
on it .
5.
How does Newton's second law of motion differ from first law of motion?
Ans:- Newton's second law of motion
gives us a quantitative definition of force whereas the first law gives us a
qualitative definition of force.
6.
Write the mathematical form of Newton's second law of motion.State
condition if any.
Ans:- The mathematical form of Newton's
second law of motion is F=mxa
force= massx acceleration
Condition: Mass remains constant.
7.
How can Newton's first law of motion be obtained from the second law of
motion?
Ans:- From Newton's second law,F=m a
If F=0 then a =0
This means that if no force is applied on the body its acceleration
will be zero.If the body is at rest,it
will remain at rest and if it is moving,it will remain moving in the
same direction with the same speed.This
is the statement of Newton's first law of motion.
8.
Draw graphs to show the dependence of
(i)acceleration on force for a constant mass.
Ans:- Page no 66 fig 3.8 from book.
(ii) force on mass for a constant acceleration.
Ans:- Page no 66 fig 3.9 from book.
9.
How does the acceleration produced by a given force depend on mass of
the body?Draw a graph to show it.
Ans:- If a given force is applied on
bodies of different masses,the acceleration produced in them is inversely
propotional
to their masses i.e.a=1/m(for a given force F).A graph plotted for
acceleration a aganist mass m is a curve
(hyperbola) fig.3.10 page no 66 from book.
10.
Name the S.I.unit of force and define it.
Ans:- The S.I.unit of force is
newton.(N)
1 newton is the force which when acts on a body of mass 1 kg, produces
an acceleration of 1 m s-2.
11.
What is the C.G.S.unit of force?How is it defined?
Ans:- The C.G.S.unit of force is dyne.
One dyne is the force which when acts on a body of mass 1 g, produces
an acceleration of 1 cm s-2.
12.
Name the S.I.and C.G.S. units of force.How are they related.
Ans:- S.I.unit of force is newton
(N).C.G.S.unit of force is dyne.
1 newton=1kgx1 ms-2
=1000 gx100 cm s-2
=100000gcms-2
=100000 dyne
13.
Why does a glass vessel break when it falls on a hard floor,but it does
not break when it falls on a carpet?
Ans:-When a glass vessel falls on a
hard floor, it comes to rest in a short time due to which a large force is
on it and it breaks.But when it falls on a carpet,it comes to rest in a
longer time due to which less force
is exerted on it and it does not break.
14.
An athlete prefers to land on sand instead of hard floor while taking a
high jump.
Ans:-By jumping on sand the time
duration in which his feet come to rest increases so the force exerted on his
feet
decreases and he is saved from getting hurt.
Exercise 3 (D)
1.
State the usefulness of Newton's third law of motion.
Ans:- The purpose of Newton's third law
of motion is to understand how does the force act on a body.
2.
State Newton's third law of motion.
Ans:- Newton's third law of motion
state "to every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction".
3.
State and explain the law of action and reaction,by giving two
examples.
Ans:- Statement:-"Action and reaction
are always equal and opposite in direction.
Explantion:-Action and reaction do not act on the same body,but they
always act simultaneously on
two different bodies.Action and reaction do not cancel each other.
Example:-(1) Consider a book lying on a table.The weight of the book
acts vertically downwards
(Action on the table) but the book does not move downwards.That mean
table exerts an equal upward
force on the book(reaction on the book).Thus action and reaction are
equal and opposite.
Example:-(11) While moving on the ground the force exerted by our feet
on the ground is the force of
action and force exerted by the ground on our feet is the force of
reaction which makes us to move
forward.
4.
Explain the motion of a rocket with the help of Newton's third law.
Ans:- In a rocket,fuel is burnt inside
the rocket and the burnt gases at high pressure and high temperature
are expelled out of the rocket through a nozzle.Thus rocket exerts a
force F(action) on gases to
expel them through a nozzle backwards.The outgoing gases exert an equal
and opposite force R (reaction)on the rocket due to which it moves in the
forward direction(Fig 3.5)
5.
When a shot is fired from a gun,the gun gets recoiled.Expalian.
Ans:- When a man fires a bullet from a
gun,a force F is exerted on the bullet(action)and the gun experiences
an equal recoil R (reaction).
6.
When you step ashore from a stationary boat,it tends to leave the
shore.Explain.
Ans:- When you step ashore,you push the
boat with foot in the backward direction(Action).The boat exerts an equal
force on you in the forward
direction(Reaction)and enables you to move forward.
7.
When two spring balances joined at their free ends,are pulled
apart,both show the same reading.Explain
Ans:- When two spring balances joined
at their free ends are pulled apart,both show the same reading in accordance
with Newton's third
of motion.The pull on one spring by the other spring is the action
and the pull on the second due to the first spring is the reaction
which is equal and opposite.
8.
To move a boat ahead in water,boatman has to push water backwards by
his oar.Explain.
Ans:- To move a boat ahead in water,the
boatman pushes(Action)the water backwards by his oar so that water
exerts equal and opposite force (Reaction )in the forward direction on
the boat.
9.
A person pushing a wall hard is liable to fall back give reason.
Ans:- A person pushing a wall hard is
liable to fall back because when he pushes(Action)the wall,the wall
exerts an equal force(Reaction)on him.
10.
A light ball falling on the ground,after striking the ground rises
upwards.Explain the reason.
Ans:- When a ball hit (Action)the
ground,the ball experience equal and opposite force (Reaction)by the ground.
11.
Comment on the statement 'the sum of action and reaction on a body is
zero'.
Ans:- The statement is wrong because
action and reaction never act on the same body.They act simultaneously
on two different bodies.
Exercise
3 (E)
1.
Write an expression for the gravitational force of attraction between
two bodies of masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r.
Ans:- The expression for the
gravitational force of attraction between two bodies of masses m1 and m2
separted by a
distance r is F=Gm1m2/r2 where G is the universal gravitational
constant.
2.
How does the gravitational force of attraction between two masses
depend on the distance between them?
Ans:- The gravitational force of
attraction between two masses is inversely propotional to the square of the
distance between them.
3.
Define gravitational constant G.
Ans:- Gravitational constant G is
numerically equal to the magnitude of force of attraction between two masses
each of 1kg
placed at a separation of 1 m.
4.
Write the numerical value of gravitational constant G with its
S.I.unit.
Ans:- G = 6.67x10-11 Nm2 kg-2
5.
What is the importance of law of gravitation?
Ans:- Newton used this law to explain
the motion of planets around the sun,the motion of the moon around the earth
and the motion of a freely falling body.
6.
What do you understand by the them force due to gravity?
Ans:- The force with which earth
attracts a body is called force due to gravity on the body.
7.
Write an expression for the force due to gravity on a body of mass m
and explain the meaning of the symbols used in it.
Ans:- The force due gravity on a body
of mass m is given by
F=GMm/R 2
Where M=mass of earth,R= radius of earth,G=universal gravititonal
constant.
8.
Define the term acceleration due to gravity?Write its S.I.unit.
Ans:- It is the acceleration produced
in a freely falling body due to the gravitational force of attraction of the
earth.Its
S.I.unit is m s-2.
9.
Write down the average value of g on the earth's surface.
Ans:- The average value of g is 9.8N or
9.8ms-2.
10.
How is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth
related to its mass and radius?
Ans:- The acceleration due to gravity
(g) is related to the mass (M) and radius of earth(R) by the relation
g=GM/r2.
11.
How are g and G related?
Ans:- By Newton's law of motion, the
force due to gravity on a body of mass m on its surface will be
F=mg........(1)
By Newton's gravitational law,this attractive force is given by
F=GMm/R2........(2)
from eqns.1 and 2
GMm/R2=mg
g=GM/R2
12.
Define the terms mass and weight.
Ans:- Mass:-The mass of a body is the
quantity of matter it contains.
Weight: The weight of a body is the force with which the earth attracts
it.
13.
Distinguish between mass and weight.
Ans:- Mass
(1)
It is a measure of the quantity of matter contained in the body,at
rest.
(ii)
It is a scalar quantity.
(iii) Its S.I.unit is kg.
(iv)
It is measured by a physical or beam balance.
(v)
It is constant for a body and does not change with the change in place.
Weight:-
(1)
It is the force with which the earth attracts a body.
(ii)
It is a vector quantity.
(iii) Its S.I.unit is newton (N).
(iv)
It is measured by a spring balance.
(v)
It changes from place to place due to change in the value of g.
14.
State the S.I.unit of (a)mass and (b)weight.
Ans:- S.I.unit of mass is kilogram(kg)
S.I.unit of weight is newton(N).
15.
Explain the meaning of the following statement 'Kgf=9.8N'
Ans:- 1 kgf=9.8N means that a body of
mass 1kg is attracted towards the centre of the earth with a force of 9.8 N.
PHYSICAL EDUCATION (9th Class)
CHAPTER-1 Very short answers: 1. :-Support
:-Shape :-Protection :-Junction :-Storehouse
:-Manufacture of RBC
(With explaination)
2. 206 bones. Longest bones Femur (present in thigh) and smallest bone
Stapes(present in ears)
3. Page no. 15(Down Right))
4. Page no. 12(Middle Right)
5.
:-Ball and Socket joint(at Shoulder and Hip joint)
:-Hinge joint (at Elbow joint)
:-Pivot joint (at Neck joint)
:-Gliding joint(at Carpals joint)
:-Saddle joint (at Thumb joint)
Match the following:
Sequence: 4, 6, 7, 2, 8, 1, 5,
3, 9
Short answers:
1. Done
2. Done
3. Femur,Tibia,Fibula, Tarsals, Metatarsals and Phalanges
4. Page no. 13(Left side)
5.
:-Long bones
:-Short bones
:-Flat bones
:-Irregular bones
:-Sesamoid bones
:-Cartilaginuous bones
(With explaination)
6. Three types:
:-Immovable or Fibrous joint
:-Slightly Movable or Cartilaginous joint
:-Freely Movable or Synovial joint
(With explaination)
Long answers:
1.
:-Stronger bones
:-Reduces bone injuries
:-Improves ossification
:-More blood supply
:-Faster healing
:-Increases RBC
(With explaination)
2. Done
3. Bone(same diagram)
Cartilage (Cartilages are elastic hard connective tissues. The elasticity is
due to the presence of chondrin protein and some in organic salts. Cartilage
has lacunae and chondroblasts in its structure. It is of three types i.e
Hyaline, Fibrous and Calcified Cartilage.
4. Done
CHAPTER-2
Very short answers:
1.
:- Provide proper shape and structure
:- Provide effort
:- Bring external movement
:-Help in fluid movement
:- Forceful actions
:- Provide protection
(With explaination)
2. Trapezius, Levator Scapulae and Deltoid
3.
:- Skeletal Muscles
:- Smooth Muscles
:- Cardiac Muscles
(With explaination)
4. Page no. 22
5.
:- Isometric exercises
:- Isotonic exercises (Concentric and Eccentric exercises)
:- Isokinetic exercises
(With explaination)
Match the following:
Sequence:
2, 7, 4, 1, 3, 8, 6, 5, 9
short answers:
1. Done
2. Each muscle is made up of thousands of long and narrow muscle cells called
muscle fibres. These muscle fibres are arranged in bundles and enclosed within
a tough layer of connective tissue called Epimysium(Sarcolemma).
Every muscle fibres is made up of a very large number of microscopic threads
called Myofibrils. Each Myofibril consists of rows of minute protein molecules
(Actin and Myosin). It is shaped like two combs with their teeth interlocked
at the ends.
3. Page no. 24(any six with their functions)
4.
Isometric Exercises (same length of muscles,no visible movement of muscles,no
external movements, work done is zero)
Isotonic Exercises (same tension in muscles, visible movement of muscles,
external movement, work is done during these exercises)
5. Done
Long answers:
1.
:- Gain in strength
:- Efficiency improvement
:- Lactic acid tolerance
:- Proper shape of body
:- Faster recovery from injury
:- Increase in muscle mass
2. Done
3. Done in short answers
4. Done
5. Done
FOOTBALL(2nd Term)
1.
(a)It is the most common skill used to hit the ball with power. It reaches
long away to the desired position. It is performed in various ways like
kicking with inside or outside of foot, instep kick,punt kick, scissor kick,
banana or chip kick,roll back kick etc. It can be used during free kick, goal
kick, corner kick, penalty kick or when situation suits.
(b) Usually an attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A
defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead
hits the overhead coming ball.
(c) This skill is used to throw the ball back for the play from the side or
touch line. The player must throw the ball over the head while both the feet
should be in contact with ground. The player must not touch the sideline
during throw in.
(d) During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation
time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes
each overtime period. If there is a tie after the overtime period, a penalty
shoot-out takes place. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kicks in turns.
If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the team keep taking penalty
kicks until one team wins. This procedure is called Sudden-Death.
(e)During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation
time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes
each overtime period. In this duration if any team makes the goal, wins the
match. Earlier there was golden goal period in which the team who scores the
goal first wins the game but now it is said as silver goal period.
(f)It is given when referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul
has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional hit to the
player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding
opponent from behind, violent play, kicking the opponent. While taking
direct free kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the
ball. Goal can be scored from direct free kick.
(g)It is also known as flag kick. Corner kick is awarded when a defender puts
the ball out of the play behind his team's goal line. An attacking player then
tries to send the ball in front of the goal for another attacker to head or
make a short pass to a teammate to convert it into goal. It is taken from
corner arc or quarter yard circle.
(h)A penalty kick is awarded when a foul is committed by a defender in the
penalty area. The ball is placed on the penalty spot and the attacking player
tries to kick it directly into the goal and goalkeeper only defends it. The
offences (fouls) are like intentional hit to the player, intentional handling
the ball, charging opponent, holding opponent from behind etc.
(i) Player is expelled if he commits a serious foul like strikes or charges or
kicks or attempts to kick it trips on opponent, holds opponent, handles the
ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting language, receives
a second yellow card during the game.
(j)A pass between defenders into the open space between the fullbacks and the
goalkeeper with the idea that a forward will beat the defenders to the ball.
There are two types : a Straight Through Pass and a Diagonal Through Pass.
(k) Done (same as free kick)
(l) Corner arc is also known as quarter yard circle from where corner kick is
taken. It is on all four corners. The dimension is 1 yard(91cms)
(m)It is starting the game (in beginning or after half-time or after the goal
has been scored or in extra time). During kick-off players remain in their own
half. Opponent team player doesn't enter 10 yards circle until ball is pushed
or kicked forward. Kick-off player should not touch the ball consecutively
second time until played by another player.
(n) The time which game has been stopped temporarily due to injury of the
player. This stopped duration of game is added in regular time after each
half.
(o)A kick in which the ball is placed on the ground before kicking eg. Penalty
kick, Corner kick, Kick-off etc.
(p)The penalty area(outer box) is 18 yards deep, so the ball is only 6 yards
from the top of the penalty area. Therefore, the arc(outer circle) is drawn so
that all players must be 10 yards away from the ball at the taking of a
penalty kick. Also an arc with 9.15m radius drawn outside the penalty area
box.
(q) Federation International de Football Association, formed in 1904.
2. Draw Football playfield with all the dimensions from book.
Positions:
Left forward-Center Forward-Right Forward
Left Mid Fielder-Center Mid Fielder-Right Mid Fielder
Left Full Back-Center Full Back-Right Full Back
Goalkeeper
3.
Goalpost (8yard * 8feet with 5 inches thickness of post)
Goal Area(6yards * 20 yards)
4. Done
5. 30 minutes extra time, divided into two halves of 15-15 minutes each.
6.
Direct Free kick
Indirect free kick
Corner kick
Penalty kick
Kick-off
(With explaination)
7. In India, the Britishers brought this game and formed Football Association
in 1878. Football became very popular in Bengal. Many clubs were established
to improve Football from Bengal. India had started the second oldest Football
tournament known as Durand Cup in 1888 from Shimla. Later, this venue was
changed to New Delhi from 1940. There are many clubs associated with Football
in India like Mohan Bagan, Mohammedan Sporting, East Bengal, JCT, Salgaokar,
Mahindra and Mahindra etc.
FIFA(Federation International de Football Association) is the controlling body
at International level.
8. Many Football clubs are formed for participation in European league, which
had hightened the Football standards in Europe. The best Football players of
the world play in European league from different Football clubs like Real
Madrid, Barcelona, Juventus, Arsenal etc.
9. Player's basic equipments (Jersey with number,Shorts,Long Stockings, Studs,
Shin Guard, Gloves for Goalkeeper etc.)
Football specifications (27-28 inches circumference, 14-16 ounce weight,
Leather or Rubber or Synthetic made). The air pressure equal to 0.6-1.1
atmosphere.
10. A player is offside when he is close to the opposing goal line without the
ball, unless two defenders are between the attacker and the goal line. Offside
is given by linesmen by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case
and opponent is awarded with indirect kick.
11.
Yellow Card fouls (not respecting referees decision, delay the game, argument,
unsportsmanlike conduct, if goalkeeper keep the possession of the ball for
more than 6 seconds)
Red Card Fouls (strikes or charges or kicks or trips or holds the opponent,
handles the ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting
language)
Fouls are regulated by Match Referee and two Linesmen.
12. When the ball completely crosses the goal line, either in air or grounded,
between the goalposts and under the crossbar of goalpost. It must be scored in
a fair manner.
13. Any six(Name and Country)
14. Done
15.
Three substitutions
Substitution procedure is already discussed.
16.
Match Referee regulates the time record of game.
Injury Time (The time for which game has been stopped temporarily due to
injury of the player. This stopped duration of the game is added in regular
time after each half.
17. Any three(with their name and year)
18. Syed Naeemuddin
19. During a knock-out tournament, it there is a tie at the end of regulation
time then the teams play for 30 minutes extra time of two half of 15 minutes
each overtime period. If there is a tie after the overtime period, a penalty
shoot-out takes place. Each team chooses 5 players to take the kicks in turns.
If the teams are still tied after 5 kicks each, the team keep taking penalty
kicks until one team wins. This procedure is called Sudden-Death.
20.
Yellow Card fouls (not respecting referees decision, delay the game, argument,
unsportsmanlike conduct, if goalkeeper keep the possession of the ball for
more than 6 seconds). Yellow Card is a warning card.
Red Card Fouls (strikes or charges or kicks or trips or holds the opponent,
handles the ball intentionally, uses abusive or offensive or insulting
language). Red card is an expulsion card. To whom it is shown can not play
further in the same match. Also,under such condition substitution can not be
done.
21.
-Unsupportive Behaviour
-Abusive words or action
-Delays the restart of game
-Enters in playfield without permission of Referee
-Leaves playfield without permission of Referee
-Infringes the laws of game
22. Red Card
23. Yellow Card
24.
Fouls (kicking or Trips or Holds an opponent)
Offences (Deliberately Delays game, infringement of rules, argumentative
behaviour)
25.
Trapping the ball by Chest,Thigh and under the feet.
26.
Dropped Ball(In case of struggle for ball possession when both players commit
simultaneously foul, in that case the Referee stops the game for some time and
afterwards drops the common ball to get the possession of the ball. Play
restarts when ball touches the ground.
Heading (An attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender
heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the
overhead coming ball.
27. Done
28. Done
29. Done
30.
-The Ball(at penalty spot, i.e 11m from goal line)
-The Defending Goalkeeper (In front of goal line,in own goal area)
The Players (Behind the outer circle, i.e arc drawn outside the penalty area
box)
31. Done
32.
(a)110m and 75m
(b)90 minutes for men
80 minutes for women
Extra time (30 minutes divided into two halves of 15-15 minutes each)
(c)
8 yards and 8 feet
(d)
10 yards and 1 yard
VOLLEYBALL
1.
(a)A specialized defensive player who plays in rear half to provide rest to
certain Player. He can be substituted anytime during match from rear row
player. He wears different colour kit. He can not serve, block and smash (he
can smash behind the attack line)
(b)After every change of service, the players of serving side rotate in
clockwise direction, otherwise, it may be a foul.
(c)In Tennis Service, the server can stand anywhere behind the 9m see line and
executes it as a spike behind the service line. If it is hit well, the serve
is a powerful offensive skill.
(d) It is a powerful attack. It has variations like back court spike, line
shot, cross court shot, dip, block abuse, off-speed hit, slide, double quick
hit etc. Player who executes the spike have an excellent sense of balance in
the air and can perceive and anticipate the actions and positions of the
opposing team members. Contact with the ball takes place above the net. A
player specialized in smash is known as spiker.
(e)It is a rally technique used during the match. The tip is a transitory move
between reception and attack like overhead set. It is made with an upward
movement of the arms and legs. Contact with the ball is with the fingertips
without touching palm. A player specialized in lifting is known as Booster or
Setter.
(f)Bump is a defensive skill keeping the ball from falling, receiving serve
and offensive skill as it provides good chance to tip the ball for the spiker.
Bump is the first contact of the ball (service reception). The bump provides
the transition between defence and attack.
(g)It may be executed by one, two or three players and it is the first line of
defence against the spike. Blockers are not expected to block all spikes but
to do as a screen, reducing the floor space that must be covered by the
players behind them. To block, a player has good anticipation of the play. The
tallest players are usually the main blockers.
(h)A ball hit into the net, by a team may still be kept in play (up to 3 hits)
provided that the net is not touched by a player. Players may not touch the
net. If 2 opposing players touch the net simultaneously, the ball is declared
dead and is replayed. Also when the ball touches the hand of blocking players
during smash and fall outside the court.
(i)A player specialized to hit the ball down towards the opponent's court. He
is also known as smasher.
(j)A player specialized to lift the ball for the smash. It is performed over
the coming ball from own teammates. This player is also known as Booster.
(k) During service the players must stay in their positions i.e diagonally
opposite player must be in the same manner as in beginning. Otherwise,
positional fault is given to opponent.
(l)A hit aimed at opponent's court as to gain a point and a service in form of
spike,dig,dink etc.
(m)A player of servicing team must not prevent the visibility of service
player (server). The collective screening, from seeing the server or the
flight path of the ball is illegal.
(n)An extended upright over the net which gives the idea of sideline. It is
180cm in length whereas 80cm above the net. It is made up of fibreglass,
flexible in nature.
(o)An extended line behind the center line which restricts libero to smash
from front area of court. It is 3m away from the net.
(p)An area behind the backline which is used for performing service. It
extends 3-5m behind the service line.
(q)It is given for 60 seconds in the final set when leading team reaches the
8th and 16th points. It may be requested by each team.
(r)It is temporarily interruption asked by the coach during game. Each team
may request a maximum of two timeouts. All requested timeouts last for 30
seconds.
(s)A fault in which a wrong positional player performs the service.
(t)A fault given when the opponent player enters into the opponent area in
air, by crossing center line by foot or by hands over the net during smash,
block or lift.
(u)A player when takes the support from teammate or any other structure or
object in order to reach the ball within the playing area.
2. The game of Volleyball, originally called "Mintonette" was invented in 1895
by William.G.Morgan after the invention of Basketball. Volleyball rules were
framed in 1928 by United States Volleyball Association (USVBA). IN 1947, the
Federation International de Volleyball (FIVB) was founded in Paris. It was
included in the 1964 Olympic Games. In India, Volleyball came into Vogue
through YMCA and later Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) was formed in
1950.
3.
:- One team have total 12 players (6 playing and 6 substitutes)
:- The team that wins a rally, wins a point and a service.
:- A set is won by scoring 25 points.
4.
Net(size of net : 9.5m * 1m width, height of net : 2.43m for men and 2.24m for
women)
Ball(circumference of ball : 65-67cm, weight of ball : 270gm)
Antenna(Done)
5. Replacement of one or more players from the listed substitution apart from
libero. The coach requests for substitution to the assistant referee. An area
3m away towards sideline is allowed to move for substitution. When referee
signals for substitution the player should move out and substitute player
should enter. There are two types of substitutions, legal and illegal
substitution.
6. There are lots of variations of service like underhand,top spin,
floating,jump,jump float, round arm, tennis service etc.
7.
Lift(Done in question 1 (e) part)
Bump(Done in question 1 (f) part)
8. The advantage of block is to stop the spike/smash,so that ball should fall
in opponent court and to gain a point and a service.
It is performed by front row tall player/players, either one,two or all three
players together. They takes vertical jump with their arms stretched up in the
air and open palms on the way of spike trajectory.
:- Net touch
:- over the net penetration
:- under the net penetration
:- body contact with opponent
:- if a back row player blocks
:- if libero blocks
9. When there is a tie at 24-24 points each, the game is extended for two
points because to win a set one team should have a lead of 2 points.
10. From book with all dimensions
11. After every change in service, the players of the serving side rotate in
clockwise direction so that each player should get equal chance to play in
front and back zone both except Libero.
Positional fault (Done)
12.
Attack line(Done)
Back line (A line at the back of court at 9m from the net. It is also known as
service line.
13.A free zone area on both the sides of court, which extends up to 3m, where
player of both the teams performs warming-up for 3-5 minutes before the start
of the match.
14. 3 contacts
15.
Set(A set is won by a score of 25 points. And if there is a tie at 24 points
then game continues until one team has a two points lead)
Match(A match is won by winning 3 sets out of 5)
16. Done
17.
Legal substitution (same as substitution-already discussed)
Illegal substitution (Each team can do 6 substitutions in a set. In case, if
there is injury or expulsion and team has already completed their 6
substitutions in a set, under such condition the substitution done is known as
illegal substitution. A team who ask for it, is penalized. A point and a
service is awarded to the opposing team.
18. Done
19.
First Referee (Regulates the rules, starts and ends the match, Whistles,gives
violations, fouls and penalties)
Assistant Referee (Gives rotation fault, positional fault and line cut)
Captain (Performs toss, give positions to players, ask time outs and
substitutions from Referee, with the consent of coach)
20. Any six
21. Beach volleyball is played on a Sandy surface. Only two players on either
side plays at once. FIVB added it in world championship series in 1987 and
later in 1996 it was added to the Olympics.
22. Done
23. Rotation fault, penetration fault, positional fault,net touch, service
line cut during service and 8 seconds service delay violation.
24. Time outs, Intervals after each set, Objections, Instructions by
officials, legal substitution, illegal substitution, ball out of play etc.
Also due to violations,fouls, exchange of words between players, physical
fights,Bad or poor lights, equipments failure,poor playing surface,team
arrives late at venue etc.
25.
Penalty (Yellow Card) : deliberately delaying of the game, provoking opponent
by words or actions etc.
Expulsion (Red Card) : Use of abusive language, Physical fight etc.
Disqualification (Red and Yellow Cards jointly) : Shouting on referee from
bench area, disturbing table & court officials etc.
26. If match is of league tournament then equal points will be shared by both
the teams. And if match is of knock-out tournament then match can be restarted
after interruption if possible. Else, match can be resumed from the same
points on the kept spare day. Otherwise can be played from beginning on some
other selected day.
27.
Sanctions imposed by Referee:
Warning : Verbal warning,
Penalty : Yellow Card,
Expulsion : Red Card,
Disqualification : Red and Yellow Cards jointly.
28. Net fault (when ball stuck in net during service), service line cut by
server, screening, ball lands out of bounds, Rotation fault and Positional
fault.
29. Done(24)
30. Done(26)
31. Signals out(when ball lands out of court), signals in(when ball lands in
the court), judgement of side with the help of the Antenna.
32. Done
33. Two white side bands are fastened vertically to the net and placed
directly above each sideline. They are 5cm wide and 1m long and are considered
as part of the net. They are elastic in nature.
BADMINTON
1. (a)It is delivery of the shuttle to opponent court to begin with rally.
(b) This is an offensive as well as defensive stroke. It is taken with
overhead swing of the racket to hit the shuttle hard so that it goes deep and
back in the opponent's court. It may be high clear or low clear, over the both
sides of the court in opponent's side.
(c)This is an offensive stroke to stop the rally at once. In this, shuttle is
powerfully hit in downward direction and gives no chance to the opponent to
return. Shuttle is hit with very fast swing of hand just over the head.
Shuttle goes steep down in opponent's court.
(d) During service both the feet should be stationary, otherwise, it is a
fault.
(e)It is the way of scoring in the beginning i.e the score is zero at both
sides.
(f)A game(setting) consists of 21 points continuous scoring, in the best of
three games(sets).
(g)An area between the back boundary lines and long service line for doubles.
It is the back area of the court where long service is considered out during
doubles game, also known as Back Alley.
(h)It is the continuous return of strokes by both the players over the net.
(i)It is the last point in the game by which game winner is decided.
(j)It is playing the strokes from the left side of the body (for right handed
player).
(k)It is the redelivery of the same point. It is called by umpire due to
unforeseen situations like : umpire is unable to see the landing of shuttle,
fault at both sides of the players simultaneously, if receiver is not ready,
shuttle breaks during rally etc.
(l) During service the shuttle has to be delivered below the waist level,
otherwise, it is a fault.
(m)A variation of forehand stroke in which shuttle is hit hard but at low
height.
(n)A shot in which shuttle crosses the net in a diagonal direction.
(o) When score is at 20 all(20 each) on both sides.
2. The modern version of Badminton is said to have its origins in the city of
Pune in India and was initially called 'Poona'. British Army officers posted
there were the first pioneers of the game who took it to Europe. The game was
played in 1873 in a place called 'Badminton House' in England, from where it
got its name.
3. Draw Badminton court and give all dimensions from book.
4. 5 feet at the center and 5 feet 1 inch near the poles.
5. Player/Team, whoever wins the rally, is awarded with a point and a service.
Also, in case of fault done by one player, a point and a service is awarded to
the other player.
6.
:- A game consists of 21 points.
:- Continuous point scoring is followed.
:- Change of sides are done after each game and also on the 11th point in the
final game.
7.
:- Clear(explain)
:- Smash (explain)
:- Drive (explain)
Already done in question(1)
8. In case of tie at 20th point, the difference of two points will be
considered for deciding game.
9. Service is performed diagonally i.e. from right to right and left to left
side over the net as to begin the rally.
Service is illegal, if it is delivered from above the waist level, both feet
are not stationary at the time of service, delivered from wrong side of the
court and wrong player delivers the service.
10. In doubles game a team of two players each plays against the other. They
begin the game with the service from right side of the court to right side
opponent player(diagonally). A game consists of 21 continuous points. A team
who wins a rally is awarded with a point and a service. After winning a rally,
teammates changes their sides i.e. right side player goes to left side and
left side player to right side(opponents will not change their positions,
until they wins a point on their service). Same player serves as long as he is
winning continuous points.
11.
Drop(An offensive stroke hit from deep end which lands close to net)
Smash (Done)
12. Done
13. To check condition of playing surface, conducting toss, to call out score
after end of each rally, to check flight of shuttle in case of dispute, to
give break for cleaning sweat and to sit on high bench to observe the match
carefully.
14. To check waist fault, foot fault, line cut, service court error, changes
shuttle on demand of player, cleans sweat in case falling over the court and
sits opposite to Umpire at normal height.
15. arming-up exercises (shuttle run, squats, sit ups, push ups, stretching,
skipping, zig-zag running etc.)
Conditioning exercises (lunges, s
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